Exam II CV Drugs antagonists Flashcards

1
Q

Mechanism of Action
Binds ___ or ___with alpha receptors

[Alpha-adrenergic Antagonists]

A

competitively or covalently

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2
Q

MOA:
Prevent the effect of ___ and other ___ ___from interacting with the alpha receptor

[Alpha-adrenergic Antagonists]

A

catecholamines and other alpha agonists

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3
Q

MOA:
Located in the ___ and ___
[Alpha-adrenergic Antagonists]

A

heart and peripheral vasculature

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4
Q

Effects
Vaso___
___ ___
Reflex ___
Blocks ___ of insulin secretion

[Alpha-adrenergic Antagonists]

A

dilation
Orthostatic hypotension
tachycardia
inhibition

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5
Q

Effects
Side effects prevent use as essential ____

If beta blockade is not present, ___cardiac stimulation is allowed.

[Alpha-adrenergic Antagonists]

A

antihypertensives

maximal

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6
Q

MoA – ___ ___

[Phentolamine (Regitine)]

A

competitive binding

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7
Q

Nonselective – ___ and ___

[Phentolamine (Regitine)]

A

alpha1 and alpha2

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8
Q

Effects:
___-α1 blockade and direct action on vascular smooth muscle

[Phentolamine (Regitine)]

A

Vasodilation

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9
Q

Effects:
Cardiac stimulation (increased HR and CO)-___ and ___(blocks neg. feedback of NE)

Side-effects: dysrhythmias, angina, hyper- ___, abd. pain, ___ due to ___ tone

[Phentolamine (Regitine)]

A

reflex and α2 blockade
peristalsis, diarrhea, parasympathetic

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10
Q

Uses
Acute HTN emergencies, ___

Accidental infiltration of a ___ (___-___ mg in 10 ml)

[Phentolamine (Regitine)]

A

pheochromocytoma
sympathomimetic, 5-15 mg

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11
Q

Onset –___minutes
Duration – ___-___minutes
Infusion:
[Phentolamine (Regitine)]

A

2
10-15
1 – 10 mcg/kg/min

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12
Q

MoA – ___ __binding to α-receptors
Nonselective, ___>___

[Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)]

A

irreversible covalent
α1>α2

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13
Q

Effects:
___ – orthostatic hypotension exaggerated with hypovolemia, HTN

[Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)]

A

Vasodilation

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14
Q

Effects:
Impairment of ___ ___(lower BP with hypovolemia and vasodilating drugs like volatile agents)

[Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)]

A

compensatory vasoconstriction

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15
Q

Effects:
___ CO

[Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)]

A

Increased

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16
Q

Effects:
Very little change in ___ ___ flow even with ___ BP

[Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)]

A

renal blood, decreased

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17
Q

Effects:
Prevents the inhibition of ___ ___

[Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)]

A

insulin secretion

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18
Q

Effects:
Pupil ___

[Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)]

A

constriction

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19
Q

Effects:
Chronic use may cause ___

[Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)]

A

sedation

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20
Q

Effects:
Nasal ___
[Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)]

A

congestion

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21
Q

Uses:
Control BP in ___

[Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)]

A

pheochromocytoma

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22
Q

Uses:
In trauma patients, used to ___vasoconstriction (shock), only after ___ ___

[Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)]

A

reverse, volume replacement

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23
Q

Uses:
___ syndrome
[Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)]

A

Raynaud’s

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24
Q

Onset: up to ___ minutes (IV)
Elimination ½ life: ___hours (duration can last up to 4 days)

[Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)]

A

60
24

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25
Q

MoA – ___, ___binding with alpha receptors

[Prazosin (Minipress)]

A

competitive, reversible

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26
Q

Selective – ___ ___

[Prazosin (Minipress)]

A

α1 antagonist

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27
Q

Effects:
Vasodilation of both ___ and ___

[Prazosin (Minipress)]

A

arterioles and veins

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28
Q

Effects:
Less reflex ____(___not blocked)

[Prazosin (Minipress)]

A

tachycardia, alpha2

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29
Q

Uses:
___tension
Severe___
Onset: within 2 hours
Duration: 10-24 hours
[Prazosin (Minipress)]

A

Hyper
CHF

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30
Q

Onset: ___ hours
Duration: ___-___ hours
[Prazosin (Minipress)]

A

within 2
10-24

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31
Q

Another alpha blocker that you may see patients taking is ___(Cardura), which is used to treat both ___ and ___

[Prazosin (Minipress)]

A

Doxazosin
HTN and benign prostatic hypertension.

