Exam II: Cardiovascular Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Endogenous catecholamines: (3)
___, ___, ___

[Sympathomimetics and agonists]

A

Epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Synthetic catecholamines
___, ___

[Sympathomimetics and agonists]

A

Isoproterenol, dobutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Synthetic noncatecholamines
___, ___, ___

[Sympathomimetics and agonists]

A

Ephedrine, amphetamine, phenylephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Selective alpha2-adrenergic agonists
___, ___

[Sympathomimetics and agonists]

A

Clonidine, dexmedetomidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Selective beta2-adrenergic agonists
___, ___, ___
[Sympathomimetics and agonists]

A

Albuterol, terbutaline, ritodrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cardiac stimulation (increased ___ and __, contractility, susceptibility to ectopy)

[Sympathetic NS Activation – fight or flight]

A

HR and BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Broncho___

[Sympathetic NS Activation – fight or flight]

A

dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Vasoconstriction (decreased flow to ___, ___, ___)

[Sympathetic NS Activation – fight or flight]

A

skin, GI tract, renal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Vasodilation (improved blood flow to ___)

[Sympathetic NS Activation – fight or flight]

A

skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

CNS stimulation – increased ___ (except ___)

[Sympathetic NS Activation – fight or flight]

A

cognition, alpha2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Increased blood ___

[Sympathetic NS Activation – fight or flight]

A

sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Lipolysis – breakdown of___

[Sympathetic NS Activation – fight or flight]

A

lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Glycogenolysis – splitting up of ___ in the liver, yielding ___

[Sympathetic NS Activation – fight or flight]

A

glycogen, glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

___rate of coagulation
[Sympathetic NS Activation – fight or flight]

A

Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Look at Table 13.2 in Nagelhout, p. 167 to see agonist, blocker, cholinergic agonists, and anticholinergic effects.

[Sympathetic NS Activation – fight or flight]

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Look at Table 13.2 in Nagelhout, p. 167 to see agonist, blocker, cholinergic agonists, and anticholinergic effects.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Look at Table 13.2 in Nagelhout, p. 167 to see agonist, blocker, cholinergic agonists, and anticholinergic effects.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Look at Table 13.2 in Nagelhout, p. 167 to see agonist, blocker, cholinergic agonists, and anticholinergic effects.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Used to____ contractility or ___ vascular tone after sympathetic blockade caused by ___anesthesia

[Clinical use: Sympathomimetics]

A

increase, increase, regional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Used to___ or ___blood pressure (to prevent tissue ischemia) during the time required to correct for hypovolemia or ____anesthesia

[Clinical use: Sympathomimetics]

A

increase or maintain, excessive inhaled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Used to relax ___of asthmatic

[Clinical use: Sympathomimetics]

A

bronchoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Used to manage ___phylaxis

[Clinical use: Sympathomimetics]

A

ana—

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Used to prolong ___ anesthesia
[Clinical use: Sympathomimetics]

A

regional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Direct
Bind to receptors and activate them directly (___ and ___)

[Direct versus Indirect]

A

catecholamines and phenylephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Indirect
Cause the release of norepinephrine from ___sympathetic nerve endings (___)

[Direct versus Indirect]

A

postganglionic, amphetamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Indirect
___ the reuptake of norepinephrine to make more in circulation (___, ___)

[Direct versus Indirect]

A

Block, cocaine, tricyclic antidepressants)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Indirect agent might not be effective if patient has a ___, or depletion of ___.

[Direct versus Indirect]

A

denervation injury, neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The greater the concentration of the sympathomimetic, the ___ the number of receptors in tissues or ___response.

[Tachyphylaxis]

A

lower, decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Example:
Increased concentration of norepinephrine results in ___adrenergic receptors on cell membranes.

[Tachyphylaxis]

A

fewer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Example:
Chronic treatment with Albuterol (beta2 agonist) causes the number of receptors to___.
[Tachyphylaxis]

A

decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Desensitization – define– Can happen rapidly – within only ___.

