Exam II Flashcards
1
Q
The communication skills needed for patient-centered care include:
- Eliciting the patient’s agenda with _______, especially early on.
- Not _____ the patient
- Engaging in ______.
A
- open-ended questions
- interrupting
- focused active listening
2
Q
Learning how to improve communication skills will make you a better dentist by enabling:
A
you to better understand your patients needs
3
Q
As a provider, you need to try and minimize _____ to mutual understanding
A
barriers
4
Q
As a dentist, you treat ____ not ____
A
patients; teeth
5
Q
The most important tool in dentistry:
A
communication
6
Q
List the 5 benefits of a good relationship between the patient and doctor:
A
- more likely to follow our recommendations
- more likely to pay bills on time
- more likely to refer others to your practice
- reduces anxiety- both the patients and yours
- less likely to sue
7
Q
68-70% of medical liticagiokn cases cited ____ as the primary cause
A
communication
8
Q
As a dentist, it is important to ____ before you ____.
A
inform; perform
9
Q
Communicating effectively with your patients:
- Assess your _____
- Make your ____ easier for them
- Show them _____
- Have _____
- Monitor your ____
- Provide ____ when necessary
- Give your patients _____
A
- body language
- interactions
- proper respect
- patients
- mechanics
- simple written instructions
- ample time
10
Q
When communicating effectively with you’re patient its important to have your body:
A
at the same level as theirs
11
Q
When communicating effectively with you’re patient its important to accomodate your patients request as much as it is ______, rather than speaking to them in _____.
A
safe and prudent; commands
12
Q
Positive patient communication is:
A
is not rushed
13
Q
How words are spoken:
A
delivery
14
Q
List the aspects of delivery: (7)
A
- vocal quality
- tone
- pitch
- emphasis
- volume
- pause
- inflection
15
Q
Perception of compassion and empathy=
A
emotion
16
Q
List the 4 aspects of body language:
A
- stance
- posture
- gesture
- use of space
17
Q
List the 3 aspects of perception:
A
- delivery
- emotion
- body language
18
Q
Nonverbal perception is:
A
facial/emotional
19
Q
A fake smile is considered a ____ smile.
A genuine smile is considered a ____ smile.
A
social; duchenne
20
Q
a genuine smile involves:
A
eye muscles
21
Q
name of genuine smile person:
A
Duchenne du boulogne
22
Q
Uh, You know, Right? Ok?, Clearing throat, monotone
A
unconscious personal habits vocal/hearing
23
Q
raising eyebrows, fiddling with glasses, hair, beard, and earrings:
A
unconscious personal habits facial/emotional
24
Q
spinning pen, foot tapping, fingernail tapping, rocking, and hand gestures:
A
unconscious personal habits
25
What should you do with your hands while speaking?
- folded
- behind back
- akimbo (hands on hips and elbows out)
- fig leaf (place hands in front of mid section)
26
Identify non-verbals that promote good convo:
1. appropriate space (arms length)
2. eye contact
3. eye level
4. smile
27
Office distractions including multi-tasking, chart reviewing, and staff interruptions are all examples of:
roadblocks to good listening
28
Identify the verbals that promote good conversation (4):
1. open-ended questions
2. Use Mr. Mrs. or Ms. unless they ask you to do so otherwise
3. Don't rush
4. give patient a chance to talk
29
Identify the verbals that inhibit good conversation (2):
1. Rushing to diagnose- let patient be a part in the decision making
2. Asking close-ended questions
30
arrogance, sarcasm, high pressure marketing can all be considered:
negative dentist attitudes
31
- making sure the patient is comfortable
- being flexible to ensure patients acceptance
- leaving time for emergency visits
These are always for a dentist to be:
accomodating
32
Identify some reasons that patients avoid dental care:
1. previous dental experiences
2. dental anxiety
33
When should you typically communicate with other faculty?
