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Patient Care II > Exam II > Flashcards

Exam II Flashcards

1
Q

The communication skills needed for patient-centered care include:

  1. Eliciting the patient’s agenda with _______, especially early on.
  2. Not _____ the patient
  3. Engaging in ______.
A
  1. open-ended questions
  2. interrupting
  3. focused active listening
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2
Q

Learning how to improve communication skills will make you a better dentist by enabling:

A

you to better understand your patients needs

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3
Q

As a provider, you need to try and minimize _____ to mutual understanding

A

barriers

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4
Q

As a dentist, you treat ____ not ____

A

patients; teeth

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5
Q

The most important tool in dentistry:

A

communication

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6
Q

List the 5 benefits of a good relationship between the patient and doctor:

A
  1. more likely to follow our recommendations
  2. more likely to pay bills on time
  3. more likely to refer others to your practice
  4. reduces anxiety- both the patients and yours
  5. less likely to sue
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7
Q

68-70% of medical liticagiokn cases cited ____ as the primary cause

A

communication

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8
Q

As a dentist, it is important to ____ before you ____.

A

inform; perform

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9
Q

Communicating effectively with your patients:

  1. Assess your _____
  2. Make your ____ easier for them
  3. Show them _____
  4. Have _____
  5. Monitor your ____
  6. Provide ____ when necessary
  7. Give your patients _____
A
  1. body language
  2. interactions
  3. proper respect
  4. patients
  5. mechanics
  6. simple written instructions
  7. ample time
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10
Q

When communicating effectively with you’re patient its important to have your body:

A

at the same level as theirs

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11
Q

When communicating effectively with you’re patient its important to accomodate your patients request as much as it is ______, rather than speaking to them in _____.

A

safe and prudent; commands

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12
Q

Positive patient communication is:

A

is not rushed

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13
Q

How words are spoken:

A

delivery

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14
Q

List the aspects of delivery: (7)

A
  1. vocal quality
  2. tone
  3. pitch
  4. emphasis
  5. volume
  6. pause
  7. inflection
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15
Q

Perception of compassion and empathy=

A

emotion

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16
Q

List the 4 aspects of body language:

A
  1. stance
  2. posture
  3. gesture
  4. use of space
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17
Q

List the 3 aspects of perception:

A
  1. delivery
  2. emotion
  3. body language
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18
Q

Nonverbal perception is:

A

facial/emotional

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19
Q

A fake smile is considered a ____ smile.

A genuine smile is considered a ____ smile.

A

social; duchenne

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20
Q

a genuine smile involves:

A

eye muscles

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21
Q

name of genuine smile person:

A

Duchenne du boulogne

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22
Q

Uh, You know, Right? Ok?, Clearing throat, monotone

A

unconscious personal habits vocal/hearing

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23
Q

raising eyebrows, fiddling with glasses, hair, beard, and earrings:

A

unconscious personal habits facial/emotional

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24
Q

spinning pen, foot tapping, fingernail tapping, rocking, and hand gestures:

A

unconscious personal habits

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25
Q

What should you do with your hands while speaking?

A
  • folded
  • behind back
  • akimbo (hands on hips and elbows out)
  • fig leaf (place hands in front of mid section)
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26
Q

Identify non-verbals that promote good convo:

A
  1. appropriate space (arms length)
  2. eye contact
  3. eye level
  4. smile
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27
Q

Office distractions including multi-tasking, chart reviewing, and staff interruptions are all examples of:

A

roadblocks to good listening

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28
Q

Identify the verbals that promote good conversation (4):

A
  1. open-ended questions
  2. Use Mr. Mrs. or Ms. unless they ask you to do so otherwise
  3. Don’t rush
  4. give patient a chance to talk
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29
Q

Identify the verbals that inhibit good conversation (2):

A
  1. Rushing to diagnose- let patient be a part in the decision making
  2. Asking close-ended questions
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30
Q

arrogance, sarcasm, high pressure marketing can all be considered:

A

negative dentist attitudes

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31
Q
  • making sure the patient is comfortable
  • being flexible to ensure patients acceptance
  • leaving time for emergency visits

These are always for a dentist to be:

A

accomodating

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32
Q

Identify some reasons that patients avoid dental care:

A
  1. previous dental experiences
  2. dental anxiety
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33
Q

When should you typically communicate with other faculty?