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32
Q

Selective - ___ ___

[Doxazosin (Cardura)]

A

α1 antagonist

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33
Q

Once daily dose
Peak ___ to __ hours
Elimination ½ life ___hours

[Doxazosin (Cardura)]

A

2 to 3 hours
22

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34
Q

Indications:
Benign prostatic hypertrophy
___tension treatment

[Doxazosin (Cardura)]

A

Hyper

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35
Q

Mechanism of Action
Competitive binding to ___receptors to block the effect of ___and agonists on the heart and smooth muscles of airways and blood vessels

[Beta-adrenergic Antagonists]

A

beta, catecholamines

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36
Q

MOA:
Prolonged or chronic use of ___ ___causes up-regulation of ___receptors.
[Beta-adrenergic Antagonists]

A

beta blockers, beta

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37
Q

Nonselective – block both ___ and ___
___, ___

[Classifications]

A

β1 and β2
Propranolol, timolol

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38
Q

Cardioselective – block ___
___, ___, ___

[Classifications]

A

β1
Metoprolol, atenolol, esmolol

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39
Q

Partial antagonist – intrinsic ___effect
___myocardial depression and HR reduction

[Classifications]

A

sympathomimetic
Less

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40
Q

Pure antagonist – ___ ___ effect
[Classifications]

A

no sympathomimetic

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41
Q

Selectivity is ___-___.
If a big enough dose of a cardioselective beta-blocker is given, the effect can impact ___receptors also.

[Classifications]

A

dose-related, beta-2

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42
Q

Β1 blockade - Removes ___ ___ to the heart

[Effects of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

sympathetic stimulation

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43
Q

Negative inotropic effects
___ ___

[Effects of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

Myocardial depression

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44
Q

Negative chronotropic effects
___, ___

[Effects of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

Slows HR, sinus rate

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45
Q

Negative dromotropic effects
___the conduction of impulse through the ___ ___
Slows rate of ___ ___ ___

[Effects of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

Slows, AV node
phase 4 depolarization

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46
Q

Increase in lusitropy
___ ___

[Effects of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

Ventricular relaxation

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47
Q

Decrease in bathmotropy
Reduced ___
[Effects of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

degree of excitability

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48
Q

Β2 blockade:
Vaso____

[Effects of beta-adrenergic antagonists}

A

constriction

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49
Q

B2 Blockade
Unopposed alpha vasoconstriction can cause ___ ___ ___
(increased serum K*)

A

decreased LV ejection

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50
Q

B2 Blockade
Broncho___

[Effects of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

constriction

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51
Q

B2 Blockade
___ glycogenolysis, blocks ___ related to hypoglycemia, alters fat metabolism (lipolysis).
Inhibits uptake of K into skeletal muscle cells
[Effects of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

Prevents, tachycardia

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52
Q

B2 Blockade
Inhibits uptake of ___into ___ ___ cells
[Effects of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

K
skeletal muscle

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53
Q

? Additive myocardial depressant effects with ___
___ to continue
___ > isoflurane

[Effects of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

anesthetics
Safe
halothane

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54
Q

CNS – cross ___ ___ ___ - fatigue, lethargy, vivid dreams, memory loss, depression

[Effects of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

blood/brain barrier

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55
Q

Cross placenta – fetal ___cardia, ___tension, ___glycemia

[Effects of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

Brady, hypo, hypo

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56
Q

GI – ___, ___, ___

[Effects of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

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57
Q

Chronic use – fever, rash, ____, alopecia, ____

[Effects of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

myopathy, thrombocytopenia

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58
Q

___ ___block – slowed conduction may be enhanced

[Contraindications to beta-blockade]

A

AV heart

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59
Q

___ – eliminates tachycardia that is compensating for decrease in volume

[Contraindications to beta-blockade]

