Exam II Anesthesia For Thoracic Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

Leading cause of cancer deaths in the US

A

Bronchogenic cancer

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2
Q

Better prognosis with _____ than with ____ or _____

A

Resection
Chemo
Radiation

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3
Q

COPD patients ___ ____ ____ to get lung cancer

A

4x more likely

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4
Q

Bronchogenic cancer has ____ ____ d/t aging population and co-morbidities

A

Increasing morbidity

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5
Q

___ needing resections are disqualified d/t ____ ____ ____

A

40%
Poor pulmonary function

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6
Q

____-_____ ____ ____ has led to a decrease in postop complications such as dysrhythmias, MI, PE, PNA, and emphysema

A

Video-assisted thoracic surgery (VATS)

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7
Q

Bronchogenic cancer risk factors: (3)

A
  • smoking
  • air pollution
  • industrial chemicals
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8
Q

Smokers need evaluation for ____ or ___ ___ ___

A

HTN
Ischemic heart disease

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9
Q

____ history needs stress testing

A

COPD

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10
Q

Continue ____ ____ throughout perioperative course

A

Beta blockers

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11
Q

Consider ___ ___ ____ if coronary bypass needed

A

6-week delay

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12
Q

Radiographic airway evaluation for ______ _____

A

Mediastinal masses

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13
Q

Endocrine evaluation - rule out _____ _____ caused by some lung tumors

A

Paraneoplastic syndromes

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14
Q

Neuroendocrine tumors can cause ____ _____

A

Carcinoid syndrome

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15
Q

_____ occurs in up to 25% of lung cancer pts

A

Hypercalcemia

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16
Q

Hypercalcemia symptoms: (6)

A
  • polyuria
  • polydipsia
  • confusion
  • vomiting
  • abdominal cramping
  • bradycardia
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17
Q

COPD symptoms: (4)

A
  • paradoxical breathing
  • tympanic chest percussion
  • rhonchi
  • wheezing
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18
Q

cor pulmonale symptoms: (4)

A
  • jugular vein distention
  • peripheral edema
  • split S2
  • rales
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19
Q

Need a CXR in pre-op to test for:
[Pre-op Testing]

A
  • airway eval
  • CHF
  • PTX
  • tracheal shift
  • PA enlargement (sign of increased PVR)
    -Eval for airway infringement
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20
Q

EKG: tall R in V1 =

A

RVH

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21
Q

EKG: biphasic P in V1 =

A

R atrial hypertrophy

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22
Q

EKG: look for (3)

A
  • ST depression
  • BBBs
  • T inversion
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23
Q