A

usually away from the patient

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34
Q

Reasons for dental anxiety: (3)

A
  1. choking (gagging, instruments, & suction)
  2. embarrassment (being judged, scared of lecture & feeling that teeth can’t be saved)
  3. Parents (bad experience as kid)
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35
Q

What are the 3 initial contact questions:

A
  1. How long since your last dental visit
  2. What kind of past treatment & how was it?
  3. Do you have any concerns about receiving dental treatment
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36
Q

Physiological signs of dental anxiety: (3)

A
  1. Perspiration (forehead, hands, palms, upper-lip, underarms)
  2. Cardiovascular (BP and HR)
  3. Respiration (rate and depth)
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37
Q
  • explaining procedures before starting
  • giving specific info during procedures
  • giving reassurance
  • give pt some control (such as raising hand if they feel pain)
  • provide distraction
  • build trust
  • show personal warmth
    -stress- reduction protocol
A

ways to reduce dental anxiety

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38
Q

A condition in which there is a deflection from the normal relation of the teeth to other teeth in the same arch and/or to teeth in the opposing arch

A

Malocclusion

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39
Q

Angles classification was developed in ____ by ____.

A

1899; Edward H. Angle

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40
Q

Angle’s classification is based on the relationship of:

A

The MB CUSP of the MAXILLARY 1ST MOLAR and the BUCCAL GROOVE of the MANDIBULAR 1ST MOLAR

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41
Q

Describe Angle’s Class 1:

A

MB cusp of maxillary first molar BISECTS the buccal groove of mandibular 1st molar

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42
Q

MB bust of max 1st molar bisects buccal groove of mand 1st molar:

A

Angle’s Class 1

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43
Q

Same as normal occlusion but characterized by crowding, rotations, and other positional irregularities:

A

Class 1- Malocclusion

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44
Q

For Class 1 malocclusion, it is the same as normal occlusion but is characterized by ____, ____, and other ____

A

crowding, rotations, and other positional irregularities

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45
Q

This image shows:

A

Class 1 with severe crowding and labially erupted canines

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46
Q

Describe Angle’s Class II:

A

MB cusp of maxillary first molar is MESIAL to mandibular 1st molar’s buccal groove

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47
Q

Angle’s class II in simple terms can be described as:

A

Overbite

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48
Q

MB cusp of max 1st molar is MESIAL to mand 1st molar’s buccal groove:

A

Angle’s class II

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49
Q

Diagnose this occlusion:

A

Angle’s Class II

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50
Q

Diagnose this occlusion

A

Top: normal occlusion

Bottom: class I malocclusion

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51
Q

Diagnose this image:

A

Angle’s Class II

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52
Q

Describe Angle’s Class III:

A

MB cusp of maxillary 1st molar is DISTAL to buccal groove of mandibular 1st molar

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53
Q

Angle’s Class III in simple terms can be described as:

A

Underbite

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54
Q

Diagnose this image:

A

Class III Malocclusion

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55
Q

The HORIZONTAL overlap of the maxillary central incisors over the mandibular central incisors:

A

Overjet

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56
Q

When discussing overjet and overbite we are describing the relationship between what teeth?