usually away from the patient
34
Reasons for dental anxiety: (3)
1. choking (gagging, instruments, & suction)
2. embarrassment (being judged, scared of lecture & feeling that teeth can't be saved)
3. Parents (bad experience as kid)
35
What are the 3 initial contact questions:
1. How long since your last dental visit
2. What kind of past treatment & how was it?
3. Do you have any concerns about receiving dental treatment
36
Physiological signs of dental anxiety: (3)
1. Perspiration (forehead, hands, palms, upper-lip, underarms)
2. Cardiovascular (BP and HR)
3. Respiration (rate and depth)
37
- explaining procedures before starting
- giving specific info during procedures
- giving reassurance
- give pt some control (such as raising hand if they feel pain)
- provide distraction
- build trust
- show personal warmth
-stress- reduction protocol
ways to reduce dental anxiety
38
A condition in which there is a deflection from the normal relation of the teeth to other teeth in the same arch and/or to teeth in the opposing arch
Malocclusion
39
Angles classification was developed in ____ by ____.
1899; Edward H. Angle
40
Angle's classification is based on the relationship of:
The MB CUSP of the MAXILLARY 1ST MOLAR and the BUCCAL GROOVE of the MANDIBULAR 1ST MOLAR
41
Describe Angle's Class 1:
MB cusp of maxillary first molar BISECTS the buccal groove of mandibular 1st molar
42
MB bust of max 1st molar bisects buccal groove of mand 1st molar:
Angle's Class 1
43
Same as normal occlusion but characterized by crowding, rotations, and other positional irregularities:
Class 1- Malocclusion
44
For Class 1 malocclusion, it is the same as normal occlusion but is characterized by ____, ____, and other ____
crowding, rotations, and other positional irregularities
45
This image shows:
Class 1 with severe crowding and labially erupted canines
46
Describe Angle's Class II:
MB cusp of maxillary first molar is MESIAL to mandibular 1st molar's buccal groove
47
Angle's class II in simple terms can be described as:
Overbite
48
MB cusp of max 1st molar is MESIAL to mand 1st molar's buccal groove:
Angle's class II
49
Diagnose this occlusion:
Angle's Class II
50
Diagnose this occlusion
Top: normal occlusion
Bottom: class I malocclusion
51
Diagnose this image:
Angle's Class II
52
Describe Angle's Class III:
MB cusp of maxillary 1st molar is DISTAL to buccal groove of mandibular 1st molar
53
Angle's Class III in simple terms can be described as:
Underbite
54
Diagnose this image:
Class III Malocclusion
55
The HORIZONTAL overlap of the maxillary central incisors over the mandibular central incisors:
Overjet
56
When discussing overjet and overbite we are describing the relationship between what teeth?
Max and Mand central incisors
57
Overjet is measured using:
periodontal probe
58
typical overjet measurement:
usually 2-3 mm
59
The VERTICAL overlap of the maxillary central incisors over the mandibular central incisors:
overbite
60
Overjet is describing a ____ overlap
Overbite is describing a ____ overlap
overjet = horizontal
overbite= vertical
61
How much the maxillary teeth cover up the mandibular teeth would describe:
overbite
62
The amount of overbite is measured using:
Periodontal probe vertically
63
Normal overbite is usually:
2-3 mm or approximately 20-30% of the height of the mandibular incisors
64
A is showing :
B is showing:
A: Overbite
B: Overjet
65
Diagnose this image:
Anterior crossbite
66
Diagnose this image:
Posterior crossbite
67
Diagnose this image:
Posterior crossbite
68
ETW:
Erosive tooth wear
69
Generally, ETW is classified according to the specific:
Mechanism that is responsible for the wear
70
Mechanisms of wear that are responsible for ETW:
1. Erosion
2. Abfraction
3. Abrasion
4. Attrition
71
The etiology of dental wear is multifactorial with complex relationships between three types of wear:
attrition, abrasion and erosion
72
Evidence of occlusal wear/trauma include: (3)
1. wear facets
2. broken restorations
3. chipped teath
73
Evidence of bruxism includes: (5):
1. bony ridges-exostosis, tori
2. recession
3. abfraction
4. broken teeth & restorations
5. excessive attrition
74
Describe the abfraction seen in bruxism:
loss of cervical area
75
This image shows evidence of:
bruxism
76
mechanical wear of the incisal or occlusal surface as a result of functional or para-functional movements of the mandible (tooth-to-tooth contact)
attrition
77
Bruxism accelerates _____.
