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adv. patho > exam 6 > Flashcards

exam 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Failure of menarche to occur when expected in relation to the onset of puberty

No menarche by age 16 with signs of pubertal development

No onset of pubertal development by age 14 years

A

Primary amenorrhea

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2
Q

Absence of menstruation for 3 or more months in a previously menstruating women of reproductive age

A

Secondary amenorrhea

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3
Q

Amenorrhea Causes:

Outflow tract
uterine target organ

A

Compartment I

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4
Q

Amenorrhea Causes;

Ovary
Estrogen & Progesterone

A

Compartment II

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5
Q

Amenorrhea Causes:

Anterior pituitary

A

Compartment III

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6
Q

Amenorrhea Causes:

CNS
Hypothalamic

A

Compartment IV

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7
Q

Leading cause of infertility in the United States

A

Polycystic ovary syndrome

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8
Q

Is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

A

Gonorrhea

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9
Q

is caused by Treponema pallidum

A

Syphilis

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10
Q

tested by Darkfield microscopy and serologic testing

A

Syphilis

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11
Q

By which method is the organism that causes syphilis best identified?

a. Acid-fast stain
b. Gram-stained slide
c. In vitro culture
d. Dark-field microscopy

A

d. Dark-field microscopy

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12
Q

During which stage of syphilis do bloodborne bacteria spread to all the major organ systems?

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Latent
d. Tertiary

A

b. Secondary

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13
Q

In which stage of syphilis would the following clinical manifestations be found: destructive skin,
bone and soft tissue lesions, aneurysms, heart failure, and neurosyphilis?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Latent
d. Tertiary

A

d. Tertiary

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14
Q

Which organism is responsible for the development of syphilis?

a. Neisseria syphilis
b. Treponema pallidum
c. Haemophilus ducreyi
d. Chlamydia trachomatis

A

b. Treponema pallidum

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15
Q

Which is a characteristic lesion of secondary syphilis?

a. Condylomata lata
b. Gummas
c. Chancroid
d. Donovan bodies

A

a. Condylomata lata

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16
Q

How is gonorrhea transmitted from a pregnant woman to her fetus?

a. Unbound in the blood via the placenta
b. Attached to immunoglobulin G (IgG) via the placenta
c. By direct inoculation with the fetal scalp electrodes exposed to maternal body
fluids
d. Predominately through infected cervical and secretions during the birth process

A

d. Predominately through infected cervical and secretions during the birth process

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17
Q

A male comes to the health clinic and reports a recent exposure to gonorrhea. Where should the healthcare professional focus the physical exam on as the priority?

a. Epididymis
b. Lymph nodes
c. Urethra
d. Prostate

A

c. Urethra

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18
Q

Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea?

a. Syphilis
b. Herpes simplex virus
c. Chlamydia
d. Chancroid

A

c. Chlamydia

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19
Q

What are the common clinical manifestations of endometriosis? (Select all that apply.)

a. Back and flank pain
b. Infertility
c. Dysuria
d. Amenorrhea
e. Dysmenorrhea

A

b. Infertility

e. Dysmenorrhea

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20
Q

What theory is used to describe the cause of endometriosis?

a. Obstruction within the fallopian tubes prevents the endometrial tissue from adhering to the lining of the uterus.
b. Endometrial tissue passes through the fallopian tubes and into the peritoneal cavity and remains responsive to hormones.
c. Inflammation of the endometrial tissue develops after recurrent sexually transmitted diseases.
d. Endometrial tissue lies dormant in the uterus until the ovaries produce sufficient hormone to stimulate its growth.

A

b. Endometrial tissue passes through the fallopian tubes and into the peritoneal cavity and remains responsive to hormones.