[Tachyphylaxis]

A

rapid reduction in response to hormones and neurotransmitters despite continuous exposure. hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Down-regulation is different from desensitization in that ____ (example: rebound tachycardia)

A

receptors are destroyed and new receptors must be created before a return to baseline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Catecholamines
Inactivation by enzymes: (2)

[Metabolism of sympathomimetics]

A

Monoamine oxidase (MAO)
Catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Termination of effect influenced more by uptake back into ___ ___ nerve endings

[Metabolism of sympathomimetics]

A

postganglion sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Filtration by the ___ of norepinephrine and dopamine

[Metabolism of sympathomimetics]

A

lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Noncatecholamines
Inactivated by ___ only - slower
[Metabolism of sympathomimetics]

A

MAO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Catecholamines are short-lived due metabolism by ___ and ___

[Metabolism of sympathomimetics]

A

MAO and COMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Both ___ and ___ stimulation
Most potent alpha stimulant
alpha1=alpha2; beta1=beta2
Given IV or subq (causes vasoconstriction which slows absorption)
Poorly lipid soluble – lack of cerebral effects

[Epinephrine]

A

alpha and beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Most potent ___stimulant

[Epinephrine]

A

alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

alpha1=___; beta1=beta2

[Epinephrine]

A

alpha2, beta2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Given IV or subq (causes ___ which slows absorption)

[Epinephrine]

A

vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Poorly lipid soluble – lack of ___ effects

[Epinephrine]

A

cerebral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Uses:
Used to ___absorption and ___ duration of local anesthetics

[Epinephrine]

A

decrease, prolong

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Uses:
Treatment of ana___ reactions

[Epinephrine]

A

___phylactic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Uses:

Increase myocardial ___
[Epinepherine]

A

contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

EpiPen 1:1000 – 0.3 to 0.5 ml = ___ to ___ mg

[Epinepherine]

A

0.3 to 0.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

CV effects
Low dose (___-___ mcg/kg/min) Beta – 1: increase ___, ___, ___, ___); Beta-2: ___ in DBP due to ___ in SVR (vasodilation in skeletal muscle vessels)

[Epinephrine]

A

0.01-0.03, HR, BP, CO, Inotropy
decrease, decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

CV effects
Moderate dose (___-___ mcg/kg/min) Beta-1: increase in ___, ___, ___, ___ (increase in venous return); increase in susceptibility to ___; mixed w Alpha

[Epinephrine]

A

0.03-0.15, SBP, HR, CO, inotropy, arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

CV effects:
Large dose (___ mcg/kg/min) both Beta and Alpha-1, but ___predominate: ___ of the skin, mucosa, and hepatorenal vessels (decreased renal blood flow), ___common

[Epinephrine]

A

> 0.15, Alpha, vasoconstriction, SVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Net effect of the vascular changes (at low dose) is the distribution of blood flow to the ___and decreased ___, but with ___ renal blood flow.

[Epinephrine]

A

skeletal muscle, SVR, decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

___receptors are more sensitive to lower epinephrine doses while effects on ___ receptors predominate at higher doses.

[Epinephrine]

A

B2, A1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

At higher doses, the predominant A activity and resultant vasoconstriction leads to increased ___, which may impede ___ in CO.

[Epinephrine]

A

afterload, increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Increase venous return due to high concentration of receptors in ____
[Epinephrine]

A

venous vasculature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Respiratory
Smooth muscle relaxed in the bronchi (___)

[Epinephrine]

A

Beta2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Respiratory
However, if beta antagonist is present, the ___ effect causes bronchoconstriction.