attrition
78
Attrition can be related to:
age
79
In attrition, occlusal surfaces match _____ and usually have a similar degree of wear
jaw movements
80
diagnose this image:
attrition
81
Cervical wedge-shaped defects in teeth:
abfraction
82
Bruxism resulting in cervical loss of the cervical area of the tooth under the flexure load:
abfraction
83
Abfraction can be described as:
physical wear
84
Diagnose this image:
abfraction
85
A form of physical wear along the gingival margin that is not caused by bacterial acid activity:
abfraction
86
What is the shape of the defects of abfraction and where are they located?
wedge-shaped in the cervical portion of the tooth right by the gingiva
87
Diagnose this image:
abfraction
88
Abnormal tooth surface loss resulting from direction frictional forces between the teeth and external objects or from frictional forces between contacting teeth in the presence of an abrasive medium:
abrasion
89
abrasion is the abnormal surface loss resulting from ____ between the teeth and external objects or from ____ between contacting teeth in the presence of a _____.
direct frictional forces; frictional forces; abrasive medium
90
What may cause abrasion? (3)
1. improper brushing techniques
2. habits
3. vigorous use of toothpicks
91
What is the most common cause for abrasion?
improper brushing techniques
92
Abrasion due to improper brushing techniques typically results in:
V-shaped notch in the gingival 1/3 of the tooth
93
What is an example of a habit that may lead to abrasion?
holding a pipe stem between the teeth
94
Interproximal abrasion may be due to:
toothpicks
95
Incisal notching abrasion may be due to:
Nails, pipe
96
Cervical abrasion may be due to:
tooth brushing
97
What are 3 locations for abrasion?
1. interproximal
2. incisal notching
3. cervical
98
diagnose this image (be specific):
interproximal abrasion
99
Wear or loss of tooth structure by chemicomechanical action:
erosion
100
Erosion is wear or loss of tooth structure by:
chemicomechanical action
101
Where is erosion seen on the tooth?
facial and lingual
102
What are some causes of facial erosion of he teeth:
lemons or chlorine
103
What is the main cause of lingual erosion?
bulemia
104
Diagnose this image, (be specific):
facial erosion
105
Diagnose this image, (be specific):
What might this be caused by?
lingual erosion, bulimia
106
What are oral signs of bulimia?
1. "raised" amalgams
2. thermal sensitivity
107
This image is showing a patient with potential:
bulimia
108
Describe what might occur to the dentition of a bulimic patient: (3)
1. thinning or chipping of incisal edges
2. anterior open bite
3. loss of vertical dimension
109
The foundation of any form of successful treatment:
accurate diagnosis
110
The bridge between the study of disease and the treatment of illness:
diagnosis
111
You should always ____ before you perform
inform
112
If it isn't written:
it didn't happen
113
Types of clinical examination: (5)
1. comprehensive dental diagnosis
2. periodic/recall diagnosis
3. diagnosis of a specific problem
4. emergency diagnosis
5. screening diagnosis
114
The diagnostic methodic can be modified to most effectively:
address the needs of the patient
115
- pain, acute infection, bleeding, or traumatic injury
These are all:
chief complaints that require immediate care
116
A chief complaint can be something the requires immediate care or can also be:
a request for less urgent care
117
in the CC, patients may report several complaint, which are listed in order of priority:
as stated by the patient
118
C.C:
chief complaint
119
What is the most extensive diagnostic treatment :
comprehensive dental diagnosis
120
A comprehensive dental diagnosis may also be called;
Initial diagnosis or IOE
121
What would be the reasons to classify the appointment as a "comprehensive dental diagnosis"
1. Pt who wants total dental care who has not previously been seen
2. Pt of record who has not been seen for 3-5 years
3. Pt of record who has had major change in medical/ dental history
122
The part of the comprehensive dental diagnosis that starts the minute you see the patient:
Physical exam and assessment
123
In a comprehensive dental diagnosis when you are asking the patient about systemic diseases, surgeries, current medications, and allergies:
Detailed medical history
124
When taking a detailed medical history, it is important to ask about what types of medications:
Both Rx and OTC
125
When you are taking a detailed medical history during a comprehensive dental diagnosis, this is when you establish:
ASA class
126
After getting the detailed medical hx in a comprehensive dental diagnosis, it is now time for:
intra/extraoral evaluation & perioral conditions
127
Following the intra/extra oral evaluation and noting perioral conditions, what is the next step of a comprehensive dental diagnosis?
