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Clinical Medicine > Exam 6 > Flashcards

Exam 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Order of musculoskeletal exam

A

Inspection, palpation, evaluation of ROM, strength testing, special testing for joints

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2
Q

Which form of ROM should always be assessed first?

A

Active ROM before passive ROM

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3
Q

Normally passive ROM exceeds active ROM by how much?

A

5 degrees

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4
Q

Muscle strength grading scale: 0/5

A

No movement

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5
Q

Muscle strength grading scale: 1/5

A

Trace movement (palpable muscle contraction)

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6
Q

Muscle strength grading scale: 2/5

A

Full motion, but not against gravity

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7
Q

Muscle strength grading scale: 3/5

A

Full motion against gravity but not resistance

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8
Q

Muscle strength grading scale: 4/5

A

Full motion against gravity & some resistance, but weak

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9
Q

Muscle strength grading scale: 5/5

A

Full motion against gravity & resistance, normal

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10
Q

Painless weakness suggests

A

neurological problem

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11
Q

Weakness with pain suggests

A

weakness is muscular in origin

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12
Q

Normal knee flexion in degrees

A

130 degrees

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13
Q

Normal knee extension in degrees

A

full extension and up to 15 degree hyperextension

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14
Q

Normal knee internal rotation

A

20-30 degrees

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15
Q

Normal knee external rotation

A

30-40 degrees

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16
Q

Ballottement test

A

Assesses for large effusion or excess fluid in knee

Push patella against femur - should be no fluid-type movement

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17
Q

Bulge sign

A

Assesses for minor effusions of knee
Tap lateral side of patella
Should be no fluid-type movement
Positive bulge sign = fluid bulge returning to hollow area medial to patella

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18
Q

McMurray Test

A

Evaluates for torn meniscus in knee on posterior side
Popping/clicking or pain in joint may indicate tear
External rotation tests medial meniscus, Internal rotation tests lateral meniscus (whichever direction bottom of foot is facing)

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19
Q

Anterior drawer test

A

Evaluate anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
Pull upper calf forward
Positive test when tibia slides forward (suggest tear in ACL)

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20
Q

Posterior drawer test

A

Evaluate for posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear
Sit on top of foot to stabilize, push upper calf backward
Positive test if abnormal posterior movement of tibia

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21
Q

Lachman test

A

Evaluates ACL
Hip extended, knee flexed 20 degrees
Pull forward on tibia, & back on femur to stress ligament
Positive test is abnormal when there is significant forward movement of tibia

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22
Q

Pivot Shift test

A

Evaluates ACL
Reproduce “giving away” symptom, involves internally rotating ankle & foot
Positive test if tibia does almost nothing from 0-30 degrees, but at 40-50 degrees suddenly knee subluxes posteriorly & feels like knee is giving away

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23
Q

Varus stress test

A

Abduction, bow legged
Evaluates instability of lateral collateral ligament
Apply force against ankle toward midline & internal rotation
Positive if pain or excessive laxity

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24
Q

Valgus stress test

A

Adduction, knock kneed
Evaluates medial collateral ligament
Apply force against ankle away from midline & external rotation
Positive if pain or excessive laxity

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25
Q

Apley compression & distraction tests

A

If pt complains of knee locking
Compression tests for torn medial or lateral meniscus
Distraction tests for ligamentous injury
Positive test if pain, locking, or clicking

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26
Q

Normal dorsiflexion in degrees

A

Greater than 10 degrees

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27
Q

Normal plantarflexion in degrees

A

45 degrees

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28
Q

Normal Inversion (plantar aspects face each other) in degrees

A

20 degrees

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29
Q

Normal eversion in degrees

A

10 degrees

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30
Q

Abduction of foot in degrees

A

10 degrees

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31
Q

Normal adduction of foot in degrees

A

20 degrees

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32
Q

Abduction

A

movement of limbs toward lateral plane or away from axial line of a limb

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33
Q

Adduction

A

movement of limbs toward medial plane of body or toward axial line of limb

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34
Q

Bursitis

A

inflammation of the bursa due to repetitive movement or pressure

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35
Q

Claw toe

A

hyperextension of the metatarsophalangeal joint with flexion of toe’s proximal and distal joints