A

Max and Mand central incisors

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57
Q

Overjet is measured using:

A

periodontal probe

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58
Q

typical overjet measurement:

A

usually 2-3 mm

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59
Q

The VERTICAL overlap of the maxillary central incisors over the mandibular central incisors:

A

overbite

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60
Q

Overjet is describing a ____ overlap

Overbite is describing a ____ overlap

A

overjet = horizontal

overbite= vertical

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61
Q

How much the maxillary teeth cover up the mandibular teeth would describe:

A

overbite

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62
Q

The amount of overbite is measured using:

A

Periodontal probe vertically

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63
Q

Normal overbite is usually:

A

2-3 mm or approximately 20-30% of the height of the mandibular incisors

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64
Q

A is showing :

B is showing:

A

A: Overbite
B: Overjet

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65
Q

Diagnose this image:

A

Anterior crossbite

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66
Q

Diagnose this image:

A

Posterior crossbite

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67
Q

Diagnose this image:

A

Posterior crossbite

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68
Q

ETW:

A

Erosive tooth wear

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69
Q

Generally, ETW is classified according to the specific:

A

Mechanism that is responsible for the wear

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70
Q

Mechanisms of wear that are responsible for ETW:

A
  1. Erosion
  2. Abfraction
  3. Abrasion
  4. Attrition
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71
Q

The etiology of dental wear is multifactorial with complex relationships between three types of wear:

A

attrition, abrasion and erosion

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72
Q

Evidence of occlusal wear/trauma include: (3)

A
  1. wear facets
  2. broken restorations
  3. chipped teath
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73
Q

Evidence of bruxism includes: (5):

A
  1. bony ridges-exostosis, tori
  2. recession
  3. abfraction
  4. broken teeth & restorations
  5. excessive attrition
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74
Q

Describe the abfraction seen in bruxism:

A

loss of cervical area

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75
Q

This image shows evidence of:

A

bruxism

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76
Q

mechanical wear of the incisal or occlusal surface as a result of functional or para-functional movements of the mandible (tooth-to-tooth contact)

A

attrition

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77
Q

Bruxism accelerates _____.

A

attrition

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78
Q

Attrition can be related to:

A

age

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79
Q

In attrition, occlusal surfaces match _____ and usually have a similar degree of wear

A

jaw movements

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80
Q

diagnose this image:

A

attrition

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81
Q

Cervical wedge-shaped defects in teeth:

A

abfraction

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82
Q

Bruxism resulting in cervical loss of the cervical area of the tooth under the flexure load:

A

abfraction

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83
Q

Abfraction can be described as:

A

physical wear

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84
Q

Diagnose this image:

A

abfraction

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85
Q

A form of physical wear along the gingival margin that is not caused by bacterial acid activity:

A

abfraction

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86
Q

What is the shape of the defects of abfraction and where are they located?

A

wedge-shaped in the cervical portion of the tooth right by the gingiva

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87
Q

Diagnose this image:

A

abfraction

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88
Q

Abnormal tooth surface loss resulting from direction frictional forces between the teeth and external objects or from frictional forces between contacting teeth in the presence of an abrasive medium:

A

abrasion

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89
Q

abrasion is the abnormal surface loss resulting from ____ between the teeth and external objects or from ____ between contacting teeth in the presence of a _____.

A

direct frictional forces; frictional forces; abrasive medium

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90
Q

What may cause abrasion? (3)

A
  1. improper brushing techniques
  2. habits
  3. vigorous use of toothpicks
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91
Q

What is the most common cause for abrasion?

A

improper brushing techniques

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92
Q

Abrasion due to improper brushing techniques typically results in:

A

V-shaped notch in the gingival 1/3 of the tooth

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93
Q

What is an example of a habit that may lead to abrasion?

A

holding a pipe stem between the teeth

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94
Q

Interproximal abrasion may be due to:

A

toothpicks

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95
Q

Incisal notching abrasion may be due to:

A

Nails, pipe

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96
Q

Cervical abrasion may be due to:

A

tooth brushing

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97
Q

What are 3 locations for abrasion?