Dental radiographs
128
What dental radiographs are obtained during a comprehensive dental diagnosis?
FMXR vs Pano & BWX
129
Following taking radiographs in a comprehensive dental diagnosis, the next step is:
Making diagnostic casts
130
The data obtained in a comprehensive dental diagnosis is of value because:
it serves as the patients initial status which serves in comparison later in assessing treatment effectiveness
131
Comprehensive dental diagnosis require ____ but it reliably provides a ____ for comprehensive dental are
considerable time; sound diagnostic foundation for comprehensive dental care
132
A comprehensive dental diagnosis can _____ by documentation of the patients initial status if treatment complications occur and lead to accusations of sub-standard care
protect the clinician
133
Periodic diagnosis may also be referred to as:
Recall diagnosis
134
This type of appointment is appropriate for a patient who requests total dental car when the results of a prior comprehensive dental diagnosis are available :
Periodic diagnosis
135
What is the assumption regarding the prior comprehensive exam when seeing a patient for a periodic diagnosis?
assumption is that a portion of past information is still accurate but other aspects of the patient medical/dental history may have changed
136
A periodic (recall) diagnosis, usually is in a ____ interval
6-month
137
What is the goal of a periodic diagnosis:
Goal is to identify conditions that have changed an supplement the prior database so that it reflects the patients current status
138
A periodic diagnosis can be as simple as ____ or as complex as ____.
simple as asking patient if there has been any changes since the last appointment or as complex as repeating most of the comprehensive dental diagnosis
139
What is ALWAYS a good practice regardless of the time interval in between seeing the patient?
asking if there has been any changes since the last appointment
140
In a period diagnosis examination, if a different clinician conducted the original diagnosis, the current dentist must:
must confirm the accuracy of prior data and record current findings prior to diagnostic decisions
141
If someone comes in with a specific problem, this exam would be titled:
Diagnosis of a specific problem (OR Limited exam)
142
The diagnosis of a specific problem (limited exam) is ____ focused
problem
143
For a recently evaluated patient, a diagnosis of a specific problem / limited exam serves as a :
second opinion
144
The ____ is an effective approach to such situations if the available diagnostic database is current and accurate (during diagnosis of a specific problem/ limited exam)
SOAP evaluation
145
____ form is in axium
SOAP
146
What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as:
The reason for the evaluation:
CC: (chief complaint)
147
What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as:
Information or symptoms of the condition as supplied by the patient. Patient's chief concern or complain. IT IS RECORDED IN THE PATIENT'S OWN WORDS.
S: subjective
148
What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as:
Physical findings of the clinician. Includes visual findings, periodontal assessment, clinical tests (percussion, palpation, vitality tests)
O: Objective
149
What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as:
Clinical impression of the condition by the clinician. THIS IS THE DIAGNOSIS
A: Analysis
150
What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as:
Recommended management of the problem. May be specific treatment, referral, or dismissal of the condition as clinically insignificant.