EKG: Pathologie Q waves + LVH =

A

Increased risk of ischemia/infarction

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24
Q

Best initial tool for pulmonary HTN but higher level studies may need to follow

A

Echo

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25
Labs to check for COPD patients: (5)
- room air ABG to check for CO2 retention (>45 = poor function) - SpO2 < 90% = increased risk of complications - albumin < 3.6 g/dL (common) = 2.5x higher risk - BUN > 22 mg/dL = increased risk - renal fxn labs (esp with chemo) - lytes (esp Na, K, Ca)
26
PFTs: significant improvement = ____ increase in ____ after bronchodilators
12% increase in FEV1
27
PFTs: ___ ____ test is a good predictor. ___-____ testing is best
No single Multi-modal
28
PFTs: general cutoffs for increased risk: ____, _____, and _____ < 40%
PPO (predicted post op) FEV1 (forced expiratory volume/1 second) DLCO (diffusion in the lung of carbon monoxide)
29
PFTs: general cutoffs for increased risk: ____ ____ < 15(10) mL/kg/min
VO2 max (ability to climb 5 flights of stairs = > 20, inability to climb 1 flight = < 10)
30
Non CV surgeries: ____ of smokers have complications ____ of past smokers have complications ____ non-smokers have complications
22% 13% 5%
31
Lung cancer patients: ___ are smokers
87%
32
With lung cancer, smokers have a ____ ____
1.5% mortality
33
With lung cancer, non-smokers have ____ ____
0.4% mortality
34
Pack-year index = ____/____x____
Packs / day x years
35
____ = increased complications over moderate smokers
> 20
36
Smoking cessation ____ ____ ____ = NO difference in outcomes or possibly worse d/t increased _____ _____
< 4 weeks Mucus production
37
_____ drops and _____ _____ improves in 1-2 weeks but NO difference in outcomes
Carboxyhemoglobin Mucociliary clearance
38
Some improvement in ___ ____ but more at ___ ____
4 weeks 8 weeks
39
Smoking is difficult to successfully intervene d/t ___ ____ of treating ____ ____
Urgent nature Lung cancer
40
_____ monitoring
Standard
41
___ ___ best for dysrhythmias
Lead II
42
____ is best for ischemia
V5
43
Consistent findings: ____ ____ significantly most effective
Lead combo (lead II and V5)
44
Arterial line should be placed in the _____ arm
Dependent
45
____ optional
Foley
46
PAC evidence: (3)
- NO improvement in outcomes - frequent inaccurate measurements - caution in vessels that could be clamped or ligated
47
____ for complex cases with large fluid shifts. Caution with ____. Insert _____ on _____ side
CVP EJs (easily kinked in lateral position) Subclavian Operative
48
Insert subclavian CVP on operative side why?
Don’t want a double pneumo
49
Trachea: __-__ cm long Begins at ____ Bifurcates at ____
11-12 cm long C6 (cricoid cartilage) T5 (sternomanubrial joint)
50
R mainstem bronchus: Wider Angles ____ from trachea at ____ Divides into ____ lobar branches Orifice of right upper lobe __ to ___ cm from carina
Away from trachea at 20 degrees 3 (upper, middle, lower) 1-2 cm from carina
51
L mainstem bronchus: Narrower Angles ____ from trachea at ____ Divides into ___ lobar branches Orifice of left upper lobe ___ cm from carina
Away from trachea at 45 degrees 2 (upper, lower) 5 cm from carina
52
Perfusion (Q): increases from ___ to ____ with awake, spontaneous ventilation
Apex to base
53
Ventilation (V): increases from ____ to ____. More ____ pressure in the apices keeps alveoli _____.
Apex to base Negative Distended
54
Alveoli in bases less _____, more _____, so most tidal breathing (air movement) distributed to the _____.
Distended Compliant Bases
55
V/Q not being perfectly correlated net result is…
V/Q matching well enough for efficient gas exchange
56
More _____ pressure in the apices keeps alveoli _____
Negative Distended
57
Alveoli in bases less _____, more _____, so most tidal breathing is distributed to ____
Less distended More compliant Distributed to bases
58
Lateral Awake: _____ displacement of diaphragm on DEPENDENT side
Cephalad
59
Lateral Awake: So, during inspiration, diaphragm can contract further leading to better ventilation of _____ lung
Dependent
60
Lateral Awake: Perfusion _____ in _____ lung (gravity)
Higher Dependent
61
Lateral Awake: Net result of V/Q and gas exchange
Net result of V/Q - no significant change Gas exchange is efficient
62
Lateral, anesthetized, spont vent, chest closed: induction leads to decreased ____ ____ ____
Functional residual capacity (FRC)
63