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36
Q

Clubfoot

A

fixed congenital defect of ankle and foot

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37
Q

Dislocation

A

complete separation of contact between 2 bones in a joint

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38
Q

Eversion

A

outward turning, movement of the sole of foot outward at ankle

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39
Q

Hallux valgus

A

lateral deviation of great toe with overlapping of second toe

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40
Q

Inversion

A

inward turning, movement of sole of foot inward at ankle

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41
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

A

avascular necrosis of femoral head

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42
Q

Mallet toe

A

flexion deformity of distal interphalangeal joint of foot

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43
Q

Metatarsus adductus

A

most common deformity of foot, marked by the middle bones of the foot pointing in toward the body

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44
Q

Osgood-Schlatter disease

A

common overuse injury of adolescents, which causes painful swelling of the knee due to apophyseal traction of the anterior aspect of the tibial tubercle

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45
Q

Pes cavus

A

high arch on sole of foot

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46
Q

Pes planus

A

Flat foot, collapsed arch of foot

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47
Q

Abnormal results from palpation of lymph nodes

A

Palpable, shotty (multiple, small, BB like nodes), or tender nodes, or fixed nodes

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48
Q

Occipital lymph node

A

at base of skull

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49
Q

Posterior auricular lymph node

A

over mastoid process

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50
Q

Preauricular lymph node

A

in front of ear

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51
Q

Tonsillar lymph node

A

at angle of mandible

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52
Q

Submandibular lymph node

A

halfway between angle of mandible and the chin, inferior boarder of jaw line

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53
Q

Submental lymph node

A

midline behind tip of mandible (chin)

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54
Q

Anterior cervical lymph node

A

In front of the sternocleidomastoid

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55
Q

Posterior cervical lymph node

A

2 chains of posterior superficial cervical & posterior cervical spinal nerve chain located on anterior boarder of trapezius & deep to SCM

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56
Q

Supraclavicular lymph node

A

at angle formed by clavicle & SCM (also called Virchow nodes)

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57
Q

Axillary lymph node

A

Pectoral muscles anteriorly, back muscles, posteriorly, rib cage medially, upper arm laterally, & axilla at apex

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58
Q

Epitrochlear lymph node

A

proximal & posterior to medial condyle of humerus

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59
Q

Superior superficial inguinal (femoral) lymph node

A

Just over inguinal canal

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60
Q

Inferior superficial inguinal lymph node

A

Deeper in groin compared to superior superficial inguinal

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61
Q

Popliteal lymph node

A

in posterior fossa behind knee

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62
Q

Hard & discrete lymph node; rapid enlargement & no signs of inflammation - think:

A

malignancy

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63
Q

Slow enlargement of lymph node over weeks or months - think:

A

benign

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64
Q

Tender lymph node - think:

A

inflammatory

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65
Q

Pulsatile lymph node - think:

A

artery, nodes do not pulsate

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66
Q

Enlarge left sided supraclavicular node - think:

A

thoracic or abdominal malignancy

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67
Q

Pitting edema +1

A

Slight, no visible distortion, disappears rapidly

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68
Q

Pitting edema +2

A

Little deeper pit, no real detectible distortion, disappears in 10 to 15 seconds

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69
Q

Pitting edema +3

A

Noticeable deep pit, lasts more than a minute, noticeable dependent swelling or fullness

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70
Q

Pitting edema +4

A

Very deep pit, lasts 2 to 5 minutes, dependent gross distortion

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71
Q

Aneurysm

A

balloon like swelling of wall of artery, vein, or heart; generally result of congenital defect in wall or degenerative disease or infection; dissecting aneurysm is longitudinal splitting of arterial wall from hemorrhage

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72
Q

Ascites

A

abnormal intraperitoneal accumulation of serous fluid

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73
Q

Atherosclerosis

A

most common form of arteriosclerosis, deposits in walls of arteries

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74
Q

Brudzinski sign

A

flexion of hips when neck is flexed from supine position. occurs in patients with meningeal inflammation

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75
Q

Bruit

A

unexplained audible swishing sound or murmur over an artery or vascular organ

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76
Q

Cellulitis

A

inflammation of soft or connective tissue that causes a watery exudate to spread through the tissue spaces