[Epinephrine]

A

alpha1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Metabolic
most significant effect of all catecholamines – ___

[Epinephrine]

A

increase in blood glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Metabolic:
Beta2 – increases ___ and ___

[Epinephrine]

A

glycogenolysis and lipolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Metabolic:
Alpha2 – inhibits ___ (hyperglycemia)

[Epinephrine]

A

release of insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Electrolytes
Beta2 – stress induced ___ (activation of the ___ on RBCs)
Initial increased K – it follows ___out of hepatic cells

[Epinephrine]

A

hypokalemia, sodium-potassium pump
glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Ocular
___ – contraction of the radial muscles of the iris causes ____; contraction of the ___ causing bulging of the eyes (exophthalmos)

[Epinephrine]

A

Alpha1, pupil dilation, orbital muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

GI/GU
Relaxation of ___ ___ muscle
___ – relaxation of the ___ muscle of the bladder; ___ contracts the sphincter muscles
[Epinephrine]

A

GI smooth, Beta, detrusor, alpha1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Coagulation is accelerated with___ – induces ___ and increases factor V activity

A

epi, platelet aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Naturally occurring catecholamine released from ___ ___ nerve endings

[Norepinephrine]

A

postganglionic sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Potent ___ with ___ agonist effect, but little beta___ effect

[Norepinephrine]

A

alpha agonist, beta1, 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

alpha1___alpha2; beta1___beta2

[Norepinephrine]

A

=,&raquo_space;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Clinical use:
Vasoconstrictor to increase ___ and raise ___

[Norepinephrine]

A

SVR, BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Infiltration of NE into ___ tissue can cause ___ due to vasoconstriction*

[Norepinephrine]

A

subcutaneous, necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Infiltration - ___

[Norepinephrine]

A

phentolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

CV effects
___ – vasoconstriction of both ___ and ___ vessels of all vascular beds; increased ___, ___, increased* venous return and decreased HR

[Norepinepherine]

A

Alpha1, arterial and venous, SVR, MAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

CV effects
___ – overshadowed by the above effects causing a decrease in ___, decreased ___, decreased kidney blood flow

[Norepinepherine]

A

Beta1, CO, tissue perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Respiratory – no ___effects

[Norepinephrine]

A

beta2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Metabolic – ___ unlikely

[Norepinephrine]

A

hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

At higher doses, decreased___ due to constriction ___ to the capillary bed which causes___of fluid there. Also results in leakage of that fluid into the ____.

[Norepinephrine]

A

venous return, proximal, trapping, interstitial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Lowering the dose of norepi has been shown to “decrease the ___” – studies raised the legs of the participants to obtain ___ in preload. So ___ vasoconstriction alone did not result in increased preload.

[Norepinepherine]

A

resistance to venous return, increase, alpha1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Effects of norepinephrine on mean ___ pressure and ___ in human septic shock*

[Norepinepherine]

A

systemic, venous return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Dose:___ mcg/kg/min

[Norepinepherine]

A

0.02 -0.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Low dose: ___ selective – ___ HR, inotropy

[Norepinepherine]

A

Beta1, increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

High dose: ___, ___, ___ – ___ SVR, BP, but ___ HR (barorec. Reflex)

[Norepinepherine]

A

Alpha1, Alpha2, Beta1, increase, decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Bolus –___ – ___ mcgs (intermittent boluses – less bradycardia than phenylephrine)
[Norepinepherine]

A

DILUTE, 4-16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Ideal for ___, post ___ with ___ SVR state

[Norepinepherine]

A

sepsis, CPB, decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

___ in conditions like cardiogenic shock due to the NE increased afterload and myocardial oxygen demands

[Norepinepherine]

A

AVOID

82
Q

___ ___ in the nervous system (central and peripheral)

[Dopamine]

A

Endogenous neurotransmitte

83
Q

D1___D2___beta___alpha

[Dopamine]

A

=,&raquo_space;,&raquo_space;

84
Q

Low dose (___mcg/kg/min) – ___ renal vasodilation, may have ___ BP

[Dopamine]

A

1-2, D1, decreased

85
Q

Moderate dose (___ mcg/kg/min) – ___ in the heart (increased ___, ___, ____)

[Dopamine]

A

2-10, beta1, HR, inotropy, CO

86
Q

High dose (___ mcg/kg/min) – ___ in the peripheral vessels overrides ___ and ___
[Dopamine]