Lateral, anesthetized, spont vent, chest closed: Cephalad diaphragm displacement leads to ____ _____
Decreased FRC
64
Lateral, anesthetized, spont vent, chest closed: ______ lung is more compliant leading to _____ ventilation
NonDependent Increased
65
Lateral, anesthetized, spont vent, chest closed: _____ lung is more _____ (gravity)
Dependent Perfused
66
Lateral, anesthetized, spont vent, chest closed: V/Q net result
Mismatched
67
Lateral, paralyzed, mech vent, chest closed: with mech vent, diaphragm no longer helps maintain ____ leading to further decrease in ventilation in _____ lung and increased vent in ______ lung and ____ V/Q mismatch
FRC Dependent NonDependent More
68
Lateral, paralyzed, mech vent, chest closed: PEEP ____ ____ leading to ____ V/Q mismatch
Improves FRC Less
69
Lateral, anesthetized, chest open: huge reduction in resistance in ______ lung leading to increased ventilation in _____ lung and further decreased vent in ______ lung
NonDependent NonDependent Dependent
70
Lateral, anesthetized, chest open: Mediastinum shifts _____ d/t loss of _____ _____ pressure
Downward Negative intrathoracic pressure
71
Lateral, anesthetized, chest open: Vessels can be _____ leading to decreased ____ ____
Compressed Cardiac output
72
Lateral, anesthetized, chest open: With spontaneous vent (theoretically) leads to _____, _____ exchange. Air from the open-chest _____ lung moves into the ______ lung
Paradoxical, inefficient NonDependent Dependent
73
Paradoxical Respiration: during inspiration, air from the open-chest ______ lung moves into the ______ lung
NonDependent Dependent
74
Paradoxical Respiration: During expiration, air moves from ____ lung to the open-chest _____ lung
Dependent NonDependent
75
Paradoxical Respiration: _____ ventilation helps, but ______ lung is much better ventilated. ______ lung is much better perfused. (Gravity)
Mechanical NonDependent Dependent
76
Paradoxical Respiration: Net result - major ____ _____ in dependent lung
Physiologic shunt *reminder that this is theoretical and should NOT occur*
77
With mechanical (positive pressure) ventilation, Paradoxical Respiration and Mediastinal shift are _____. But _____ compliance of the NonDependent lung in open chest leads to ____ _____ _____
Reduced High HUGE V/Q mismatch
78
What situation has the worst V/Q mismatch? And why do you care?
Lateral, anesthetized, paralyzed, open-chest patient We care bc we have to deal with this exact situation for the duration of the surgery
79
Lateral, open-chest, one-lung ventilation (OLV): ____ resistance, _____ compliance of NonDependent lung which leads to ____ ventilation
Low High High
80
Lateral, open-chest, one-lung ventilation (OLV): _____ in dependent lung leads to ____ perfusion
Gravity High
81
Lateral, open-chest, one-lung ventilation (OLV): When vent stops in NonDependent lung, all _____ is diverted to _____ lung
Ventilation Dependent
82
Lateral, open-chest, one-lung ventilation (OLV): Perfusion to ______ lung now creates a ______
NonDependent Shunt
83
Lateral, open-chest, one-lung ventilation (OLV): BUT HPV in ______ lung diverts perfusion to ______ lung and decreases the ______ effect
NonDependent Dependent Shunt
84
Lateral, open-chest, one-lung ventilation (OLV): Net result - ____ V/Q mismatch (clinical picture ____ when _____ lung is clamped)
Less Improves NonDependent
85
Patient Related (isolation) indications for Lateral, open-chest, one-lung ventilation (OLV): (6)
- lung abscess - copious bleeding on one side - bronchopulmonary fistula - bronchial rupture - large lung cyst - bronchopleural lavage
86
Procedure Related (exposure) Indications for Lateral, open-chest, one-lung ventilation (OLV): (7)
- thoracic aortic aneurysm - pneumonectomy - upper lobectomy - thoracostomy/thoracoscopy - lower/middle lobectomies - sub-segmental resections - esophageal surgery
87
Double-Lumen EBTs: ____ tube, _____ lumen
Single Double
88
Double-Lumen EBTs: __ or __ available
L or R
89
Double-Lumen EBTs: Right DLTs designed to ventilate ____
RUL
90
Double-Lumen EBTs: ____ almost never used d/t missed ____ if not positioned perfectly
R DLT RUL
91
Double-Lumen EBTs: External French sizes - Internal sizes -
External - 26, 28, 35, 37, 39, 41 Internal - 3.4 - 6.6 mm
92
Double-Lumen EBTs: Sizing based on ____
Height
93
Double-Lumen EBTs: Usual sizing ___, ___ in females, and ___, ___ in males
35, 37 39, 41
94