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77
Q

Claudication

A

condition resulting from muscle ischemia due to decreased arterial blood flow to an area, characterized by intermittent pain and limping

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78
Q

Edema

A

Excessive accumulation of fluid in the cells, tissues, or serous cavities of the body

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79
Q

Fluctuant

A

wavelike motion felt when palpating a node

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80
Q

Kernig’s sign

A

sign of meningeal irritation evidenced by reflex contraction and pain in the hamstring muscles, when attempting to extend the leg after flexing the hip

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81
Q

Lymphadenopathy

A

enlargement of the lymph nodes, typically to greater than 1.5 cm. Increased size caused by activation & proliferation of lymphocytes & phagocytic WBC within node or by invasion of node by tumor

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82
Q

Lymphangitis

A

Inflammation of lymphatics that drain an area of infection which is often associated with tender erythematous streaks extending proximally from infected area

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83
Q

Lymphedema

A

swelling, particularly of subcutaneous tissues, caused by obstruction of lymphatic system & accumulation of interstitial fluid

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84
Q

Matted

A

used to describe a group of nodes that feel connected and appear to move as a single unit

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85
Q

Meningitis

A

inflammation of the membranes of the spinal cord or brain, usually but not always caused by an infectious illness

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86
Q

Nuchal rigidity

A

resistance to flexion of the neck, seen in individuals with meningitis

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87
Q

Pitting

A

form of edema which appears as an indentation or depression that will not rapidly return to its original appearance

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88
Q

Shotty nodes

A

small nontender nodes that feel like BBs under the skin

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89
Q

Thrombophlebitis

A

inflammation of the wall of a vein associated with thrombus formation

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90
Q

Thrombosis

A

formation or presence of blood clot within a blood vessel or within one of the cavities of the heart

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91
Q

Varicose vein

A

enlarged, dilated superficial vein

Most common in lower extremities & esophagus

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92
Q

Allen’s Test

A

Assess arterial supply to hand, test patency of ulnar artery prior to a radial artery puncture or insertion of radial artery catheter
Normal reperfusion within 3-5 sec
Abnormal if reperfusion doesn’t occur within 3-5 sec

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93
Q

Jugular venous a wave

A

rebound from right atrial systole

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94
Q

Jugular venous c wave

A

expansion of underlying carotid artery

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95
Q

Jugular venous v wave

A

filling of right atrium from systemic veins while tricuspid valve closes

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96
Q

Prominent a wae from

A

increased resistance to right atrial contraction (tricusipd stenosis)

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97
Q

Absent a waves

A

atrial fibrillation

98
Q

Large v waves

A

tricuspid regurgitation & constrictive pericarditis

99
Q

Homan’s test

A

Assess venous thrombosis
Normal = no pain when dorsiflex foot
Positive sign = calf pain, may indicate venous thrombosis (not always indicative)

100
Q

Trendelenburg test

A

Venous incompetence & used to locate incompetent valves in saphenous & communicating veins
Normal = slow refill
Abnormal - incompetent valve is present in communicating veins when sudden refilling is noted before removal of pressure
Incompetent valve is in saphenous vein when sudden additional refilling takes place after removal of pressure

101
Q

Bruit

A

harsh ausculatory sound, abnormal

102
Q

Claudication

A

pain resulting from muscle ischemia presenting with a dull ache, muscle fatigue, & cramps

103
Q

Embolism

A

obstruction of vessel by embolus

104
Q

Hum

A

nonpathologic venous phenomenon commonly found in children

105
Q

Orthopnea

A

discomfort in breathing that is brought on or aggravated by lying flat

106
Q

Peripheral arterial disease

A

stenosis of blood supply to extremities by atherosclerotic plaques

107
Q

Phlebitis

A

inflammation of vein

108
Q

Preeclampsia

A

specific pregnancy syndrome associated with hypertension occurring after the 20th week of pregnancy and presence of proteinuria

109
Q

Raynaud phenomenon

A

vascular disorder resulting in exaggerated spasms of arterioles in response to cold

