Exam I Flashcards

1
Q

What is thermodynamics?

A

Energy change and heat transfer

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2
Q

What is free energy?

A

Measure of how a reaction will proceed via enthalpy and entropy (delta G)

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3
Q

What is Enthalpy?

A

Heat content (delta H)

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4
Q

What is entropy?

A

Randomness of disorder (stats, delta S)

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5
Q

1st law of thermodynamics states that ….

A

Energy isn’t created or destroyed, potential —> kinetic

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6
Q

2nd law of thermodynamics states…

A

Entropy always increases, spontaneous not instantaneous

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7
Q

Exergonic free energy is …

A

(-) delta G gives off energy, spontaneous, enthalpy, heat content, decreases or entropy, disorder, increases or both

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8
Q

Endergonic free energy is …

A

(+) delta G absorbs energy, non-spontaneous, energy required, enthalpy increases or entropy decreases

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9
Q

Delta G balances out with equal…

A

Exergonic and endergonic free energy

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10
Q

Standard free energy is…

A

Delta G constant value with reactants and products = 1mol/L

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11
Q

K=eq is…

A

Product/reactant

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12
Q

Activation energy is…

A

Energy required to initiate chemical reaction

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13
Q

Larger activation energy proceeds more _____.

A

Slowly

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14
Q

Does larger activation energy increase/decrease with heat/catalyst?

A

Increases with heat

Decreases with catalyst

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15
Q

Enzymes are…

A

Protein catalysts that Increase rate of reaction, -ase suffix

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16
Q

There are how many classes of enzymes?

A

6

Oxidoreductase, Transferase, Hydrolase, Lyase, Isomerase, Ligase

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17
Q

Oxidoreductase is a catalyst for what?

A

Oxidation, reduction

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18
Q

Transferase is a catalyst for what?

A

Transfer of C-, N-, P-

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19
Q

Hydrolase is a catalyst for what?

A

Cleavage of bonds by adding H2O

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20
Q

Lyase is a catalyst for what?

A

Cleavage of C-C, C-S, and some C-N bonds, cuts or decarbonates

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21
Q

Isomerase is a catalyst for what?

A

Racemitation of optical or geometric isomers, rearranges

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22
Q

Ligase is a catalyst for what?

A

Formation of bonds between C and O, S, N coupled to hydrolysis of high energy phosphates, glues together

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23
Q

Allosteric enzymes are regulated by what?

A

Molecules called effectors (modifiers) that bind non-covalently at a site other than the active site

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24
Q

Allosteric enzymes are usually composed of ______ subunits.

A

Multiple

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25
Q

The regulatory site that binds the allosteric enzyme may be located on a subunit that is not itself _______.

A

Catalytic

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26
Q

The presence of an allosteric effector _____ alter the affinity of enzyme for its substrate and/or _____ modify the max catalytic activity.

A

Can do either or both

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27
Q

Effectors that inhibit enzyme activity are termed _____ effectors, whereas those that decrease enzyme activity are called _____ effectors.

A

Negative, positive

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28
Q

Allosteric enzymes frequently catalyze the commuted step ____ in a pathway.

A

Early

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29
Q

Which effectors have substrates serving as their own effector?

A

Homotrophic

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30
Q

Which effectors may be different from their substrate?

A

Heterotrophic

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31
Q

The active site contains ____ side chains that participate in substrate binding and catalysis.

A

Amino acids

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32
Q

What is thought to cause conformational change in the enzyme that allows catalysis?

A

Enzyme-substrate

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33
Q

Enzyme-substrate is converted to ____ that subsequently dissociates to ____ and ____.

A

Enzyme-product, enzyme and product

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34
Q

Energy of activation is…

A

Energy difference between reactants and a high-energy intermediate that occurs during product formation.

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35
Q

High free energy of activation leads to ____ rates of uncatalyzed reactions.

A

Slow

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36
Q

Factors affecting reaction velocity include:

A

Substrate concentration, temperature, and pH

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37
Q

Max velocity and hyperbolic shape of enzyme kinetics curve dictate the ____.