P: Plan
151
What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as:
"toothache on the upper right for the last 2 weeks and is getting worse". Pt reports pain to cold and hot, duration 5-10 minutes, loss of sleep and requires Motrin 3-4 times x day.
S: subjective
152
What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as:
Grossly decayed #3, (+) response to percussion and palpation, (-) swelling, mobility.
O: Objective
153
What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as:
Caries, necrotic pulp, - tooth is restorable
A: Analysis
154
What category of a SOAP note is this information classified as:
Discussed treatment options including RCT and crown vs. extraction. Risks/benefits of each procedure was explained. Pt prefers RCT and understands that the tooth may need crown lengthening procedure.
P: Plan
155
A SOAP note would be used in what type of examination?
Diagnosis of a specific problem/ Limited Exam
156
Type of appointment that is designed to manage a chief complain such as pain, bleeding or acute infection that requires immediate attention:
Emergency diagnosis
157
In an emergency diagnosis, the ___ is scarified in the interest of providing attention to the ____.
Comprehensive diagnostic evaluation; Urgent problem
158
In an emergency diagnosis appointment, the physical examination is limited to:
The chief complaint
159
In an emergency diagnosis, the patients CC can be demanding and interfere with:
obtaining an adequate patient history
160
Type of appointment in which specific questions about the patient are answered:
screening diagnosis
161
In this type of appointment, the evaluation is limited to obtaining the information needed to answer question without accepting comprehensive diagnosis or treatment responsibility for the patient:
Screening diagnosis
162
Institutions often rely of a screening diagnosis to determine:
Patients general dental treatment needs
163
____ is the most common symptoms arising in the mouth, neck and face area
pain
164
Most common reason for emergency appointments
pain
165
Pain is ____ an unlike an ulcer, there may be nothing to assess ____.
subjective; visually
166
In order to diagnose pain, you need to be _____ and have ____
a good listener; have good flow up questions
167
What questions would you as a provider ask a patient regarding their pain? (7)
1. How would you describe the pain?
2. When did you first notice the pain?
3. Is the pain continuous or does it go away?
4. Does it wake you up at night?
5. Has it gotten better? Worse? or stayed the same?
6. Have you taken anything for the pain?
7. Anything make it worse? Anything make it better?
168
Descriptive words for pain:
Dull/throbbing, sharp/stabbing, burning
169
Pain arising from pathology is usually:
unilateral
170
Other symptoms related to pain that may indicate an infective origin: (7)
1. swelling
2. discharge
3. bad taste
4. bad breath
5. elevated temp
6. malaise
7. cervical lymphadenopathy
171
Dental biocompatibility works both ways meaning:
The material may affect the environment and/ or the environment may affect the material
172
The material must be of benefit to the patient and above all, the patient must be:
safe from any adverse reactions
173
The biological reaction can take place either:
1. at the local level
2. far removed from the contact site
174
What is an example of a biological reaction taking place at a local level:
injection site rxn
175
What is an exam of a biological reaction that occurs far removed from the site of contact:
systemic rxn
176
Adverse reaction from acrylic monomer in a denture:
denture stomatitis
177
Systemic reactions due to a biocompatibility reaction may not always be:
readily apparent
178
systemic reactions that may not be readily apparent include:
dermatological, immune-mediated, or neural reactions
179
Most common rx to dental staff is:
hand/facial dermatitis or respiratory symptoms
180
Possible interactions between dental restorative material and the biological environment include:
1. post op sensitivity
2. toxicity
3. corrosion
4. hypersensitivity /allergy
181
Nanomaterial (size of 100nm) growing concern about their biosecurity & crossing the blood-brain barrier and going to the central nervous system:
Toxicity interaction
182
Amalgam or its components may cause a _____ reaction (usually 24-48 hrs after exposure) on the oral mucosa. This is what type of interaction?