110
Q

Regurgitation

A

backflow of blood due to incompetent valves

111
Q

Syncope

A

loss of consciousness and postural tone caused by diminished cerebral blood flow

112
Q

Temporal arteritis

A

inflammatory disease of aortic arch

113
Q

venous thrombosis

A

blood clot that forms within a vein

114
Q

Normal shoulder flexion

A

180 degrees

115
Q

Normal shoulder extension

A

50 degrees

116
Q

Normal shoulder adduction

A

50 degrees

117
Q

Normal shoulder abduction

A

180 degrees

118
Q

Normal shoulder internal rotation

A

90 degrees

Hand behind back

119
Q

Normal shoulder external rotation

A

90 degrees

Place hand on back of head with elbow out

120
Q

Subscapular Muscle Strength

A

Subscapularis lift off test or Gerber’s test

Internally rotate hand behind back & push away from spine

121
Q

Supraspinatus Muscle Strength

A

Empty Can or Jobe’s test

Clinician lifts pts arms 90 degrees in plane of scapula, arms internally rotated with thumb pointed down

122
Q

Arm Drop Test

A

Evaluate large rotator cuff tear
Pt lifts arm 90 degrees, then slowly lowers arm to side
If have tear, arm will drop suddenly

123
Q

Neer’s Test

A

Evaluate for shoulder rotator cuff impingement or tear
Clinician presses on scapula & raise pts arm in forward flexion while depressing scapula
Neer’s impingement sign if pt has pain

124
Q

Yergason’s Test

A

Rotator cuff tear, inflammation of long head of biceps
Clinician flexes pts forarm 90 degrees at elbow & pronates pts wrist. Pt supinates against resistance
Positive test if have pain

125
Q

Normal extension of elbow

A

180 degrees

126
Q

Normal flexion of elbow

A

160 degrees

127
Q

Normal supination of elbow

A

90 degrees

128
Q

Normal pronation of elbow

A

90 degrees

129
Q

Normal wrist flexion

A

90 degrees

130
Q

Normal wrist extension

A

90 degrees

131
Q

Normal wrist adduction

A

20 degrees

132
Q

Normal wrist abduction

A

30 degrees

133
Q

Flexor Digitorum Superficialis test

A

Integrity of flexor digitorum superficialis
Hold fingers in extension & as pt to flex one finger at a time to PIP joint
Snapping or grating is positive - trigger finger

134
Q

Flexor Digitorum Profundus test

A

integrity of flexor digitorum profundus
Hold finger at MCP & PIP joints & have pt flex at DIP joint
Positive test = snapping or grating

135
Q

Positive Snuffbox Tenderness on palpation

A

indicative of fracture of the scaphoid bone

136
Q

Phalen’s Test

A

Assesses for median nerve compression
Hold both wrists together in a fully palmar-flexed position with dorsal surfaces together for 60 seconds
Positive test if numbness & paresthesia in median nerve distribution - carpal tunnel syndrome

137
Q

Tineal’s sign

A

Assesses median nerve compression
Tap pts wrist where median nerve passes under flexor retinaculum & carpal ligament
Positive test if numbness or tingling radiating from wrist to hand in median nerve distribution within 60 seconds

138
Q

Normal hip flexion

A

120 deg

139
Q

Normal hip abduction

A

45 deg

140
Q

Normal hip adduction

A

30 deg

141
Q

Normal hip internal rotation

A

40 deg

142
Q

Normal hip external rotation

A

45 deg

143
Q

Thomas Test

A

Hip flexion contracture eval
Positive test if hip flexion contracture is present in the opposite (extended) leg, will flex at knee & lift off table

144
Q

Trendelenburg Test

A

Weak hip abductors (gluteus medius & minimus)
Positive if iliac crest drops on side of lifted leg (when standing on one leg). Indicates hip abductor muscles on opposite, weight bearing side are weak

145
Q

Straight Leg Raising (Laseque’s sign)

A

Assesses for lumbosacral radiculopathy caused by L4, L5, or S1 nerve root irritation, or lumbar disc herniation. Used if pt experiences pain that radiates down leg (sciatica)
Lift pts extended leg, flexing at hip, dorsiflex foot
Positive test if pain down ipsilateral leg (pain in hips & back are negative test)

146
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis

A

hereditary chronic inflammatory disease, initially affecting lumbar spine & sacroiliac joints