A
  1. interproximal
  2. incisal notching
  3. cervical
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98
Q

diagnose this image (be specific):

A

interproximal abrasion

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99
Q

Wear or loss of tooth structure by chemicomechanical action:

A

erosion

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100
Q

Erosion is wear or loss of tooth structure by:

A

chemicomechanical action

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101
Q

Where is erosion seen on the tooth?

A

facial and lingual

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102
Q

What are some causes of facial erosion of he teeth:

A

lemons or chlorine

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103
Q

What is the main cause of lingual erosion?

A

bulemia

104
Q

Diagnose this image, (be specific):

A

facial erosion

105
Q

Diagnose this image, (be specific):

What might this be caused by?

A

lingual erosion, bulimia

106
Q

What are oral signs of bulimia?

A
  1. “raised” amalgams
  2. thermal sensitivity
107
Q

This image is showing a patient with potential:

A

bulimia

108
Q

Describe what might occur to the dentition of a bulimic patient: (3)

A
  1. thinning or chipping of incisal edges
  2. anterior open bite
  3. loss of vertical dimension
109
Q

The foundation of any form of successful treatment:

A

accurate diagnosis

110
Q

The bridge between the study of disease and the treatment of illness:

A

diagnosis

111
Q

You should always ____ before you perform

A

inform

112
Q

If it isn’t written:

A

it didn’t happen

113
Q

Types of clinical examination: (5)

A
  1. comprehensive dental diagnosis
  2. periodic/recall diagnosis
  3. diagnosis of a specific problem
  4. emergency diagnosis
  5. screening diagnosis
114
Q

The diagnostic methodic can be modified to most effectively:

A

address the needs of the patient

115
Q
  • pain, acute infection, bleeding, or traumatic injury

These are all:

A

chief complaints that require immediate care

116
Q

A chief complaint can be something the requires immediate care or can also be:

A

a request for less urgent care

117
Q

in the CC, patients may report several complaint, which are listed in order of priority:

A

as stated by the patient

118
Q

C.C:

A

chief complaint

119
Q

What is the most extensive diagnostic treatment :

A

comprehensive dental diagnosis

120
Q

A comprehensive dental diagnosis may also be called;

A

Initial diagnosis or IOE

121
Q

What would be the reasons to classify the appointment as a “comprehensive dental diagnosis”

A
  1. Pt who wants total dental care who has not previously been seen
  2. Pt of record who has not been seen for 3-5 years
  3. Pt of record who has had major change in medical/ dental history
122
Q

The part of the comprehensive dental diagnosis that starts the minute you see the patient:

A

Physical exam and assessment

123
Q

In a comprehensive dental diagnosis when you are asking the patient about systemic diseases, surgeries, current medications, and allergies:

A

Detailed medical history

124
Q

When taking a detailed medical history, it is important to ask about what types of medications:

A

Both Rx and OTC

125
Q

When you are taking a detailed medical history during a comprehensive dental diagnosis, this is when you establish:

A

ASA class

126
Q

After getting the detailed medical hx in a comprehensive dental diagnosis, it is now time for:

A

intra/extraoral evaluation & perioral conditions

127
Q

Following the intra/extra oral evaluation and noting perioral conditions, what is the next step of a comprehensive dental diagnosis?

A

Dental radiographs

128
Q

What dental radiographs are obtained during a comprehensive dental diagnosis?

A

FMXR vs Pano & BWX

129
Q

Following taking radiographs in a comprehensive dental diagnosis, the next step is:

A

Making diagnostic casts

130
Q

The data obtained in a comprehensive dental diagnosis is of value because:

A

it serves as the patients initial status which serves in comparison later in assessing treatment effectiveness

131
Q

Comprehensive dental diagnosis require ____ but it reliably provides a ____ for comprehensive dental are

A

considerable time; sound diagnostic foundation for comprehensive dental care

132
Q

A comprehensive dental diagnosis can _____ by documentation of the patients initial status if treatment complications occur and lead to accusations of sub-standard care

A

protect the clinician

133
Q

Periodic diagnosis may also be referred to as:

A

Recall diagnosis

134
Q

This type of appointment is appropriate for a patient who requests total dental car when the results of a prior comprehensive dental diagnosis are available :

A

Periodic diagnosis

135
Q

What is the assumption regarding the prior comprehensive exam when seeing a patient for a periodic diagnosis?