A

Substrate concentration

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38
Q

____ enzymes do not follow Michaelis-Menten kinetics and show a sigmoid curve.

A

Allosteric

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39
Q

The reaction velocity increases with temperature until a ____ velocity is reached.

A

Peak

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40
Q

Too much heat may cause a temperature-induced ___ of the enzyme.

A

Denaturation

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41
Q

Reaction velocity is affected by pH’s effect on ____, ____, and ____.

A

The ionization of the active site, enzyme denaturation, enzyme specific optimum pH level

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42
Q

The structure of the catalytically active protein molecule depends on the ____ of the amino acid side chains.

A

Ionic character

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43
Q

Catalytic activity may require that a(n) ____ of the enzyme be in the probated form.

A

Amino group

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44
Q

Line Weaver-Burk Plot

A

Calculates Km (Michaelis constant) and maximum velocity, as well as to determine the mechanism of action of enzyme inhibitors.

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45
Q

Enzyme inhibition consists of ____ and ____ inhibition.

A

Competitive and noncompetitive

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46
Q

Competitive inhibition occurs when the inhibitor binds to the ____ site that the substrate would normally occupy.

A

Active

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47
Q

Competitive inhibition effects ____, ____, ____, and ____.

A

Maximum velocity, Michaelis constant, Lineweaver-Burk Plot, and cholesterol levels (synthetically)

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48
Q

Maximum velocity effect reversed by ____ substrate levels.

A

Higher

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49
Q

In the ____ of a competitive inhibitor, more substrate is needed to achieve 1/2 maximum velocity.

A

Presence

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50
Q

Michaelis constant is ____ in the presence of the competitive inhibitor.

A

Increased

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51
Q

____ is the most common type of noncompetitive inhibition.

A

Allosteric inhibition

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52
Q

An increased concentration of substrate cannot overcome noncompetitive inhibition leads to a decreased ____.

A

Maximum velocity

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53
Q

Michaelis constant ____ in the presence of a noncompetitive inhibitor and ____ in the absence of a noncompetitive inhibitor.

A

Stays the same, Stays the same

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54
Q

In regards to the Lineweaver-Burk plot when looking at a noncompetitive inhibitor has an apparent maximum velocity ____, with the Michaelis constant ____.

A

Decreases, unchanged

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55
Q

Some noncompetitive inhibitors act by forming ____ with specific groups of enzymes.

A

Covalent bonds

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56
Q

Ionic or hydrogen bonding, or even covalent bond bound ions and cations are ____.

A

Cofactors

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57
Q

Subset of cofactors that are organic molecules with dietary vitamins being very common molecules are called ____.

A

Coenzymes

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58
Q

____ is an energy carrier with a high activation energy.

A

ATP

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59
Q

Many coupled reactions use ATP to generate a common ____.

A

Intermediate

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60
Q

Large (-) free energy (delta G) has a ____ energy phosphate compound.

A

High

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61
Q

Keq = 1 and free energy (delta G) = 0 relationship is ____.

A

At equilibrium

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62
Q

Keq > 1 and free energy (delta G) < 0 relationship is ____.

A

Favors products

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63
Q

Keq < 1 and free energy (delta G) > 0 relationship is ____.

A

Favors reactants

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64
Q

Coupled reactions are often ___ with 1st reaction without 2nd reaction coupled with the 1st reaction.

A

Not favorable

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65
Q

The double coupled reactions usually have ____ and ____.

A

Slower step, faster step

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66
Q

2-multi step coupled reactions often have ____.

A

Intermediates

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67
Q

For coupled reactions, when there is more than ____ step, overall process is calculated by adding the energy from all steps.

A

One

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68
Q

____ has the ability to donate protons to an acceptor.

A

Acid

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69
Q

Strong acids dissociate ____ to their respective ions

A

Completely

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70
Q

Diprotic acids have ____ protons to donate.

Sulfuric acid

A

2

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71
Q

With diprotic sulfuric acid, step ____ is nonreversible and step ____ is reversible.

A

1, 2

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72
Q

Triprotic acids have ____ acids to donate.