A

Hypovolemia

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60
Q

____ – increased airway resistance (___ or ___)

[Contraindications to beta-blockade]

A

COPD, nonselective or high doses

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61
Q

Diabetic – mask signs of ___ (nonselective or high doses)

[Contraindications to beta-blockade]

A

hypoglycemia

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62
Q

Peripheral vascular disease, Raynaud’s syndrome or ____-___ agonist – vasoconstriction unopposed (nonselective), ____ extremities
[Contraindications to beta-blockade]

A

alpha-adrenergic, V

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63
Q

Overdose of beta-adrenergic antagonist:
___cardia
___cardiac output
___tension
___shock
Bronch____
____intraventricular conduction of impulses
___glycemia - rarely

A

Brady
Low
Hypo
Cardiogenic
-ospasm
Prolonged
Hypo

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64
Q

TREATMENT:
___ ___ mcg/kg IV (0.5 mg IV) first

[Overdose of beta-adrenergic antagonist]

A

Atropine 7

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65
Q

TREATMENT:
Isoproterenol ___-___ mcg/min (with ___beta-blocker)

[Overdose of beta-adrenergic antagonist]

A

2-25, nonselective

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66
Q

Treatment:
Dobutamine (pure ___agonist) when beta-blockade is from a beta-blocker with ___ ___effects
pharmacologic treatment)

[Overdose of beta-adrenergic antagonist]

A

β1, no sympathomimetic

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67
Q

Treatment:
Glucagon (___-___mg)(drug of choice due to ____ action) and CaCl (250 mg to 1 gm) increase cardiac function independent of the blocked receptors.

[Overdose of beta-adrenergic antagonist]

A

1-10, independent, CaCl, increase

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68
Q

Treatment:
If heart rate does not ___ with drugs, a ___may be necessary.

[Overdose of beta-adrenergic antagonist]

A

increase, pacemaker

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69
Q

Treatment:
Hemodialysis – only for minimally ___-___, renally excreted ___ ___(refractory to pharmacologic treatment)

[Overdose of beta-adrenergic antagonist]

A

protein-bound, beta blockers

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70
Q

Isuprel overcomes competitive binding – requires much higher dose (___-___X) than when beta blockade is absent.

[Overdose of beta-adrenergic antagonist]

A

5-20

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71
Q

___and ____– avoid, as alpha1 vasoconstriction occurs at the high doses required to overcome the beta blockade

[Overdose of beta-adrenergic antagonist]

A

Epinephrine and dopamine

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72
Q

Glucagon – MOA is not via ___ receptors – stimulates ___ ___ and increases ___ ___ – especially effective in life-threatening bradycardia

[Overdose of beta-adrenergic antagonist]

A

beta, adenylate cyclase,
intracellular cAMP

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73
Q

Myocardial thresholds may be raised to prevent ___capture

[Overdose of beta-adrenergic antagonist]

A

electromyocardial

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74
Q

Increased ___stimulation due to ____-____ of beta receptors
[Acute withdrawal of beta-blockade]

A

sympathetic, up-regulation

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75
Q

Within ___-___hours

[Acute withdrawal of beta-blockade]

A

24-48

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76
Q

Profound ___tension, ___cardia, contractility

[Acute withdrawal of beta-blockade]

A

hyper, tachy

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77
Q

Avoid: ___ preoperative beta-blockade therapy

Infusion of propranolol ___mg/hr IV
[Acute withdrawal of beta-blockade]

A

continue
3

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78
Q

Treatment of hypertension:
Decrease ___, decrease ___

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

HR, CO

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79
Q

Treatment of hypertension:
Decrease___ in larger doses

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

contractility

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80
Q

Treatment of hypertension:
With____, prevention of ___ ___

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

vasodilator, reflex tachycardia

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81
Q

Treatment of hypertension:
Decrease___, decrease ___, prevention of Na, water retention

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

renin, aldosterone

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82
Q

Management of angina pectoris
Decreased myocardial oxygen consumption – ___, ___

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

decreased HR, contractility

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83
Q

Post-myocardial infarction
Historically - Decreases ___ and ___
Increases chances of survival ___-___%
Begin within ___ to ___ days after MI and continue for 1-3 years
Within ___hours of onset of ___ may actually decrease infarct size and ___