A

assumption is that a portion of past information is still accurate but other aspects of the patient medical/dental history may have changed

136
Q

A periodic (recall) diagnosis, usually is in a ____ interval

A

6-month

137
Q

What is the goal of a periodic diagnosis:

A

Goal is to identify conditions that have changed an supplement the prior database so that it reflects the patients current status

138
Q

A periodic diagnosis can be as simple as ____ or as complex as ____.

A

simple as asking patient if there has been any changes since the last appointment or as complex as repeating most of the comprehensive dental diagnosis

139
Q

What is ALWAYS a good practice regardless of the time interval in between seeing the patient?

A

asking if there has been any changes since the last appointment

140
Q

In a period diagnosis examination, if a different clinician conducted the original diagnosis, the current dentist must:

A

must confirm the accuracy of prior data and record current findings prior to diagnostic decisions

141
Q

If someone comes in with a specific problem, this exam would be titled:

A

Diagnosis of a specific problem (OR Limited exam)

142
Q

The diagnosis of a specific problem (limited exam) is ____ focused

A

problem

143
Q

For a recently evaluated patient, a diagnosis of a specific problem / limited exam serves as a :

A

second opinion

144
Q

The ____ is an effective approach to such situations if the available diagnostic database is current and accurate (during diagnosis of a specific problem/ limited exam)

A

SOAP evaluation

145
Q

____ form is in axium

A

SOAP

146
Q

What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as:

The reason for the evaluation:

A

CC: (chief complaint)

147
Q

What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as:

Information or symptoms of the condition as supplied by the patient. Patient’s chief concern or complain. IT IS RECORDED IN THE PATIENT’S OWN WORDS.

A

S: subjective

148
Q

What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as:

Physical findings of the clinician. Includes visual findings, periodontal assessment, clinical tests (percussion, palpation, vitality tests)

A

O: Objective

149
Q

What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as:

Clinical impression of the condition by the clinician. THIS IS THE DIAGNOSIS

A

A: Analysis

150
Q

What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as:

Recommended management of the problem. May be specific treatment, referral, or dismissal of the condition as clinically insignificant.

A

P: Plan

151
Q

What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as:

“toothache on the upper right for the last 2 weeks and is getting worse”. Pt reports pain to cold and hot, duration 5-10 minutes, loss of sleep and requires Motrin 3-4 times x day.

A

S: subjective

152
Q

What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as:

Grossly decayed #3, (+) response to percussion and palpation, (-) swelling, mobility.

A

O: Objective

153
Q

What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as:

Caries, necrotic pulp, - tooth is restorable

A

A: Analysis

154
Q

What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as:

Discussed treatment options including RCT and crown vs. extraction. Risks/benefits of each procedure was explained. Pt prefers RCT and understands that the tooth may need crown lengthening procedure.

A

P: Plan

155
Q

A SOAP note would be used in what type of examination?

A

Diagnosis of a specific problem/ Limited Exam

156
Q

Type of appointment that is designed to manage a chief complain such as pain, bleeding or acute infection that requires immediate attention:

A

Emergency diagnosis

157
Q

In an emergency diagnosis, the ___ is scarified in the interest of providing attention to the ____.