A

10-20, alpha1, D and Beta

87
Q

Indirect ___ effect due to causing NE release via ___ stimulation

[Dopamine]

A

sympathomimetic, beta 1

88
Q

Indications
Increase ___ in patients with low BP, elevated ___ filling pressures, and ___ urine output

[Dopamine]

A

CO, atrial, low

89
Q

Indications
____renal blood flow, glomerular filtration rate, excretion of ___ and ___output

[Dopamine]

A

increase, sodium and urine

90
Q

“Renal dose dopamine” – no studies have shown that dopamine decreases the incidence of ___ ___ ___ of those at risk

[Dopamine]

A

acute renal failure

91
Q

___increases, m & m do not improve

[Dopamine]

A

UOP

92
Q

Renal effects antagonized by (3):
[Dopamine]

A

arterial hypoxemia and droperidol and metoclopramide.

93
Q

Inhibits aldosterone – increase in ___ and ___

[Dopamine]

A

Na and UOP

94
Q

CV effects
___ – increases CO; increases ___, ___, and ___

[Dopamine]

A

Beta1, HR, BP and SVR

95
Q

CV Effects
Release of norepinephrine – ___ and ___ to dysrhythmias (less than epinephrine)

[Dopamine]

A

inotropic and susceptible

96
Q

CV effects
Can raise myocardial ____> O2 supply

[Dopamine]

A

O2 demand

97
Q

___ dilates renal and mesenteric vascular beds

[Dopamine]

A

D1

98
Q

Respiratory effects
Inhibits the ___ response to arterial hypoxemia

[Dopamine]

A

ventilatory

99
Q

Selective beta1; beta1___beta2____alpha

[Dobutamine]

A

> , (»»)

100
Q

Indication:
Increase CO in patients with___

[Dobutamine]

A

congestive heart failure

101
Q

Dose – ___ mcg/kg/min
Increase ___, ___, ___

[Dobutamine]

A

0.5-15, HR, inotropy, CO

102
Q

Combine with dopamine to improve ___ or with a vasodilator to ___and further improve CO

[Dobutamine]

A

renal blood flow, decrease SVR

103
Q

CV effects
___ – increase in CO with little increase in ___ or ___ (minimal increase in oxygen demand), decreases ___ and ___

[Dobutamine]

A

Beta1, HR or BP, SVR and PVR

104
Q

Unlike dopamine, dobutamine is a ___ vasodilator and cannot cause renal ____.

[Dobutamine]

A

coronary artery, vasodilation

105
Q

High doses cause ___ and ___ (otherwise unlikely due to no release of ___)

[Dobutamine]

A

increased HR and dysrhythmias, norepi

106
Q

Most potent ___agonist

[Isoproterenol]

A

beta

107
Q

beta1___beta2___alpha

[]Isoproterenol]

A

=,&raquo_space;»

108
Q

Indications
Increase heart rate with___ ___

[Isoproterenol]

A

heart block

109
Q

Indications
Decrease pulmonary ___ ___
Bronchodilation

[Isoproterenol]

A

vascular resistance

110
Q

Indications
Broncho___
[Isoproterenol]

A

dilation

111
Q

CV effects
___ – increased HR, inotropic effect, and susceptibility to dysrhythmias

[Isoproterenol]

A

Beta1

112
Q

___– decreased SVR due to vasodilation in skeletal muscle

[Isoproterenol]

A

Beta2

113
Q

Summary – decreased ___ decreased ___, increased oxygen demand; not good for patients with____.
[Isoproterenol]

A

MAP, coronary blood flow, oxygen demand, coronary artery disease

114
Q

___ transplant patients

[Isoproterenol]

A

Heart

115
Q

Name 2 synthetic noncatecholamines

A

Ephedrine and phenylephrine

116
Q

Indirect-acting*; stimulates ___ and ___
Effects due to release of norepinephrine and the direct effect of ephedrine on beta adrenergic receptors
May be given orally, IM or IV
Dose – 2.5-10 mg (must increase subsequent doses to obtain same response, tachyphylaxis)
Prolonged duration as a noncatecholamine