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21
Q

A woman has been diagnosed with compartment IV primary amenorrhea. What assessments would the healthcare professional perform as priorities? (Select all that apply.)

a. Weight and body mass index
b. Signs of systemic infection
c. Stress self-assessment questionnaire
d. Genetic family history
e. Presence of secondary sex characteristics

A

a. Weight and body mass index
b. Signs of systemic infection
c. Stress self-assessment questionnaire
e. Presence of secondary sex characteristics

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22
Q

Which condition is considered a clinical cause of amenorrhea?

a. Disorder in the endometrium
b. Obstruction of the fallopian tubes
c. Lack of physical exercise
d. Failure to ovulate

A

d. Failure to ovulate

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23
Q

A woman has been diagnosed with compartment II primary amenorrhea. The healthcare professional helps prepare the woman for what type of diagnostic testing?

a. Genetic testing
b. CT scan of the anterior pituitary
c. Blood work for hypothalamic function
d. Vaginal speculum exam

A

a. Genetic testing

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24
Q

A person has been diagnosed with primary dysmenorrhea and wants to know why ibuprofen is a
good choice for pain control. What response by the health care professional is best?

a. “It inhibits the release of leukotrienes in your system.”
b. “It reduces the production of prostaglandins in your body.”
c. “It enhances the effects of bradykinin release.”
d. “It contributes to a higher C reactive protein in your blood.”

A

b. “It reduces the production of prostaglandins in your body.”

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25
Q

A healthcare professional reads in a woman’s chart that she has a grade 2 uterine prolapse. What
assessment finding does the professional correlate with this condition?

a. Uterus halfway to the hymen
b. Uterus reaches the hymen
c. Uterus protruding from the vagina
d. Uterus and rectum protruding

A

b. Uterus reaches the hymen

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26
Q

A woman has a pelvic organ prolapse. What treatments does the healthcare professional teach
the woman about? (Select all that apply.)

a. Pessary
b. Kegel exercises
c. Estrogen therapy
d. Surgical repair
e. Bearing down exercises

A

a. Pessary
b. Kegel exercises
c. Estrogen therapy
d. Surgical repair

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27
Q

he initial reproductive structures of the male and female embryos appear the same until which
week of gestation?

a. Third
b. Seventh
c. Twentieth
d. Thirtieth

A

b. Seventh

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28
Q

The absence of which major hormone is a determinant of sexual differentiation (Wolffian system) in utero?

a. Estrogen
b. Progesterone
c. Growth hormone
d. Testosterone

A

d. Testosterone

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29
Q

Which gland produces the associated hormones that are found in high levels in a female fetus?

a. Posterior pituitary excretes gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).
b. Hypothalamus excretes luteinizing hormone (LH) and gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).
c. Anterior pituitary produces follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).
d. Hypothalamus excretes gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) and folliclestimulating hormone (FSH).

A

c. Anterior pituitary produces follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).

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30
Q

A mother reports that her young teens have voracious appetites. The healthcare professional would explain that which hormone is linked to an increase in appetite during puberty?

a. Inhibin
b. Leptin
c. Activin
d. Follistatin

A

b. Leptin

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31
Q

The Skene glands are located on either side of which structure?

a. Introitus
b. Urinary meatus
c. Clitoris
d. Vestibule

A

b. Urinary meatus

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32
Q

What is the function of the mucus secreted by the Bartholin glands?

a. Enhancement of the motility of sperm
b. Lubrication of the urinary meatus and vestibule
c. Maintenance of an acid-base balance to discourage infection
d. Enhancement of the size of the penis during intercourse

A

a. Enhancement of the motility of sperm

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33
Q

Which change is a result of puberty and defends the vagina from infection?

a. The pH stabilizes between 7 and 8.
b. A thin squamous epithelial lining develops.
c. Vaginal pH becomes more acidic.
d. Estrogen levels are low.

A

c. Vaginal pH becomes more acidic.

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34
Q

What happens to the vagina’s lining at puberty?

a. It becomes thinner.
b. It becomes thicker.
c. It assumes a neutral pH.
d. It undergoes atrophy.

A

b. It becomes thicker.

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35
Q

Which structure is lined with columnar epithelial cells?

a. Perimetrium
b. Endocervical canal
c. Myometrium
d. Vagina

A

b. Endocervical canal

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36
Q

Where is the usual site of fertilization of an ovum?

a. Trumpet end of the fallopian tubes
b. Fimbriae of the fallopian tubes
c. Ampulla of the fallopian tubes
d. Os of the fallopian tubes

A

c. Ampulla of the fallopian tubes

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37
Q

Where is the usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ?

a. Squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the cuboidal epithelium of the vagina.
b. Columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the uterus.
c. Squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the columnar epithelium of the uterus.
d. Columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina.