A

Comprehensive diagnostic evaluation; Urgent problem

158
Q

In an emergency diagnosis appointment, the physical examination is limited to:

A

The chief complaint

159
Q

In an emergency diagnosis, the patients CC can be demanding and interfere with:

A

obtaining an adequate patient history

160
Q

Type of appointment in which specific questions about the patient are answered:

A

screening diagnosis

161
Q

In this type of appointment, the evaluation is limited to obtaining the information needed to answer question without accepting comprehensive diagnosis or treatment responsibility for the patient:

A

Screening diagnosis

162
Q

Institutions often rely of a screening diagnosis to determine:

A

Patients general dental treatment needs

163
Q

____ is the most common symptoms arising in the mouth, neck and face area

A

pain

164
Q

Most common reason for emergency appointments

A

pain

165
Q

Pain is ____ an unlike an ulcer, there may be nothing to assess ____.

A

subjective; visually

166
Q

In order to diagnose pain, you need to be _____ and have ____

A

a good listener; have good flow up questions

167
Q

What questions would you as a provider ask a patient regarding their pain? (7)

A
  1. How would you describe the pain?
  2. When did you first notice the pain?
  3. Is the pain continuous or does it go away?
  4. Does it wake you up at night?
  5. Has it gotten better? Worse? or stayed the same?
  6. Have you taken anything for the pain?
  7. Anything make it worse? Anything make it better?
168
Q

Descriptive words for pain:

A

Dull/throbbing, sharp/stabbing, burning

169
Q

Pain arising from pathology is usually:

A

unilateral

170
Q

Other symptoms related to pain that may indicate an infective origin: (7)

A
  1. swelling
  2. discharge
  3. bad taste
  4. bad breath
  5. elevated temp
  6. malaise
  7. cervical lymphadenopathy
171
Q

Dental biocompatibility works both ways meaning:

A

The material may affect the environment and/ or the environment may affect the material

172
Q

The material must be of benefit to the patient and above all, the patient must be:

A

safe from any adverse reactions

173
Q

The biological reaction can take place either:

A
  1. at the local level
  2. far removed from the contact site
174
Q

What is an example of a biological reaction taking place at a local level:

A

injection site rxn

175
Q

What is an exam of a biological reaction that occurs far removed from the site of contact:

A

systemic rxn

176
Q

Adverse reaction from acrylic monomer in a denture:

A

denture stomatitis

177
Q

Systemic reactions due to a biocompatibility reaction may not always be:

A

readily apparent

178
Q

systemic reactions that may not be readily apparent include:

A

dermatological, immune-mediated, or neural reactions

179
Q

Most common rx to dental staff is:

A

hand/facial dermatitis or respiratory symptoms

180
Q

Possible interactions between dental restorative material and the biological environment include:

A
  1. post op sensitivity
  2. toxicity
  3. corrosion
  4. hypersensitivity /allergy
181
Q

Nanomaterial (size of 100nm) growing concern about their biosecurity & crossing the blood-brain barrier and going to the central nervous system:

A

Toxicity interaction

182
Q

Amalgam or its components may cause a _____ reaction (usually 24-48 hrs after exposure) on the oral mucosa. This is what type of interaction?

A

Type IV; Hypersensitivity/Allergic reaction

183
Q

In a study regarding contact allergies to dental materials, 86 subjects (83.7% women with an average of 63 years old (24-86 range). The most common allergies were to ____ of which _____ and ____ were the most common.

A

metals; nickel & cobalt

184
Q

In a study regarding contact allergies to dental materials, 86 subjects (83.7% women with an average of 63 years old (24-86 range). Denture resins showed ___, ____ and _____ of the mouth.

A

mucosal changes, contact stomatitis, & burning sensations

185
Q

Some patients can develop allergic or hypersensitive reactions to even very small quantities of metal such as:

A
  1. mercury
  2. nickel
  3. cobalt
186
Q

Direct contact of the oral mucosa with mercury can cause:

A

oral lichenoid lesion (OLL)

187
Q

chronic inflammatory lesion of the oral mucosa:

A

oral lichenoid lesion (OLL)

188
Q

When determining the biocompatibility of a pt with nickel, ask a patient:

A

if they can wear costume jewelry

189
Q

Diagnose this image:

A

oral lichen planus

190
Q

Diagnose this image:

A

amalgam tattoo

191
Q

____ of the oral cavity is rare, but highly aggressive neoplasms and need to know more to frequent diagnose:

A

mucosal melanoma

192
Q

____ is one of the most common causes of allergic contact dermatitis and produces more allergic reactions than all other metals combined

A

nickel

193
Q

Several branches of orthodontic wires are made of:

A

nickel titanium alloy

194
Q

Non-precious metal crowns contains high levels of ___. Some as high as ____.