[Ephedrine]

A

alpha and beta

117
Q

Effects due to release of ___ and the direct effect of ephedrine on____ receptors

[Ephedrine]

A

norepinephrine, beta adrenergic

118
Q

May be given: (3)

[Ephedrine]

A

orally, IM or IV

119
Q

Dose –___ mg (must ____ subsequent doses to obtain same response, ____)

[Ephedrine]

A

2.5-10, increase, tachyphylaxis

120
Q

Prolonged duration as a ___
[Ephedrine]

A

noncatecholamine

121
Q

Tachyphylaxis – persistent presence of ___ on receptors or depletion of ___stores.

[Ephedrine]

A

ephedrine, NE

122
Q

Uses endogenous catechol stores from ___ ___nerve

[Ephedrine]

A

presynaptic symp

123
Q

Doesn’t work when ___ ___ stores are depleted or absent (sepsis or transplant)

[Ephedrine]

A

neuronal catechol

124
Q

Indications
Temporarily ___ BP due to sympathetic blockade from ___ or hypotension due to___ or ___

[Ephedrine]

A

increase, regional, inhaled or intravenous anesthesia

125
Q

Bronchodilation (___ onset) or nasal decongestant

[Ephedrine]

A

slow

126
Q

Indications:
Antiemetic (___ mg/kg IM)
[Ephedrine]

A

0.5

127
Q

CV effects
Similar to ___, but not as intense (___X): beta1 - increased systolic and diastolic ___, ___, ___; increased ___ is the principle effect.

[Ephedrine]

A

epinephrine, 250, BP, HR, and CO, contractility

128
Q

CV effects:
___ – vasoconstriction – ___ and ___ flow decreased

[Ephedrine]

A

alpha1, renal and splanchnic

129
Q

CV effects:
___ – vasodilation – ___ and ___ muscle vessels flow increased

[Ephedrine]

A

beta2, coronary artery and skeletal

130
Q

CV effects:
SVR may not change much as ___ of some vessels offset the ___ of others

[Ephedrine]

A

vasodilation, vasoconstriction

131
Q

When beta-blockade is present, response to ephedrine might resemble ___

[Ephedrine]

A

alpha agonist.

132
Q

Respiratory effects
___ – bronchodilation

[Ephedrine]

A

Beta2

133
Q

CNS – stimulation; increases ___; less than ___
Ocular – mydriasis
Metabolic – no hyperglycemia
Uterine blood flow – NOT* the “drug of choice” - higher incidence of fetal acidosis
[Ephedrine]

A

MAC, amphetamine

134
Q

Ocular – ___

[Ephedrine]

A

mydriasis

135
Q

Metabolic – ___

[Ephedrine]

A

no hyperglycemia

136
Q

Uterine blood flow – NOT* the “drug of choice” - higher incidence of ___
[Ephedrine]

A

fetal acidosis

137
Q

Crosses blood ___ ___

[Ephedrine]

A

brain barrier

138
Q

Mostly ___ by direct effect

[Phenylephrine]

A

alpha1

139
Q

alpha1>___»»>___

[Phenylephrine]

A

alpha2, beta

140
Q

Acts more like ___

[Phenylephrine]

A

norepinephrine

141
Q

Indications
Increase BP due to ____ or ___.

[Phenylephrine]

A

sympathetic blockade or peripheral vasodilation

142
Q

Indications
Increase BP in patients with ___ or ___ to avoid increased HR

[Phenylephrine]

A

CAD or aortic stenosis

143
Q

Indications
Maintain BP during ___ ___

[Phenylephrine]

A

carotid endarterectomy

144
Q

Indications
Slow HR from ___

[Phenylephrine]

A

SVT

145
Q

Indication
___decongestant, mydriasis

[Phenylephrine]

A

Nasal

146
Q

Indication
Prolong duration of ___ anesthesia

[Phenylephrine]

A

spinal

147
Q

CV effects
___ – peripheral vasoconstriction, increase in BP; increased susceptibility to ___