Double-Lumen EBTs: 35 French DLT = ____ mm (ID) 41 French DLT = ____ mm (ID)
5.5 6.5
95
Double-Lumen EBTs: Have ____ outer diameters. Ex 37 Fr DLT has outer diameter equivalent to ____ mm ID standard ETT
Larger 11
96
Contraindications for L DLT (indications for R DLT): (5)
- distorted L main bronchus d/t mass - compression of L main bronchus d/t aortic aneurysm - left-sided pneumonectomy - left-sided single lung transplantation - left-sided sleeve resection
97
Most common DLT complication:
Malposition
98
Other common DLT complications: (5)
- thoracic aneurysm rupture with L DLT - vocal cord damage from carinal hook, or hook breaking off - bronchial cuff rupture d/t over-inflation - barotrauma if DLT inserted too deeply - inadvertent suturing of DLT to bronchus
99
Insertion of DLT: stylet through the _____ lumen, _____ blade, _____ DLT
Bronchial Mac Lube
100
Insertion of DLT: Insert with _____ curve, through ____ ____, remove _____
Anterior curve (over and under shotgun) Vocal cords Stylet
101
Insertion of DLT: Turn ___ ____ toward R (or L) bronchus and advance until _____. (Male approx. ____ cm, female approx. ____ cm)
90 degrees Resistance 29 27
102
Insertion of DLT: Inflate ____ cuff, verify ____, inflate ____ cuff
Tracheal BBS Bronchial
103
Insertion of DLT: Auscultate per _____
Protocol
104
Insertion of DLT: _____ ____ to verify. (Up to ____ of DLTs are malpositioned when verified by _____ ____)
Fiberoptic scope 80% Auscultation only
105
Insertion of DLT: Position patient into _____ position and then then _____ with _____
Lateral Re-verify FOB
106
Insertion of L DLT: (7 steps)
1. Inflate tracheal cuff (5-10 mL) 2. Check for BBS (unilateral = too deep) 3. Inflate bronchial cuff (1-2 mL) 4. Clamp tracheal lumen 5. Check for unilateral L BS 6. Unclamp tracheal lumen, clamp bronchial lumen 7. Check for unilateral R BS. If absent or weak R BS, DLT is too shallow, occluding the distal trachea
107
Insertion of L DLT: after clamping tracheal lumen, you check for unilateral L BS. However, if you hear - R BS also - Unilateral R BS - No R BS, no LUL BS It means:
- R BS also means: bronchial lumen is in trachea, Advance the DLT into L side. - Unilateral R BS means: DLT in R bronchus - No R BS, no LUL BS means: DLT too deep into L side
108
Bronchial Blockers: catheter with ______ ______ to block _____ lung bronchus
Inflatable balloon Operative
109
Bronchial Blockers: Types (2)
- side-channel (Univent) - separate devices through or outside of regular ETT
110
Bronchial Blockers: Place with ____ guidance
F/O
111
Bronchial Blockers: May be better with _____ airways than _____
Difficult DLTs
112
Bronchial Blockers: Use when ____ _____ is risky
ETT change
113
Bronchial Blockers: Can be used in _____
Children
114
Bronchial Blockers: Higher incidence than DLT of _____
Malposition
115
Bronchial Blockers: Lung deflation ____ _____ than DLT
Less effective
116
Bronchial Blockers: No ability to _____ below balloon
Suction
117
Bronchial Blockers: Caution with removal on _____ lung cases
“Dirty”
118
Bronchial Blockers: Same problem as DLT with missing ____. Usually only used for ___ ___ surgery
RUL Left side surgery
119
During OLV, NonDependent (deflated) lung becomes ___ ___ leading to decreased ____
Shunt flow PaO2
120
Hypoxia pulm vasoconstriction: lungs compensate by increasing _____ _____ in _____ areas which diverts perfusion to areas with better ______. (_____ phenomenon from general circulation)
Vascular resistance Hypoxic Ventilation Reverse
121
HPV is caused by ____ hypoxia, NOT ____ hypoxemia
Alveolar Arterial
122
HPV and OLV net result
Pulm blood flow matched to better oxygenated areas of the lung (improved VQ matching)
123
W/O HPV, approx ___ ___ would result
40% shunt
124
HPV occurs within seconds of _____, max effect in a few mins, can be maintained for ____ ____
Hypoxia Long periods
125
HPV improves SaO2 during __-__ lung hypoxia which is the ____ ____ present with OLV
20-80% Usual condition
126
We can facilitate the effectiveness of HPV by AVOIDING: (7)
AVOIDING - alkalosis/hypocapnea - excessive PIP, TV, or PEEP - hemodilution/hypervolemia (L atrial pressure > 25 mmHg) - prostacyclins - hypothermia - vasodilators, PDE inhibitors, CCBs - > 1.5 MAC of volatiles
127
Anesthetic agents: ____ are a good choice because they are ______, allow for high FiO2, ____ elimination for emergence
Volatiles Bronchodilators Rapid
128
Anesthetic agents: ____ ____ does NOT inhibit HPV