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

mortality and reinfarctions
20-40
5 to 28
12, infarct, dysrhythmias

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84
Q

Post-myocardial infarction:
Not with ___ ___ ___ with ST elevation or___shock

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

acute coronary syndrome
cardiogenic

85
Q

Post-myocardial infarction:
Both ___ and ___ drugs have a cardioprotective effect; nonselective effect on ___ (prevents reduction) may decrease ___
[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

selective and nonselective
K
dysrhythmias

86
Q

Cardiac dysrhythmias:
Decrease activity of___ and ___ through the AV node
[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

SA node and conduction

87
Q

Cardiac dysrhythmias:
Slows ___ of ectopic pacemakers

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

depolarization

88
Q

Cardiac dysrhythmias:
Suppresses both ___ and ___ ectopy

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

supraventricular and ventricular

89
Q

Cardiac dysrhythmias:
Rapid suppression of excessive___stimulation (thyrotoxicosis, pheochromocytoma, perioperative stress)

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

sympathetic

90
Q

Cardiac dysrhythmias
Decrease activity of ___ and ___ through the AV node

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

SA node and conduction

91
Q

Cardiac dysrhythmias
Slows depolarization of ___pacemakers

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

ectopic

92
Q

Cardiac dysrhythmias
Suppresses both ___ and ___ ectopy

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

supraventricular and ventricular

93
Q

Cardiac dysrhythmias
Rapid suppression of excessive ___stimulation (thyrotoxicosis, pheochromocytoma, perioperative stress)

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

sympathetic

94
Q

Prevention of excessive sympathetic nervous system activity:
Minimizes response to ___

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

laryngoscopy

95
Q

Prevention of excessive sympathetic nervous system activity:
___cardiomyopathies

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

Hypertrophic obstructive

96
Q

Prevention of excessive sympathetic nervous system activity:
Pheochromocytoma, ___

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

hyperthyroidism

97
Q

Prevention of excessive sympathetic nervous system activity:
Tetralogy of Fallot – ___ cyanosis

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

minimize

98
Q

Prevention of excessive sympathetic nervous system activity:
Prevent reflex ___with ___ use in deliberate hypotension

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

tachycardia, vasodilation

99
Q

Prevention of excessive sympathetic nervous system activity:
Public speaking - ___
[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

anxiety

100
Q

Prevention of excessive sympathetic nervous system activity:
Preop prep for hyperthyroid pt – ___ or ___IV or ___-___ mg po daily
[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

esmolol or propranolol
40-320

101
Q

Management of congestive heart failure (___, ___, __)

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

metoprolol, carvedilol, bisoprolol

102
Q

Management of congestive heart failure (metoprolol, carvedilol, bisoprolol)
___ EF
Increase survival rate in ___ ___
[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

Improve
chronic HF

103
Q

Management of congestive heart failure (metoprolol, carvedilol, bisoprolol):
Doses initially ___ and gradually ___
[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists]

A

small, increase

104
Q

Rhinoplasty patients
___ postop pain
Esmolol ___-___ mcg/kg/min with propofol and remifentanil

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

Decreased, 5-10

105
Q

Rhinoplasty patients
Decreased postop pain:
Group E had decreased ___ ___ for first 3 hours, decreased ___ use, less variations in BP, HR

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

postop pain, morphine

106
Q

Lap cholecystectomy
Decrease ___ and ___ analgesic needs

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

intraop and postop

107
Q

Lap cholecystectomy
Esmolol ___ mg/kg IV, followed by infusion of ___mcg/kg/min through surgery

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

0.5, 0.05

108
Q

Lap cholecystectomy
Control group required additional doses of ___

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

fentanyl

109
Q

Lap cholecystectomy
“Modulation of the ___ component of pain”

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

sympathetic

110
Q

Lap cholecystectomy patients
___ infusion added to either ___/___ or desflurane/remifentanil anesthetics with two groups without esmolol

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

Esmolol, propofol/remifentanil

111
Q

Lap cholecystectomy patients:
Pain score and PONV incidence was ___ in p/r/e group.