Type IV; Hypersensitivity/Allergic reaction
183
In a study regarding contact allergies to dental materials, 86 subjects (83.7% women with an average of 63 years old (24-86 range). The most common allergies were to ____ of which _____ and ____ were the most common.
metals; nickel & cobalt
184
In a study regarding contact allergies to dental materials, 86 subjects (83.7% women with an average of 63 years old (24-86 range). Denture resins showed ___, ____ and _____ of the mouth.
mucosal changes, contact stomatitis, & burning sensations
185
Some patients can develop allergic or hypersensitive reactions to even very small quantities of metal such as:
1. mercury
2. nickel
3. cobalt
186
Direct contact of the oral mucosa with mercury can cause:
oral lichenoid lesion (OLL)
187
chronic inflammatory lesion of the oral mucosa:
oral lichenoid lesion (OLL)
188
When determining the biocompatibility of a pt with nickel, ask a patient:
if they can wear costume jewelry
189
Diagnose this image:
oral lichen planus
190
Diagnose this image:
amalgam tattoo
191
____ of the oral cavity is rare, but highly aggressive neoplasms and need to know more to frequent diagnose:
mucosal melanoma
192
____ is one of the most common causes of allergic contact dermatitis and produces more allergic reactions than all other metals combined
nickel
193
Several branches of orthodontic wires are made of:
nickel titanium alloy
194
Non-precious metal crowns contains high levels of ___. Some as high as ____.
nickel; 55%
195
Nickel is one of the most common causes of:
allergic contact dermatitis
196
Some people with pollen allergies have allergic symptoms around and in the mouth and throat after eating raw fresh fruits, veggies, nuts or seeds which contain preteens cross-reaction to the pollens
oral allergy syndrome
197
diagnose this image:
oral hypersensitivity reaction
198
Dental practitioners are ____ for the material to which a patient will be exposed
ultimately responsible
199
Sargenti Pasted for root canals:
paraformaldehyde
200
Dentist must have the knowledge and understanding of the ____ of the materials to be used and how these might affect the patient.
composition
201
Materials that cause destruction of connective tissue, bone, nerves, chronic infection and pain would be material that are causing a ____ damage. What is one material that might do this:
irreversible; paraformaldehyde-containing endodontic filling materials
202
a concern for paraformadehyde-containing endodontic filling materials is that they can travel through the:
1. body-blood
2. lymph nodes
3. adrenal glands
4. kidney
5. brain
203
Leaders in science-based biological dentistry:
IAOMT (international academy of oral medicine & toxicology)
204
If you wish to remove mercury amalgams, fillings or metal-based crowns, it is recommended to used an IAOMT dentist certified in the:
SMART (Safe Mercury Amalgam Technique)
205
HAD- improving overall health through dentistry:
Holistic Dental Association
206
Some materials have a distinctly ____ effect on the pulp
positive
207
A material that has has a positive effect on the dental pulp by stimulating tertiary dentin formation
calcium hydroxide
208
Since a restoration may have an adverse affect on the pulp, a range of materials termed ____ have been developed to be applied to the dentin prior to the placement of the final restoration
intermediate restorative materials (IRMs)
209
When and where are IRMS placed?
prior to the placement of the final restoration and applied to the dentin
210
Cavity varnishes, bases and liners are all examples of:
intermediate restorative materials
211
Intermediate restorative materials are intended to remain ___ and should not be confused with ____
permanently; temporary restorative materials
212
The role of IRMs may be: (3)
1. protective
2. palliative
3. therapeutic
213
The goal of this material is to protect the pulmonary from chemical, electrical, and thermal reactions.
IRMs
214
What is an example of electrical reaction that IRMs protect against?