147
Q

Arthritis

A

inflammation of a joint, usually with pain, & frequently changes in structure

148
Q

Arthropathy

A

any disease affecting joint

149
Q

Arthrosis

A

joint affection caused by trophic degeneration

150
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome

A

pressure on median nerve at the point at which it goes through carpel tunnel of wrist

151
Q

Crepitus

A

crinkly crackling, grating feeling or sound in joints, skin, or lungs

152
Q

Dupuytren’s contracture

A

contracture of palmer fascia causing ring and little fingers to bend into palm so they can’t be extended

153
Q

Fibromyalgia

A

painful nonarticular condition that leads to diffuse musculokeletal discomfort

154
Q

Gibbus

A

sharp, angular deformity associated with collapsed vertebra due to osteoporosis

155
Q

Goniometer

A

apparatus to measure joint movements and angles

156
Q

Kyphosis

A

increased convex curvature of throacic spine

157
Q

Lordosis

A

increased concave curature of lumbar spine

158
Q

Osteoarthritis

A

deterioration of articular cartilage covering bone ends in synovial joints

159
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

infection of bone

160
Q

Osteoporosis

A

decrease in bone mass that occurs due to bone resorption that is more rapid than bone deposition

161
Q

Polydactyly

A

hand or foot has more than 5 digits

162
Q

Radial head subluxation (nursemaid’s elbow)

A

dislocation injury of elbow

163
Q

Scoliosis

A

lateral curvature of spine

164
Q

Simian

A

single crease extending across palm

Associated with Down syndrome

165
Q

Syndactyly

A

congenital condition that results in fusion of digits of hand or foot

166
Q

Tendonitis

A

Inflammation of tendon

167
Q

Tenosynovitis

A

inflammation of sheath of tendon

168
Q

Confusion

A

Pt is disoriented to person, place, or time but has normal consciousness

169
Q

AVPU scale

A

Alert, Responsive to Verbal stimuli, Responsive to Painful stimuli, Unresponsive

170
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale

A 
Assess cerebral cortex & brainstem function
Eye Opening (E): Spontaneous (4), To voice (3), To pain (2), None (1)
Verbal Response (V): Normal (5), Disoriented (4), Inappropriate (3), Incomprehensible (2), None (1)
Motor Response (M): Normal (6), Localizes to pain (5), Withdraws to pain (4), Flexes to pain (3), Extends to pain (2), None (1)
171
Q

Highest & lowest possible scores on Glasgow Coma Scale

A

15 & 3
Cannot score below 3 (deepest coma)
Less than 12 not good, less than 10 is really bad
If the score gets worse it is bad

172
Q

Mini-Cog test

A

Determines dementia
Have pt remember 3 unrelated words
Then have pt draw face of a clock from memory & put hands where you tell them
Then have pt repeat 3 words again - get 1 point for every correct word
1 or 2 points with normal clock is negative for dementia

173
Q

Mini Mental Status Exam

A

standardized brief screening tool for delirium

If changes by more than 4 points over time it indicates significant change in cognition

174
Q

Test CN I

A

Olfaction
Pt closes eyes
Ask to identify 2 different scents w/ eyes closed (one scent under each nostril, one at a time)
Abnormal if have difficulty discriminating scents (elderly, smoking, inflammation)
Anosmia (no smell) - lesion in olfactory tract

175
Q

Test CN II

A

Optic
Test visual acuity & fields, & afferent limb of pupillary response (CN III required for efferent limb)
Snellen or Rosenbaum eye charts - visual acuity
Funduscopic exam
Confrontation test - evaluate peripheral visual fields

176
Q

PERLA

A

Tests CN II & III together
Pupils Equal, React to Light and Accommodation
Evaluate pupils for equal size/shape
Shine light into each eye - both pupils should constrict
Accommodation - look at distant object, than close object, pupils should constrict when look at close object

177
Q

EOM & eyelid drooping

A

Test CN III, IV, & VI together
EOM = extra-ocular movements
Pt follows your finger with their eyes - draw an X and + to get all directions; bring finger close to nose for convergence