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

lowest

112
Q

Lap cholecystectomy patients:
D/r/e group had ___pain score and PONV incidence compared to d/r group

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

lower

113
Q

Lap cholecystectomy patients:
Both groups receiving esmolol had ___ HR, but ___BP compared to controls.

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

lower, similar

114
Q

Lap cholecystectomy patients:
Both groups receiving esmolol had significantly ___ and ___
[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

lower anesthesia and opioid requirements.

115
Q

Preoperative beta-blocker therapy ___ 30-day mortality in coronary surgery
Br J of Anaes 2003;90:27-31

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

reduces

116
Q

Perioperative beta-blockade ___perioperative ischemia, mortality, and cardiovascular complications for up to ___ ___post-op.
N Engl J Med 1996;335:1713-20

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

reduced, 2 years

117
Q

Preoperative beta-blockade improved ___ and ___in CABG patients
JAMA 2002;287:2221-7

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

mortality and morbidity

118
Q

beta-blockade in elderly patients having ___-___ surgery reduced analgesic requirements, allowed ___recovery from anesthesia, and ___hemodynamic stability
Anesthesiology 1999;91:1674-86

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

non-cardiac, faster, improved

119
Q

Preoperative ___-___to uncontrolled hypertensive patients reduced myocardial ischemia from ___ to ___%
Anesthesiology 1988;68:495-500
[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

beta-blockade
28% to 2%

120
Q

Preoperative, perioperative, and postoperative beta-blockade reduced post-op ___ ___ in at-risk patients after ___ surgery
Anesthesiology 1998;88:7-17
N Engl J Med 1996;335:1713-20

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

myocardial ischemia
noncardiac

121
Q

Esmolol ___ anesthetic requirements
Anesthesiology 1997;86:364-71

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

reduces

122
Q

Propranolol___opioid analgesia
Can Anaesth Soc J 1983;29:319-24
[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

potentiates

123
Q

___-___ reduces perception of noxious stimuli and has an anxiolytic effect
J Pharm Pharmacol 1966;18:317-8
Lancet 1966;1:788-90

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

beta-blockade

124
Q

Effects of beta-blockade that causes cardioprotection during surgery:

Improvement of the ___ ___ supply-demand balance

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

myocardial oxygen

125
Q

Effects of beta-blockade that causes cardioprotection during surgery:

Decrease oxygen requirements by ___ and ___

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

slowing HR and decreasing contractility

126
Q

Effects of beta-blockade that causes cardioprotection during surgery:

Blocks ___from the receptors to avoid increased sympathetic stimulation.

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

catecholamines

127
Q

Effects of beta-blockade that causes cardioprotection during surgery:
Prolongs ___ and increases time for oxygen delivery

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

diastole

128
Q

Effects of beta-blockade that causes cardioprotection during surgery:
Suppression of dysrhythmias – improves long-term ___

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

mortality

129
Q

Effects of beta-blockade that causes cardioprotection during surgery:
Increase blood flow to ___myocardium

[Uses of beta-adrenergic antagonists – related to anesthesia and surgery]

A

ischemic

130
Q

POISE = Peri-Operative Ischemic Evaluation
randomized, controlled clinical trial
8,351 patients from 190 hospitals
23 countries
patients accepted from 2002-2007
___-___surgical procedures
greater than ___ years of age
hospitalized at least ___hours post-op

[POISE trial, 2008]

A

non-cardiac
45
24

131
Q

30 day results of PBB - positive:
-Significant reduction in___ (4.2% in metoprolol group vs. 5.7% in placebo group)
-Reduced need for ___ revascularization
-Reduction in number of patients developing ___ ___

[POISE trial]

A

MI’s
coronary
atrial fibrillation

132
Q

30 day results of PBB - negative:
-Increase in total ___(3.1% from metoprolol group vs. 2.3% placebo group)
-Increase in ___incidence
-Increase in clinically significant ___ and ___

[POISE trial]

A

mortality
stroke
hypotension and bradycardia

133
Q

Strokes seen in the POISE trial: excessive hypotension likely explains these strokes as the etiology of 47 of the 60 observed strokes was ___.