<1.5 MAC volatile
129
Anesthetic agents: ____ do not inhibit HPV. But ___ ____ in outcomes when compared to volatiles
TIVAs No difference
130
Anesthetic agents: Use ___/___ mix
Air/O2
131
Anesthetic agents: Avoid ____. It increases ____ and moves into ____ and _____
N2O PVR Bullae and cysts
132
Anesthetic agents: Avoid potential ____ ____. Can be deadly.
Residual blockade
133
Anesthetic agents: Use _____ relaxants, _____, antagonize.
Intermediate MONITOR
134
Regional Anesthesia: ____ required for open lung case but ____ good choice for post-op pain control
GA Regional
135
Regional Anesthesia: ______ from epidural, ______ does not appear to affect local HPV
Vasodilation Sympathectomy
136
Regional Anesthesia: ____ can cause same response as heavy opioids: decreased _____ ____, ____, _____
Pain Respiratory effort, hypoxemia, acidosis
137
Regional Anesthesia: Good choices (5)
- IV PCA - thoracic epidural (T6-T8) - paravertebral nerve block - ketamine - NSAIDs
138
____ of thoracotomy patients have pain ___ ___ out. 1/3 have pain at ____ ____ out.
50% 1 year 4 years
139
Primary goals of anesthetic management: maintain adequate ____, protect ____, provide favorable ____ ____
Oxygenation Lungs Surgical field
140
Protective ventilation strategies: physiologic VT of ____ (____ needed on the left)
6-8 mL/kg Less
141
Protective ventilation strategies: PEEP as low as possible to _____ lung
Dependent
142
Protective ventilation strategies: Limit PiPs to ___-___
20-25 cm H2O
143
Protective ventilation strategies: Permissive ______ (____) to support HPV
Hypercapnia (< 60 mmHg)
144
Protective ventilation strategies: ___/___ mix at lowest level that maintains _____. (But ____ ____ frequently needed)
Air/O2 PaO2 100% O2
145
Protective ventilation strategies: ____ limiting ventilation modes
Pressure
146
___ lung is larger than ___ lung so hypoxemia will be worse in ___ ____ procedures
Right Left R-side
147
____ can be predictive of intraoperative shunting
EtCO2
148
the degree of drop in EtCO2 when shifting to OLV is proportionate to _____ of the ______ lung
Perfusion NonDependent
149
The greater the initial drop in EtCO2, the ____ chance of ____ during OLV
Greater Hypoxia
150
Causes of OLV hypoxia: (6)
- tube Malposition (check first) - bronchospasm - drop in cardiac output - hypoventilation - low FiO2 - PTX of dependent lung (the only good lung)
151
If still hypoxic, ____ to NonDependent lung. Start at ___ ____ and use the lowest possible ____
CPAP 2 cmH2O Pressure
152
Too much CPAP inflates the lung causing a ____ ____ ____
Surgical exposure problem
153
For CPAP, can use _____ system or CPAP _____
Breathing Valve
154
Can use ___ ___ O2 via catheter insufflated through ______ circuit limb
Low flow NonDependent
155
Can ____ ventilate _____ lung with very small TV
Hand NonDependent
156
PEEP can be delivered to _____ lung
Dependent
157
PEEP produces alveolar _____, increases ____ ____ and _____
Recruitment Lung compliance and FRC
158
High PEEP leads to decreased ____ ____
Cardiac output
159
____ + ____ = auto PEEP effect with CO2 retention and lung ____
PEEP + fast rate Trauma
160
____ _____ of NonDependent lung, this is where communication with surgeon is vital
Intermittent reinflation
161
______ to NonDependent lung (can cause movement and ____ ____)
HFJV CO2 retention
162
Selective oxygenation of non-operative lobes of ______ lung with _____ _____ or _____
NonDependent Bronchial blocker FOB
163
Early _____ of pulm artery for ______
Ligation Pneumonectomies
164
After procedure, ____ NonDependent (operative side)
Unclamp
165
After procedure, use PiP of ___-___ cm H2O to _____ NonDependent lung
30-40 cm H2O Reinflate
166
After procedure, ____ bronchial cuff
Deflate
167
Inhaled selective pulm vasodilators such as ____ ____ and _____ can help with perfusion
Nitric oxide (NO) Prostacyclin
168
New research: _____ to NonDependent lung with ____ to dependent lung (100% increases PaO2)
Almitrine NO
169
Almitrine promotes ____ in NonDependent lung. (____ ____ ____ agonist)
HPV Carotid body chemoreceptor
170
NO is _____, _____, requires complex ____-___ independent of anesthesia machine with dedicated RT.
Expensive, toxic, requires complex set-up
171
Most mediastinal masses are _____
Asymptomatic
172
Symptomatic masses are usually ____ (larger with extensive involvement)
Malignant
173
Mediastinal tumors are frequently associated with systemic syndromes which include: (6)