Phosphoric acid

A

3

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73
Q

Weak acids ____ dissociate completely into hydrogen acids and conjugate bases.

A

Don’t

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74
Q

Strong ____ dissociate completely to their ions.

A

Bases

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75
Q

Weak ____ do not dissociate completely.

A

Bases

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76
Q

Ka, dissociation constant, measures…

A

How much of the acid will dissolve into its hydrogen ions and conjugate base ions

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77
Q

For Ka, (H20) concentration is ____ because molarity (concentration) of H20 is very high compared to other species.

A

Held constant

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78
Q

PKa= ____

A

A/B Amino Acid

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79
Q

Lower pKa = ____

A

Higher acid

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80
Q

Higher Hydrogen levels = ____ pH

A

Lower

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81
Q

____ Resists pH change following the addition of an acid or a base.

A

Buffers

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82
Q

Mixing weak acid with conjugate base yields ____.

A

Buffer

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83
Q

Max buffering capacity occurs when pH ____ pKa.

A

Equals

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84
Q

Conjugate acid/base pair can still serve as an effective buffer when pH is within ____ pH of the pKa.

A

Give or take 1

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85
Q

If weak acid and conjugate base are equal, pH ____ pKa.

A

Equal

86
Q

When pH ____ pKa, pronated acid form is predominant species.

A

Lesser than

87
Q

When pH ____ pKa, depronated base form is predominant species.

A

Greater than

88
Q

____ pH at which net charge is 0.

A

Isoelectric point

89
Q

Amino acid titration begins with ____ followed by amino acid dissociation.

A

Carboxyl group

90
Q

Henderson-Hasselbalch Equation is…

A

Examination of pH with addition of acids/bases

91
Q

Protein structure which determines sequence of amino acids linked by peptide bonds.

A

Primary structure

92
Q

Proteins named from free ____ terminus to free ____ terminus

A

N, C

93
Q

What enzyme hydrolyzes peptide bonds?

A

Peptidases

94
Q

Protein structure with alpha-helix spiral and/or beta-sheet.

A

Secondary structure

95
Q

Protein structure stabilized by H bonds between carbonyl oxygen and amide hydrogen.

A

Secondary Structure

96
Q

Protein structure with H bonding, 2+ peptide chains or single folded chain.

A

Secondary structure

97
Q

Protein structure forms 3D structure stabilized by S-S bonds, hydrophobic interactions, H bonding, and ionic interactions (cofactors).

A

Tertiary structure

98
Q

What helps and maintains protein folding?

A

Chaperones

99
Q

Denaturation can occur from…

A

Heat, organic solvents, strong acids/bases, detergents, heavy metals.

100
Q

Protein structure with 2+ subunits which are held together by H bonds and hydrophobic interactions. Occasional S-S bond.

A

Quaternary Struture

101
Q

Abnormal proteins created by spontaneous misfolding/mutations.

A

Amyloid disease

102
Q

Parkinson’s, Huntington’s, and Alzheimer’s diseases develop from what protein dysfunction?

A

Amyloid plaque

103
Q

Pathogen mutation of prion protein (mad cow disease)

A

Prion disease

104
Q

Myoglobin is a ____ polypeptide chain of hemoglobin.

A

Single

105
Q

Myoglobin has a(n) ____ secondary structure.

A

A-helix

106
Q

Polypeptide chain terminated by presence of ____ in myoglobin.

A

Proline

107
Q

Oxygen binding of myoglobin binds ____ molecule because of the ____ heme group.

A

Single, single

108
Q

Hemoglobin contains ____ polypeptide chain(s), ____ a-helix, and ____ beta chains held together noncovalently.

A

4, 2, 2

109
Q

T form is ____ with 2 alpha-beta diners which constrain movement. Low oxygen affinity.

A

Tense

110
Q

R form is ____ H and ionic bond rupture leads to more movement. High oxygen affinity.

A

Relaxed

111
Q

Bohr Effect states when ____ is lowered or ____ is elevated, oxygen affinity increases.