For every 1000 patients undergoing non-cardiac surgery, the administration of ____perioperatively may prevent:

15 patients from suffering an MI
3 from undergoing coronary revascularization
7 from developing new significant A fib.
But may contribute to:
More than 8 patient deaths and 5 strokes

[POISE trial]

A

ischemic
metoprolol

134
Q

PBB in patients having non-cardiac surgery: a meta-analysis Trial

A
135
Q

[2009 ACCF/AHA Focused Update on Perioperative Beta-blockade]
Recommends PBB for:
Patients who are receiving ___-___ for the treatment of conditions with ACC/AHA Class I indication for the drug (I C)

A

beta-blockers

136
Q

Beta-blockers are probably recommended in patients:
Undergoing ___surgery who suffer from CAD or show ischemia on ____ testing (IIa B)
In the presence of CAD or high cardiac risk (more than one risk factor) who are undergoing intermediate-risk surgery (IIa B)

Where preoperative assessment for vascular surgery identifies ___ ___ ___ (more than one risk factor; IIa C)

[2009 ACCF/AHA Focused Update on Perioperative Beta-blockade]

A

vascular, preoperative

high cardiac risk

137
Q

The usefulness of beta-blockers is uncertain in patients:
Undergoing vascular surgery with no risk factors who are not currently taking ___ ___

[2009 ACCF/AHA Focused Update on Perioperative Beta-blockade]

A

beta-blockers (IIb B

138
Q

Undergoing either ___-___procedures or vascular surgery with a single clinical risk factor in the absence of ___ (IIb C)

[2009 ACCF/AHA Focused Update on Perioperative Beta-blockade]

A

immediate-risk, CAD

139
Q

Beta blockers are not to be given:
____-___ ___-___without titration are not useful and may be harmful to patients not currently taking beta-blockers who are undergoing surgery (III B).
Patients undergoing surgery who have an absolute contraindication to ____-____ (III C)
[2009 ACCF/AHA Focused Update on Perioperative Beta-blockade]

A

High-dose beta-blockers

beta-blockade

140
Q

Should be continued in patients on ___treatment

[Perioperative Beta-blockade]

A

chronic

141
Q

Cardiac surgery – benefit reduces risk of ___, ___

[Perioperative Beta-blockade]

A

SVT, vent arrhythmias

142
Q

Should they be indicated perioperatively, should be started between ___ and ___ week before surgery or days to weeks before surgery (this is based on limited evidence).

[Perioperative Beta-blockade]

A

30 days and 1

143
Q

Titration of the beta-blocker to ___ and ___ is necessary in order to minimize or reduce the risk of hypotension.
-Heart rate are ___-___ beats per minute
-Systolic arterial pressure ___

[Perioperative Beta-blockade]

A

heart rate and arterial blood pressure
60-80
>100 mm Hg

144
Q

Non-cardiac – no benefit – reduction in arrhythmias, acute MI is offset by increase in ___, ___
[Perioperative Beta-blockade]

A

mortality, stroke

145
Q

Nonselective, pure antagonist, ___=___
Effects:
Decreases HR and contractility (and CO)
Increases peripheral vascular resistance (beta2), including coronary vascular resistance

[Propranolol (Inderal)]

A

beta1=beta2

146
Q

Effects:
Decreases ___ and ____(and ___)

[Propranolol (Inderal)]

A

HR, contractility, CO

147
Q

Effects:
Increases ____ ____ ____ (beta2), including ___ ___ ___
[Propranolol (Inderal)]

A

peripheral vascular resistance,
coronary vascular resistance

148
Q

First ___-___introduced clinically.

[Propranolol (Inderal)]

A

beta-blocker

149
Q

____ that other drugs are compared to.

[Propranolol (Inderal)]

A

Standard

150
Q

Decreased ___ ___ is bigger than decreased ____ ___ flow due to increased vascular resistance.

[Propranolol (Inderal)]

A

oxygen requirement
coronary blood

151
Q

Dose: ___mg/kg IV in increments of ___-___ mg q 5 minutes

[Propranolol (Inderal)]

A

0.05, 0.5-1.0

152
Q

Metabolism: ____
____ is decreased with decreases in hepatic blood flow; it can decrease its own metabolism.