A

nickel; 55%

195
Q

Nickel is one of the most common causes of:

A

allergic contact dermatitis

196
Q

Some people with pollen allergies have allergic symptoms around and in the mouth and throat after eating raw fresh fruits, veggies, nuts or seeds which contain preteens cross-reaction to the pollens

A

oral allergy syndrome

197
Q

diagnose this image:

A

oral hypersensitivity reaction

198
Q

Dental practitioners are ____ for the material to which a patient will be exposed

A

ultimately responsible

199
Q

Sargenti Pasted for root canals:

A

paraformaldehyde

200
Q

Dentist must have the knowledge and understanding of the ____ of the materials to be used and how these might affect the patient.

A

composition

201
Q

Materials that cause destruction of connective tissue, bone, nerves, chronic infection and pain would be material that are causing a ____ damage. What is one material that might do this:

A

irreversible; paraformaldehyde-containing endodontic filling materials

202
Q

a concern for paraformadehyde-containing endodontic filling materials is that they can travel through the:

A
  1. body-blood
  2. lymph nodes
  3. adrenal glands
  4. kidney
  5. brain
203
Q

Leaders in science-based biological dentistry:

A

IAOMT (international academy of oral medicine & toxicology)

204
Q

If you wish to remove mercury amalgams, fillings or metal-based crowns, it is recommended to used an IAOMT dentist certified in the:

A

SMART (Safe Mercury Amalgam Technique)

205
Q

HAD- improving overall health through dentistry:

A

Holistic Dental Association

206
Q

Some materials have a distinctly ____ effect on the pulp

A

positive

207
Q

A material that has has a positive effect on the dental pulp by stimulating tertiary dentin formation

A

calcium hydroxide

208
Q

Since a restoration may have an adverse affect on the pulp, a range of materials termed ____ have been developed to be applied to the dentin prior to the placement of the final restoration

A

intermediate restorative materials (IRMs)

209
Q

When and where are IRMS placed?

A

prior to the placement of the final restoration and applied to the dentin

210
Q

Cavity varnishes, bases and liners are all examples of:

A

intermediate restorative materials

211
Q

Intermediate restorative materials are intended to remain ___ and should not be confused with ____

A

permanently; temporary restorative materials

212
Q

The role of IRMs may be: (3)

A
  1. protective
  2. palliative
  3. therapeutic
213
Q

The goal of this material is to protect the pulmonary from chemical, electrical, and thermal reactions.

A

IRMs

214
Q

What is an example of electrical reaction that IRMs protect against?

A

Galvanic shock- dissimilar metals

215
Q

IRMs protect the pulp from: (3)

A
  1. electrical
  2. chemical
  3. thermal
216
Q

Give an example of a specific IRM and the qualities it possesses:

A

Zinc Oxide Eugenol (ZOE)- sedative like qualities on hypersensitive pulp and is a good thermal insulator as well

217
Q

Intermediate Restorative material:

  1. Acts as a _____
  2. Excellent _____ resistance
  3. Good ____ properties
  4. Low ____
  5. May be used under cements and restorative materials that DO NOT contain resin components such as ___, ____, or ____.
A
  1. thermal insulator
  2. abrasion
  3. sealing
  4. solubility
  5. amalgams, inlays, onlays
218
Q

What can intermediate restorative materials not be placed under?