A

PH, CO2

112
Q

Michaelis-Menien kinetics graph:

A

Affinity and substrate have inverse relationship while km and substrate have a positive relationship

113
Q

RNA sugar

A

Ribose

114
Q

RNA and DNA

A

RNA- A+U and C+G

DNA- A+T and C+G

115
Q

Fatty acid functional group is…

A

Ester

116
Q

Protein functions include:

A

Enzyme catalysis, defense, transport, motion, storage, and regulation

117
Q

(-) delta G is ____.

A

Favorable, spontaneous

118
Q

(+) delta G is ____.

A

Unfavorable

119
Q

If keq=1 and delta G=0 a system _____.

A

Is in equilibrium

120
Q

When consuming a sandwich, your body cannot process the alpha D-glucose.
True or False

A

False

121
Q

Sucrose is a combination of which monosaccharides?

A

Fructose + Glucose

122
Q

Domains are found on which structure?

A

Tertiary and Quaternary

123
Q

What organic molecule in RBCs decreases oxygen binding affinity?

A

2,3-BPG

124
Q

What class of enzyme is used to break glycosidic bonds or peptide bonds?

A

Hydrolase

125
Q

Statin drugs function as noncompetitive inhibitors.

True or False

A

False

126
Q

What disaccharide is formed with a monosaccharide of glucose and a monosaccharide of galactose?

A

Lactose

127
Q

Endergonic reactions are reactant favored.

True or False

A

True

128
Q

Which amino acid forms disulfide bonds?

A

Cysteine

129
Q

The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation:

A

Relates the pH of a solution to its pKa

130
Q

Which of the following would not cause a right shift in the oxygen-dissociation curve for Hb?

A

Lower concentration of Hydrogen ions

131
Q

Which of the following would cause a left shift in the oxygen-dissociation curve for Hb?

A

Higher pH

132
Q

Hb groups will bind to CO before O.

True or False

A

True

133
Q

Hemoglobin has greater binding ____, but myoglobin has greater binding ____.

A

Capacity, affinity

134
Q

What are factors affecting enzyme kinetics?

A

Substrate concentration, pH, and temperature

135
Q

What applies to non-competitive inhibition?

A

Km is unaffected, maximum velocity is lower

136
Q

According to Michaelis-Menten Kinetics, the rate of the reaction is directly proportional to ____.

A

Enzyme concentration

137
Q

Which of the following classes uses water to remove a phosphoryl group?

A

Phosphatase

138
Q

Enzyme catalysts do not ____.

A

Make endergonic reactions spontaneous

139
Q

The binding of oxygen to one subunit decreases the affinity for oxygen to find to the other 3 subunits.
True or False

A

False

140
Q

Achiral amino acid

A

Glycine

141
Q

A buffer is ____.

A

A solution that resists changes in pH when acids or bases are added to it.

142
Q

Tyrosine is part of which classification group?

A

Uncharged polar

143
Q

The 2 strands of DNA are connected by what type of bond?

A

Hydrogen bond

144
Q

A coupled reaction will not ____.

A

Have the overall delta G being positive

145
Q

Has high ability to form water because of the abundance of hydrogen ____.

A

Strong acid

146
Q

Reaction that is product favored?

A

Exergonic

147
Q

Irreversible or “suicide” inhibitors such as lead form ____ to permanently inhibit an enzyme.

A

Covalent bonds

148
Q

Enzyme responsible for only changing arrangement?

A

Isomerase

149
Q

Proteins are metabolically available in the D form.

True or False

A

False

150
Q

What is the difference between a strong acid and a weak acid?

A

A strong acid will dissociate completely, a weak acid will ionize to only a limited extent.

151
Q

When pH < pKa, molecule is pronated.

True or False

A

True

152
Q

The human body can break down

A

Alpha 1->6

153
Q

When delta G is positive, ____.

A

It is endergonic

154
Q

The active site contains ____ side chains that participate in substrate binding and catalysis.

A

Amino Acids

155
Q

Allosteric regulation changes ____.

A

Activity of enzyme by binding an effector

156
Q

Lowering the pH will cause what to occur on the oxygen affinity plot of Hb?