[Propranolol (Inderal)]

A

hepatic
Clearance

153
Q

Elimination ½ life: ___-___hours
[Propranolol (Inderal)]

A

2-3

154
Q

Special effects
The metabolism of___local anesthetics is decreased by propranolol due to decreased___ and more.

[Propranolol (Inderal)]

A

amide, CO

155
Q

More ____ enters the circulation of a patient on propranolol due to ____pulmonary uptake
[Propranolol (Inderal)]

A

fentanyl
decreased

156
Q

____selective

[Nadolol (Corgard)]

A

Non

157
Q

Long duration of action – given ___daily

[Nadolol (Corgard)]

A

once

158
Q

Metabolism – ___excreted unchanged by the ____, in the bile

[Nadolol (Corgard)]

A

75%, kidneys

159
Q

Elimination 1/2 life: ___-___hours
[Nadolol (Corgard)]

A

20-40

160
Q

___selective

[Timolol]

A

Non

161
Q

Topical eye gtts for ____

[Timolol]

A

glaucoma

162
Q

___ and ___ caused by gtts during anesthesia

[Timolol]

A

Bradycardia and hypotension

163
Q

Can cause apnea in neonates with immature ___ ___ ___
[Timolol]

A

blood brain barrier

164
Q

Selective for ___-receptors

[Metoprolol (Lopressor)]

A

beta1

165
Q

Effects:
Blocks ___ and chronotropic responses

[Metoprolol (Lopressor)]

A

inotropic

166
Q

___ receptors remain unblocked allowing bronchodilation, vasodilation, and metabolic stability (unless ___ doses are used)

[Metoprolol (Lopressor)]

A

beta2, higher

167
Q

Bolus: ___ mg IV (if HR > ___); 2.5 mg IV (if HR 60-80); hold if HR <___ or SBP ___mm Hg

[Metoprolol (Lopressor)]

A

5, 80, 60, <100

168
Q

Metabolism: ___
Elimination ½ life: ___hours
[Metoprolol (Lopressor)]

A

hepatic

169
Q

Elimination ½ life: ___hours
[Metoprolol (Lopressor)]

A

3-4

170
Q

MOST selective ___ ___

[Atenolol (Tenormin)]

A

beta1 antagonist

171
Q

Elimination: ___ ___

[Atenolol (Tenormin)]

A

renal excretion

172
Q

Elimination ½ life: ___hours

[Atenolol (Tenormin)]

A

6-7

173
Q

Does not interfere with ___, can be given with caution to ___patients.
[Atenolol (Tenormin)]

A

metabolism, diabetic

174
Q

Betaxolol
Alternative to___(nonselective)

[Cardioselective beta1 antagonists]

A

timolol

175
Q

Betaxolol
Reduces ___ as well as ___intraocular pressure, whether or not accompanied by glaucoma

[Cardioselective beta1 antagonists]

A

elevated, normal,

176
Q

Betaxolol
Minimal ___ and ___effects with clinical doses
[Cardioselective beta1 antagonists]

A

pulmonary and cardiac

177
Q

Bisoprolol
Prominent effect – ___ ___

[Cardioselective beta1 antagonists]

A

decreased HR

178
Q

Bisprolol
Treatment of essential ___ ___CHF

[Cardioselective beta1 antagonists]

A

HTN,mild to moderate

179
Q

Selective ___ ___

[Esmolol (Brevibloc)]

A

beta1 antagonist

180
Q

Dose: ___mg/kg IV over ___seconds

[Esmolol (Brevibloc)]

A

0.5, 60

181
Q

Onset: within ___minutes

[Esmolol (Brevibloc)]

A

5

182
Q

Duration: ___-___ minutes

[Esmolol (Brevibloc)]

A

10-30

183
Q

Metabolism: rapid hydrolysis by ___ ___(independent of renal and hepatic function)
[Esmolol (Brevibloc)]

A

plasma esterases

184
Q

Elimination ½ life:___minutes
[Esmolol (Brevibloc)]

A

9

185
Q

Uses:
Protection against ___ and ___ related to laryngoscopy – give esmolol ____ 2 minutes prior to laryngoscopy. Better protection than ___ or ___against HR.