[Phenylephrine]

A

Alpha1, dysrhythmias

148
Q

CV effects
Decrease in CO due to ___ or ___

[Phenylephrine]

A

increased afterload or reflex bradycardia

149
Q

CV effects
____ blood flow to the kidneys, skin, and splanchic system

[Phenylephrine]

A

Decreased

150
Q

CV effects
___ flow to the coronary arteries

[Phenylephrine]

A

Increased

151
Q

CV effects
___cerebral oxygen saturation*
[Phenylephrine]

A

Decreased

152
Q

Selective alpha2-adrenergic agonist: (2)

A

Clonidine, dexmedetomidine

153
Q

Centrally acting partial___ agonist

[Clonidine]

A

alpha2-adrenergic

154
Q

Antihypertensive, alpha2>___»»>___

[Clonidine]

A

alpha1, beta

155
Q

Decreases sympathetic output from the ___

[Clonidine]

A

CNS

156
Q

MOA
Stimulates alpha2 inhibitory neurons in the ___ ___center

[Clonidine]

A

medullary vasomotor

157
Q

MOA
Decreased ___outflow

[Clonidine]

A

sympathetic

158
Q

MOA
___ ___ hyperpolarized in the CNS

[Clonidine]

A

Cell membranes

159
Q

MOA
Neuraxial – inhibits spinal ___ release and blunts perception of ___
[Clonidine]

A

substance P, noxious stimuli

160
Q

CV effects
Decreases in ___, ___, and ___

[Clonidine]

A

BP, HR, and CO

161
Q

CV effects
___ are maintained; avoid orthostatic hypotension

[Clonidine]

A

Reflexes

162
Q

CV effects
Renal blood flow is____
[Clonidine]

A

maintained.

163
Q

Indications
Analgesia – neuraxial – without ____, pruritus, nausea and vomiting, or delayed gastric emptying

[Clonidine]

A

depression of ventilation

164
Q

Premedication –
___ from laryngoscopy
___ lability of BP and HR
____catecholamine concentrations
___ MAC and requirements of injected drugs
____ effect of ephedrine

[Clonidine]

A

Blunts response
Decreases
Decreases
Decreases
Accentuates

165
Q

Premedication cont.
____ incidence of myocardial ischemic episodes in patients with CAD
___the effect of regional anesthesia (may need to give more fluid)
Diagnose pheochromocytoma –____ release of catecholamines from nerve endings, not pheo
Treatment of opioid withdrawal – ___of CNS
Treatment of shivering –____ central thermoregulatory control, vasoconstriction – more susceptible to hypothermia

[Clonidine]

A

Decreases, Prolongs, reduces, inhibition, inhibit

166
Q

Considered sympatholytic due to ____ release of norepinephrine
[Clonidine]

A

decreased

167
Q

Agonist effect on ___ ___ – 50% reduction in anesthetic requirements MAC

[Clonidine]

A

postsynaptic alpha2

168
Q

Decreased catecholamine levels – may require___ to treat bradycardia

[Clonidine]

A

anticholinergic

169
Q

___ ___ if abruptly stopped
[Clonidine]

A

Rebound hypertension

170
Q

___ ___ agonist

[Dexmedetomidine]

A

Alpha2-adrenergic

171
Q

___X more selective for ____receptors than clonidine

[Dexmedetomidine]

A

7, alpha2

172
Q

____duration of action than clonidine (2 hr ½ life)

[Dexmedetomidine]

A

Shorter

173
Q

[Dexmedetomidine]

A
174
Q

Sedation and analgesia with little ____

[Dexmedetomidine]

A

depression of ventilation

175
Q

Increased likelihood of ____ and ___
[Dexmedetomidine]

A

hypotension and hypothermia

176
Q

If used for longer than 24 hours, ____symptoms may be seen – rebound hypertension.

[Dexmedetomidine]

A

withdrawal

177
Q

Rapid injection can cause ____. – Recommended loading dose is ___mcg/kg over ___ min. Maintenance rate of___ mcg/kg/hr.