178
Q

Test CN III

A 
Oculomotor
PERLA (parasympathetics - pupil constriction & lens accommodation)
EOM - all eye movement except lateral & inward rotation when looking down (intorsion)
179
Q

Test CN IV

A

Trochlear

EOM - inward rotation when looking down (intorsion) - superior oblique muscle

180
Q

Test CN V

A

Trigeminal
Motor to muscles of jaw - hands on side of face as pt clenches jaw
Sensory to face - pt closes eyes & identifies if there is sharp or dull touch on both sides of face (forehead, cheek, chin)

181
Q

Test CN VI

A

Abducens

EOM - lateral eye movement (lateral rectus muscle)

182
Q

Test CN VII

A

Facial
Motor to facial expression muscles - wrinkle forehead, squeeze eyes shut, puff cheeks, smile & show teeth, purse lips & blow out
Sensory to anterior 2/3 tongue & pharynx - taste
Parasympathetic secretion of saliva & tears

183
Q

Test CN VIII

A

Vastibulocochlear (acoustic)
Whisper, Weber, & Rinne test - hearing
Romberg test - balance

184
Q

Test CN IX & X

A

Glossopharyngeal & Vagus
Sensory (IX) & motor (X) to palate & pharynx
Observe normal speech & swallowing
Say “AH” while using tongue depressor - soft palate should rise symmetrically, uvula in midline
Gag reflex using tongue depressor to touch back of pharynx - palate rise symmetrically, uvula in midline
Taste in posterior 1/3 of tongue (IX)

185
Q

Test CN XI

A

Spinal Accessory
Motor to SCM & Trapezius
Strength test - turning head & shoulder shrug

186
Q

Test CN XII

A

Hypoglossal
Motor to muscles of tongue - protrude & lift/lower tongue
Tongue strength - push against side of cheek

187
Q

Cerebellar rapid alternating movement tests

A

Finger-thumb test

Palm up/palm down test (test both hands separately)

188
Q

Cerebellar accuracy of upper & lower extremity movement tests

A

Finger to nose test (pt touches your finger then their nose, eyes open)
Finger-nose-finger test (eyes closed, extend arms, alternately touch fingers to their nose)
Heel-to-shin test

189
Q

Cerebellar balance tests

A 
Romberg test (feet together, arms at side, eyes closed)
Hop test (eyes open, hop on one foot, then other for 5 sec)
190
Q

Cerebellar gait & stance tests

A

Pt walk without shoes
Tandem walk (heel-toe walking)
Walk on heels & toes
Pronator drift - tests contralateral lesion of corticospinal tract & position sense (stand for 20 to 30 sec with both arms straight forward, palms up, eyes closed; tap down on arms) - abnormal if hands drift into pronation

191
Q

Grading for reflexes: 0

A

No response

192
Q

Grading for reflexes: +1

A

Sluggish or diminished

193
Q

Grading for reflexes: +2

A

Active or expected response (normal)

194
Q

Grading for reflexes: +3

A

More brisk than expected, slightly hyperactive

195
Q

Grading for reflexes: +4

A

Brisk, hyperactive, with intermittent or transient clonus

196
Q

Normal reflex

A

+2

Active but not hyperactive or sluggish

197
Q

Clonus test

A

Tests for upper motor neuron disease after finding hyperactive reflex
Pt supine, knee slightly flexed
Briskly dorsiflex foot
Positive if sustained clonus (rhythmic oscillating movement of foot)

198
Q

Brudzinski’s sign

A

Positive for meningeal irritation, involuntary flexion of hips when neck is passively flexed

199
Q

Affect

A

Person’s external expression of his/her inner emotional state

200
Q

Afferent pupillary defect (Marcus-Gunn pupil)

A

continued pupillary dilation instead of constriction in eye with a pre-chiasmic optic pathway lesion in response to shining a light in the damaged eye after first shining it in the normal eye

201
Q

Agraphia

A

Loss of ability to express oneself in writing due to a central lesion or muscular incoordination

202
Q

Akathisia (acathisia)

A

Inability to sit down because the thought of doing so causes severe anxiety. Patient has a feeling of restlessness and an urgent need of movement and complains of a feeling of muscular quivering