Galvanic shock- dissimilar metals
215
IRMs protect the pulp from: (3)
1. electrical
2. chemical
3. thermal
216
Give an example of a specific IRM and the qualities it possesses:
Zinc Oxide Eugenol (ZOE)- sedative like qualities on hypersensitive pulp and is a good thermal insulator as well
217
Intermediate Restorative material:
1. Acts as a _____
2. Excellent _____ resistance
3. Good ____ properties
4. Low ____
5. May be used under cements and restorative materials that DO NOT contain resin components such as ___, ____, or ____.
1. thermal insulator
2. abrasion
3. sealing
4. solubility
5. amalgams, inlays, onlays
218
What can intermediate restorative materials not be placed under?
amalgams, inlays, and onlays
219
This material should not discolor the tooth or restoration:
Intermediate restorative materials (IRMs)
220
IRMs should ___ quick enough to allow subsequent insertion of the ____
harden; restoration
221
IRMs should withstand the :
condensation of the over laying restoration
222
IRMs should be ____- what works for you
easily manipulated
223
Liners and bases are materials placed _____ (and sometimes pulp and the restoration to provide pulpal ____ or pulpal ____.
Between dentin; protection; response
224
Protective needs for a restoration vary depending on:
the extend and location of the prep and the restorative material to be used
225
Because they share similar objectives/ properties, liners and bases are not:
fully distinguishable in all cases
226
Liners and bases are examples of:
intermediate restorative materials
227
_____ = thick mix of material which is placed in bulk
____ = only applied as a thin coating over exposed dentin
bases
liners
228
Used to block out undercuts
bases
229
Less than 0.5 mm thick and is able to promote the health of the pulp by adhesion or antibacterial action
Liners
230
The primary role of liners:
to protect the pulp
231
Liners form a strong bond to ____, preventing ___ down dentinal tubules.
dentin; fluid movement
232
Liners provide a _____
bacterial barrier
233
Liners work by _____ release
sustained fluoride
234
An example of a liner would be:
Vitrebond
235
Light cure resin-modified glass ionomer considered a liner/base that can be used under composite, amalgam, metal , and ceramic restorations. NOT indicated for direct pulp capping.
Vitrebond
236
Is Vitrebond indicated for direct pulp capping?
NO
237
A highly alkaline liner with a pH of 11-12.5
Calcium hydroxide
238
Calcium hydroxide has high ____ activity that retains its properties for nearly 2 months
bactericidal
239
Calcium hydroxide is useful in formation of: (a property of most liners)
tertiary dentin
240
Can calcium hydroxide be used for direct or indirect pulp capping?
yes both
241
Give an example of a calcium hydroxide liner:
Dycal
242
Describe how one might cure dycal:
Dycal can be self curing or light cured
243
A natural gum, rosin, or synthetic resin dissolved in organic solvent:
varnish
244
Give an example of a natural gum that may be dissolved in organic solvent to form a resin:
Copal
245
Varnishes have some ___ and ___ properties
antimicrobial and antiviral
246
Varnishes easily seep into ___ and prevent ___ to the dentin and pulp.
dentinal tubules; transfer of heat and cold
247
We use ____ instead of ____ at the SOD.
vitrebond ; varnishes
248
NOT to be used under composite restorations (interferes with the setting reaction)
Varnishes
249
Why should varnishes not be used under composite restorations?
Interferes with the setting reaction
250
Varnishes are not to be used under _____ because it interferes with _____.
Varnishes are not to be used under ____ because it interferes with ____.
composite restorations; setting reaction
glass ionomers; fluoride release
251
Used as an insulating layer under gold and amalgam restorations:
Copalite
252
Place nothing, Vitrebond, or varnish:
shallow tooth prep
253
Liners may be placed for thermal protection and pulpal medication along with varnish
Moderate depth prep
254
Liner may be calcium hydroxide, then the base vitrebond or IRM
Very deep prep
255
In a shallow tooth prep, what should be placed?
Nothing, vitrebond, or varnish
256
In a moderate depth prep, what should be placed?
Liners may be placed for thermal protection an pulps medication along with varnish
257
In a very deep prep, what should be placed?
Liner may be calcium hydroxide, then the base vitrebond or IRM