- MG (thymoma) - cushing’s syndrome (thymoma, carcinoid) - hypercalcemia (parathyroid adenoma) - HTN - myasthenic syndrome (lung cancer) - cough, dyspnea, stridor, jugular distention, exaggerated postural changes in BP
174
Mediastinal mass: Problematic with _____ position; VERY problematic with _____/_____
Supine Induction/anesthesia
175
Mediastinal mass: Loss of _____ vent leads to potential airway collapse
Spontaneous
176
Mediastinal mass: If distal to ETT, ventilation can be _____. Have ___/___ _____ available before induction.
Impossible ENT/rigid bronchoscope
177
Mediastinal mass: Mass encroaching on ___, ____, or ____ ____ can cause potential CV collapse. ____ would need to be initiated immediately.
Heart, aorta, or vena cava CP bypass
178
Mediastinal mass: Pre-op eval - ___, ___, ____, ____, ____, to determine size, location, compression effects
CXR, CT, MRI, TEE, PFTs
179
Mediastinal mass: ____ to shrink mass before surgery
Radiate
180
Mediastinal mass: ____ ____ ____ ____ - venous distention of thorax and neck, redness/edema of face, neck, torso, airway, conjunctiva, SOB, HA, confusion. Place PIVs in ____ _____
Superior vena cava syndrome Lower extremities
181
Mediastinal mass: Major goal
Maintain spontaneous ventilation
182
Mediastinal mass: Biopsy with LA in ____ position if possible
Sitting
183
Mediastinal mass: Biphasic positive airway pressure (BiPAP) supports airway during _____ _____ with _____
Spontaneous ventilation with sedation
184
Mediastinal mass: _____ to shrink mass before surgery
Radiate
185
Mediastinal mass: ____ ____ is good choice for intubation
Awake FOB
186
Mediastinal mass: Avoid ____ ____ until ability to ventilate confirmed
Muscle relaxants
187
Mediastinal mass: ____/____ mixture (____) to minimize turbulence
Helium/O2 Heliox
188
Mediastinoscopy: incision above ____ ____, scope passed between ____ and ____ ____, near L common carotid, L subclavian, and innominate arteries, innominate veins, L ____ ____ nerve, thoracic duct, superior vena cava and aortic arch
Sternal notch Trachea and thoracic aorta Recurrent laryngeal nerve
189
Complications with mediastinoscopy: (9)
- hemorrhage - PTX - dysrhythmias - bronchospasm - laryngeal nerve damage - tracheal or esophageal rupture - chylothorax - air embolus - DEATH
190
Mediastinoscopy: monitor ___ arm (d/t pressure on _____ artery)
Right Innominate
191
Mediastinoscopy must haves: (2)
- good IV access - cross matched blood available
192
VATS replaces ____ ____
Open thoracotomy
193
VATS most common technique
GA with DLT
194
VATS usual monitoring
Arterial line
195
VATS can be done with ____, ____, ____ _____ for patients with poor pulmonary function
Epidural, sedation, spontaneous ventilation (although not commonly done)
196
Bullectomy: For ____ patients with bullae. (Prone to ____ leading to ____ PTX)
COPD Rupture Tension
197
Bullectomy: ____ approach
VATS
198
Bullectomy: Spont vent until chest ____ to decrease risk of ____
Open Rupture
199
Bullectomy: Vent settings (4)
- low TV - high RR - 100% O2 - PiP < 20 cmH2O
200
Bullectomy: Epidural?
Try your very best to do GA unless you think it’s going to kill them. Then maybe epidural
201
Bullectomy: AVOID ____
N2O
202
Complications Post-Thoracotomy: Highest risk factors- (5)
- > 80 years old - PPO FEV1 or DLCO < 40% - ASA status > or equal to 3 - > 80 mins surgery time - hemorrhage
203
Most Common Complications Post-Thoracotomy: (4)
- resp failure - dysrhythmias - cardiac failure - acute lung injury (ALI)
204
Highest risk factors for ALI: (4)
- R pneumonectomy - overhydration - high PiPs during OLV - pre-op ETOH abuse
205
Complications Post-Thoracotomy: Chest tube drainage should not exceed ____ mL/day. ____ mL/hr calls for ____ _____
500 mL/day 200 mL/hr Surgical exploration
206
Complications Post-Thoracotomy: Lung resection leads to increased ____ leading to ___ failure. Increased risk with _____, hyper____, _____
PVR RV Pneumonia Hypercarbia Acidosis
207
Complications Post-Thoracotomy: _____ dysrhythmias common.
Supraventricular
208
Complications Post-Thoracotomy: Morbidity ___, ___ death in 1st 30 post-op days. Treat aggressively with ____ _____.
High 25% Beta blockers
209
Complications Post-Thoracotomy: ___ or ___ nerve damage
Phrenic or laryngeal
210
Complications Post-Thoracotomy: SCI if ____ artery damaged, _____ hematoma, positioning injury (____ ____)
Radicular Epidural Lateral decubitus