203
Q

Akinesia

A

complete or partial loss of muscle movement

204
Q

Antalgic

A

a behavior used to limit pain

205
Q

Aphasia

A

inability to express oneself properly through speech, or loss of verbal comprehension. It is considered to be complete or total when both sensory and motor areas are involved

206
Q

Ataxia

A

Impaired ability to coordinate muscular movement usually associated with staggering gait and postural imbalance

207
Q

Athetosis

A

slow, twisting, writhing movements, with larger amplitude than chorea, commonly involving hands

208
Q

Bell palsy

A

acute paralysis or weakness of one side of the face that is temporary

209
Q

Cerebral palsy

A

Large group of persisting, nonprogressive motor disorders appearing in young children and resulting from brain damage caused by birth trauma or intrauterine pathology

210
Q

Chorea

A

dance-like, involuntary, rapid movements. Can be associated with Huntington disease, rheumatic fever, systemic lupus erythematosus, or other conditions

211
Q

Clonus

A

rapidly alternating involuntary contraction and relaxation of skeletal muscle

212
Q

Dementia

A

irrecoverable deteriorative mental state, common end result of many entities. Loss of memory and other intellecutal functions that is of sufficient severity to interfere with daily functioning

213
Q

Diplopia

A

double vision caused by defective function of the extraocular muscles or a disorder of the nerves that innervate the muscles

214
Q

Dysarthria

A

defective articulation secondary to a motor deficit involving lips, tongue, palate, or pharynx

215
Q

Dysdiadochokinesia

A

inability to quickly substitute antagonistic motor impulses to produce antagonistic muscular movement
Inability to perform rapid alternating movements

216
Q

Dysethesia

A

sensations (pricks of pins) or crawling

217
Q

Dyskinesia

A

defect in voluntary movements

218
Q

Dysphasia

A

impairment of speech resulting from brain lesion

219
Q

Dysphonia

A

difficulty in speeking; hoarsness

220
Q

Dystonia

A

impaired or disordered tonicity, muscle tone

221
Q

Encephalitis

A

acute inflammation of brain & spinal cord

222
Q

Fasciculations

A

localized, uncoordinated twitching of a single muscle group innervated by a single motor nerve filament; visible or palpable

223
Q

Fluent aphasia (Wernicke’s or receptive aphasia)

A

fluent, effortless speech; words are malformed, may be totally incomprehensible. Can hear words but cannot relate them to previous experiences. Impairment of language comprehension including impaired repetition due to lesion of posterior left superior temporal gyrus

224
Q

Graphesthesia

A

ability to recognize symbols, shapes, numbers, or letters traced into skin

225
Q

Hemianopia

A

blindness for half of field of vision in one or both eyes (lesion posterior to optic chiasm)

226
Q

Hemiballismus

A

jerking or twitching movements of one side of body (involuntary violent jerking o flimb)

227
Q

Meningitis

A

inflammation of meninges

228
Q

Multiple sclerosis

A

progressive autoimmune disorder causing degeneration of myelin sheath of brain’s white matter

229
Q

Myelitis

A

inflammation of spinal cord or bone marrow

230
Q

Myelomeningocele (spina bifida)

A

congenital defect of spine that allows spinal content to protrude

231
Q

Myelopathy

A

any pathological condition of spinal cord

232
Q

Myoclonus

A

twitching or clonic spasm of a muscle or group of muscles

233
Q

Myopathy

A

any disease or abnormal condition of striated muscle

234
Q

Non-fluent aphasia (Broca’s or expressive aphasia)

A

cannot express oneself in language; few words; laborious effort; primarily uses nouns and verbs. Fair to good word comprehension

235
Q

Nuchal rigidity

A

stiff neck

236
Q

Paresis

A

partial or incomplete paralysis

237
Q

Paresthesia

A

unusual sensation like numbness, tingling, burning

238
Q

Peripheral neuropathy

A

commonly seen in diabetes, decrease in both motor and sensory function in PNS

239
Q

Sterognosis

A

ability to recognize form of solid objects by touch

240
Q

Stroke

A

sudden disruption of blood flow to brain

241
Q

Tremor

A

involuntary movement of a part or parts of body resulting from alternate contractions of opposite muscles

Clinical Medicine (4 decks)

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