A

A decrease in O2 affinity and a shift to the right

157
Q

The reaction velocity increases with temperature until a ____ velocity is reached.

A

Peak

158
Q

At what partial pressure is myoglobin more likely to get oxygen than hemoglobin?

A

Lower

159
Q

The 2 monosaccharides that make up a disaccharide are linked together via ____.

A

Dehydration synthesis

160
Q

The human body can process both L-sugars and D-proteins.

True False

A

False

161
Q

A double helix of DNA consists of 2 polynucleotide strands connected by what type of bond?

A

Hydrogen

162
Q

Non-competitive inhibition ____.

A

Decreases maximum velocity

163
Q

Competitive inhibition ____.

A

Can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration

164
Q

According to the Bohr effect, when pH decreases ____.

A

Hemoglobin is in deoxy form

165
Q

A structure that has hydrogen bonds between polypeptide chains arranged side by side are ____/

A

B-pleated sheets

166
Q

Carbohydrates have a ____ ratio of C:H:O

A

1:2:1

167
Q

Which kind of amino acids are in the hydrophobic tail of the phospholipid bilayer?

A

Nonpolar

168
Q

The free energy of hydrolysis of a compound must be at least ____, in order for it to be considered a “high-energy” compound.

A

-7 kcal/mol

169
Q

If a reaction is at equilibrium, the free energy change (delta G) is ____.

A

Equal to 0

170
Q

What is special about glycine? Why?

A

It is achiral because it doesn’t have 4 different bonding sites.

171
Q

3 letter code for Cysteine

A

Cys

172
Q

3 letter code for Histidine

A

His

173
Q

3 letter code for Isoluecine

A

ile

174
Q

3 letter code for Methionine

A

Met

175
Q

3 letter code for Serine

A

Ser

176
Q

3 letter code for Valine

A

Val

177
Q

3 letter code for Alanine

A

Ala

178
Q

3 letter code for Glycine

A

Gly

179
Q

3 letter code for Leucine

A

Leu

180
Q

3 letter code for Proline

A

Pro

181
Q

3 letter code for Threonine

A

Thr

182
Q

3 letter code for Arginine

A

Arg

183
Q

3 letter code for Asparagine

A

Asn

184
Q

3 letter code for Aspartate

A

Asp

185
Q

3 letter code for Glutamate

A

Glu

186
Q

3 letter code for Glutamine

A

Gln

187
Q

3 letter code for Phenylalanine

A

Phe

188
Q

3 letter code for Tyrosine

A

Tyr

189
Q

3 letter code for Tryptophan

A

Trp

190
Q

3 letter code for Lysine

A

Lys

191
Q

Collagen secondary structure.

A

A-helix

192
Q

____ acids serve as good buffers.

A

Weak

193
Q

Subunits on quaternary structures are protein dependent.

True or False

A

True

194
Q

High pH has ____ hydrogen ion concentration compared to low pH.

A

Lower

195
Q

C-C bonds do not contribute to the stability of tertiary structure of protein.
True or False

A

True

196
Q

Raising pH causes a shift to the L of sigmoidal curve on oxygen affinity plot of Hb.
True or False.

A

True

197
Q

Denaturation of proteins won’t happen with strong base.

True or False

A

True

198
Q

Peptide bonds are made of amides.

True or False.

A

True.

199
Q

Glucose + Glucose = ____

A

Maltose

200
Q

Glucose + Fructose = ____

A

Sucrose

201
Q

Glucose + Galactose = ____

A

Lactose

202
Q

Functional Group:

OH-

A

Alcohol

203
Q

Functional Group:

/\
NH2

A

Amine

204
Q

Functional group:

/\
SH

A

Thiol, di-sulfide potential when oxidized for stability

205
Q

Functional group:

o=
A

Ketone

206
Q

Functional group:

           H
    o=<
A

Aldehyde

207
Q

Functional group:

               OH
       o=
A

Carboxylic acid

208
Q

Functional group:

               NH2
        o=
A

Amide

209
Q

Functional group:

             O—    
    -o=
A

Ester

210
Q

Functional group:

    /\o/\
A

Ether