[Dexmedetomidine]

A

hypertension, 1, 10
0.2-0.7

178
Q

Selective beta2-adrenergic agonists

A

Albuterol

179
Q

Selective ____

[Albuterol]

A

beta2

180
Q

beta2»___»»___

[Albuterol]

A

beta1, alpha

181
Q

Indications
Prevention and treatment of bronchoconstriction in___ or ___

[Albuterol]

A

asthma or COPD

182
Q

Stop premature___ contractions

[Albuterol]

A

uterine

183
Q

Inhaled route minimizes side effects; inhaler delivers ___% of dose to lungs; an ETT decreases that amount by___%
[Albuterol]

A

12, 50-70

184
Q

Side effects
Tremors – ___ receptors on skeletal muscles

[Albuterol]

A

beta2

185
Q

Increased ___, vaso___

[Albuterol]

A

HR, dilation

186
Q

Relaxation of ____ vasoconstriction

[Albuterol]

A

compensatory

187
Q

____, ___, __ with acute administration
Additive with volatile agent

[Albuterol]

A

Hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesium

188
Q

Additive with ___agent

[Albuterol]

A

volatile

189
Q

Alpha agonists
___ alpha1>alpha2»»>beta
___ alpha2>alpha1»»> beta

A

phenylephrine
Clonidine

190
Q

Mixed alpha and beta agonists
___ alpha1=alpha2; beta 1= beta 2
___ alpha1=alpha2; beta 1» beta 2

A

Epinephrine
Norepinephrine

191
Q

Beta agonists
___ beta 1= beta 2»»alpha
____ beta 1> beta 2»»alpha
___, ___ beta 2» beta 1»»alpha

A

Isoproterenol
Dobutamine
Albuterol, terbutaline

192
Q

Dopamine agonists
___ D1=D2» beta&raquo_space;alpha

A

Dopamine

193
Q

Regulates ___ ___ by affecting the kidney’s handling of water

[Vasopressin (arginine vasopressin) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ]

A

extracellular fluid

194
Q

Principles sites of action
___ – water reabsorption V2
___ – arterial vasoconstriction V1

[Vasopressin (arginine vasopressin) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ]

A

Kidney
Vessels

195
Q

20 units – diluted to ___U/cc
1 unit – approx. 20 mm systolic increase

[Vasopressin (arginine vasopressin) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ]

A

1
20 mm

196
Q

Refractory hypotension after
___, ___, ___
[Vasopressin (arginine vasopressin) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ]

A

ephedrine, phenylephrine, etc.

197
Q

Its antidiuretic effects can lead to____ and ___.

[Vasopressin (arginine vasopressin) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ]

A

water intoxication and hyponatremia.

198
Q

Because of AVP’s powerful ___ response, it should be administered cautiously to patients with coronary artery disease because it ___coronary arteries (thereby reducing oxygen delivery) and increases myocardial oxygen demand by increasing ___ on the heart.

[Vasopressin (arginine vasopressin) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ]

A

constrictor, constricts, afterload

199
Q

Produced in ___; released by ____pituitary gland

[Vasopressin (arginine vasopressin) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ]

A

hypothalamus, posterior

200
Q

Dose:
IV bolus ___ unit
IV infusion ___ units/min

[Vasopressin (arginine vasopressin) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ]

A

0.5-1
0.01-0.04

201
Q

First line drug for ___ or ___ vasoplegia refractory to catecholamines (___is next best drug – scavenges nitric oxide and inhibits MAO to increase NE)
[Vasopressin (arginine vasopressin) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ]

A

ACEI or ARB, methylene blue

202
Q

56 year old male, treated with an angiotensin II receptor antagonist for HTN, presented for placement of a cochlear implant during general anesthesia
Intraop, he had profound hypotension that was resistant to decreasing anesthetic depth, fluid bolus, as well as ephedrine, phenylephrine, and epinephrine.
Treated successfully with vasopressin infusion (___U/min)

[Vasopressin (arginine vasopressin) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ]

A

0.06