A

amalgams, inlays, and onlays

219
Q

This material should not discolor the tooth or restoration:

A

Intermediate restorative materials (IRMs)

220
Q

IRMs should ___ quick enough to allow subsequent insertion of the ____

A

harden; restoration

221
Q

IRMs should withstand the :

A

condensation of the over laying restoration

222
Q

IRMs should be ____- what works for you

A

easily manipulated

223
Q

Liners and bases are materials placed _____ (and sometimes pulp and the restoration to provide pulpal ____ or pulpal ____.

A

Between dentin; protection; response

224
Q

Protective needs for a restoration vary depending on:

A

the extend and location of the prep and the restorative material to be used

225
Q

Because they share similar objectives/ properties, liners and bases are not:

A

fully distinguishable in all cases

226
Q

Liners and bases are examples of:

A

intermediate restorative materials

227
Q

_____ = thick mix of material which is placed in bulk

____ = only applied as a thin coating over exposed dentin

A

bases

liners

228
Q

Used to block out undercuts

A

bases

229
Q

Less than 0.5 mm thick and is able to promote the health of the pulp by adhesion or antibacterial action

A

Liners

230
Q

The primary role of liners:

A

to protect the pulp

231
Q

Liners form a strong bond to ____, preventing ___ down dentinal tubules.

A

dentin; fluid movement

232
Q

Liners provide a _____

A

bacterial barrier

233
Q

Liners work by _____ release

A

sustained fluoride

234
Q

An example of a liner would be:

A

Vitrebond

235
Q

Light cure resin-modified glass ionomer considered a liner/base that can be used under composite, amalgam, metal , and ceramic restorations. NOT indicated for direct pulp capping.

A

Vitrebond

236
Q

Is Vitrebond indicated for direct pulp capping?

A

NO

237
Q

A highly alkaline liner with a pH of 11-12.5

A

Calcium hydroxide

238
Q

Calcium hydroxide has high ____ activity that retains its properties for nearly 2 months

A

bactericidal

239
Q

Calcium hydroxide is useful in formation of: (a property of most liners)

A

tertiary dentin

240
Q

Can calcium hydroxide be used for direct or indirect pulp capping?

A

yes both

241
Q

Give an example of a calcium hydroxide liner:

A

Dycal

242
Q

Describe how one might cure dycal:

A

Dycal can be self curing or light cured

243
Q

A natural gum, rosin, or synthetic resin dissolved in organic solvent:

A

varnish

244
Q

Give an example of a natural gum that may be dissolved in organic solvent to form a resin:

A

Copal

245
Q

Varnishes have some ___ and ___ properties

A

antimicrobial and antiviral

246
Q

Varnishes easily seep into ___ and prevent ___ to the dentin and pulp.

A

dentinal tubules; transfer of heat and cold

247
Q

We use ____ instead of ____ at the SOD.

A

vitrebond ; varnishes

248
Q

NOT to be used under composite restorations (interferes with the setting reaction)

A

Varnishes

249
Q

Why should varnishes not be used under composite restorations?

A

Interferes with the setting reaction

250
Q

Varnishes are not to be used under _____ because it interferes with _____.

Varnishes are not to be used under ____ because it interferes with ____.

A

composite restorations; setting reaction

glass ionomers; fluoride release

251
Q

Used as an insulating layer under gold and amalgam restorations:

A

Copalite

252
Q

Place nothing, Vitrebond, or varnish:

A

shallow tooth prep

253
Q

Liners may be placed for thermal protection and pulpal medication along with varnish

A

Moderate depth prep

254
Q

Liner may be calcium hydroxide, then the base vitrebond or IRM

A

Very deep prep

255
Q

In a shallow tooth prep, what should be placed?

A

Nothing, vitrebond, or varnish

256
Q

In a moderate depth prep, what should be placed?

A

Liners may be placed for thermal protection an pulps medication along with varnish

257
Q

In a very deep prep, what should be placed?

A

Liner may be calcium hydroxide, then the base vitrebond or IRM

Patient Care II (3 decks)

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