[Esmolol (Brevibloc)]

A

tachycardia and hypertension
150 mg
lidocaine or fentanyl

186
Q

Pheochromocytoma, thyrotoxicosis, ___-___ cardiovascular toxicity*

[Esmolol (Brevibloc)]

A

cocaine-induced

187
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot and ___ ___ cardiomyopathy

[Esmolol (Brevibloc)]

A

hypertrophic obstructive

188
Q

Cardiac surgery – ___ ___

[Esmolol (Brevibloc)]

A

off bypass

189
Q

Reduce requirements of ___, ___**

[Esmolol (Brevibloc)]

A

propofol, opioids

190
Q

ECT – ___mcg/kg/min
[Esmolol (Brevibloc)]

A

500

191
Q

*be careful when treating excessive SNS activity produced by ____ or systemic absorption of topical or subcutaneous ____ = fulminant pulm edema and ____ cardiac collapse (can’t increase HR or contractility to handle increased afterload)
[Esmolol (Brevibloc)]

A

cocaine, epinephrine, irreversible

192
Q

Labetalol (Normodyne, Trandate)
Selective ____

[Combined alpha- and beta-adrenergic antagonist’

A

alpha1

193
Q

Labetalol (Normodyne, Trandate)
Nonselective ____ and ___

[Combined alpha- and beta-adrenergic antagonist’

A

beta1 and beta2

194
Q

Labetalol (Normodyne, Trandate)
1/4 to 1/3 as potent as ____ in beta blockade

[Combined alpha- and beta-adrenergic antagonist’

A

propranolol

195
Q

Labetalol (Normodyne, Trandate)
CV effects:
__creases SVR (vasodilation-alpha1antagonist and beta2 agonist effect)
Prevents reflex ____cardia
____ CO
[Combined alpha- and beta-adrenergic antagonist’

A

Decreases
tachycardia
Unchanged

196
Q

Labetalol
Alpha to beta blockade ratio is ___:___ for IV labetalol

___to ___ as potent as phentolamine

[Combined alpha- and beta-adrenergic antagonist’

A

1:7
1/5 to 1/10

197
Q

Dose: ___ to ___ mg/kg IV

[Labetalol]

A

0.1 to 0.5

198
Q

Onset of peak effect: ___-___ minutes

[Labetalol]

A

5-10

199
Q

Metabolism: conjugation of glucuronic acid (hepatic)

[Labetalol]

A

conjugation of glucuronic acid (hepatic)

200
Q

Elimination ½ life: ___-__ hours

[Labetalol]

A

5-8

201
Q

Uses:
Hyp__tensive emergencies, ___creased sympathetic activity, pheochromocytoma
Angina pectoris
Controlled, deliberate ___tension
[Labetalol]

A

Hypertensive, increased, hypotension

202
Q

___-___ mg IV decrease BP, but not excessively – may repeat as needed

[Labetalol]

A

20-80

203
Q

Side effects
___ ___ – most common
___ – nonspecific beta*
Congestive heart failure, bradycardia, heart block (incidence and severity decreased) – beta effects
Fluid retention – chronic use necessitates addition diuretic

[Labetalol]

A

Orthostatic hypotension
Bronchospasm

204
Q

Esmolol compared to labetalol
Selective vs Nonselective and for what?

Duration: Prolonged vs short acting what is the duration?

Metbolized: plasma esterases vs hepatic?

Bronchospam vs selective

Onset: Slower vs rapid and what is the time?

A

Esmolol Labetalol
Selective B1 NS B & A1
Short acting 9 min. Prolonged 6-8 hr
Plasma esterases Hepatic
Selective Bronchospasm*
Rapid onset w/i 5 min Slow onset 5-10 m

205
Q

Combination –
___ blocking activity

[Carvedilol (Coreg)]

A

alpha1

206
Q

Nonselective or selective beta blocking

[Carvedilol (Coreg)]

A

Nonselective

207
Q

No intrinsic ___agonist effect (different from labetalol)

[Carvedilol (Coreg)]

A

beta

208
Q

Metabolites produce weak ___ effect

[Carvedilol (Coreg)]

A

vasodilating