A

d. Columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina.

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38
Q

Having ejected a mature ovum, what does the ovarian follicle develop into?

a. Atretic follicle
b. Theca follicle
c. Corpus luteum
d. Functional scar

A

c. Corpus luteum

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39
Q

The mucosal secretions of the cervix secrete which immunoglobulin?

a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM

A

a. IgA

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40
Q

A surge of which hormone causes the corpus luteum to produce progesterone?

a. Follicle stimulating hormone
b. Luteinizing hormone
c. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
d. Estrogen

A

b. Luteinizing hormone

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41
Q

What directly causes ovulation during the menstrual cycle?

a. Gradual decrease in estrogen levels
b. Sudden increase of LH
c. Sharp rise in progesterone levels
d. Gradual increase in estrogen levels

A

b. Sudden increase of LH

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42
Q 
Which anatomic structure secretes follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone 
(LH)?
a. Hypothalamus
b. Ovaries
c. Anterior pituitary
d. Adrenal cortex
A

c. Anterior pituitary

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43
Q

A woman attempting to conceive tells the healthcare professional that she and her partner have intercourse when her basal body temperature (BBT) is around 37C (98F) without getting pregnant. What information does the professional give the woman?

a. Maybe you need a fertility workup.
b. That’s a normal temperature, but during ovulation BBT decreases.
c. Temperature alone is not the most accurate way to predict ovulation.
d. BBT rises consistently above 37.8C (100F) with ovulation

A

c. Temperature alone is not the most accurate way to predict ovulation.

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44
Q

What structure in the male lies posterior to the urinary bladder?

a. Seminal vesicles
b. Prostate glands
c. Cowper glands
d. Parabladder glands

A

a. Seminal vesicles

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45
Q

When do penile erections begin?

a. Before birth
b. Shortly after birth
c. Shortly before puberty
d. After puberty

A

a. Before birth

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46
Q

What does the student learn regarding the major difference between male and female sex hormone production?

a. Luteinizing hormone has no apparent action in a man.
b. In a man, sex hormone production is relatively constant.
c. Estradiol is not produced in a man.
d. In a man, gonadotropin-releasing hormone does not cause the release of follicle
stimulating hormone.

A

b. In a man, sex hormone production is relatively constant.

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47
Q

Where in the male body does spermatogenesis occur?

a. Epididymis
b. Rete testis
c. Seminiferous tubules
d. Vas deferens

A

c. Seminiferous tubules

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48
Q

A healthcare professional is discussing breast feeding with a pregnant woman. Which beneficial substance does the professional tell the mother is found in breast milk?

a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM

A

a. IgA

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49
Q

Which hormone promotes the development of the lobular ducts in the breasts?

a. Progesterone
b. Prolactin
c. Oxytocin
d. Estrogen

A

d. Estrogen

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50
Q

What causes the vasomotor flushes (hot flashes) that are associated with declining ovarian function with age?

a. Decreased estrogen levels
b. Absence of estrogen
c. Increased estrogen levels
d. Rapid changes in estrogen levels

A

d. Rapid changes in estrogen levels

51
Q

When does the male body begin to produce sperm?

a. Before birth
b. Shortly after birth
c. At puberty
d. When erection is possible

A

c. At puberty

52
Q

The human zygote has a total of how many chromosomes?

a. 23
b. 25
c. 46
d. 50

A

c. 46

53
Q

Which hormone promotes the development of testosterone in both males and females?

a. Progesterone
b. Prolactin
c. Oxytocin
d. Estrogen

A

b. Prolactin

54
Q

Which hormone relaxes the myometrium and prevents lactation until the fetus is born?

a. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
b. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
c. Progesterone
d. Estrogen

A

c. Progesterone

55
Q

Estrogen has many biological effects on the female body including what? (Select all that apply.)

a. Maturation of reproductive organs
b. Differentiating female physical characteristics
c. Postpuberty closure of short bones
d. Regulation of the menstrual cycle
e. Endometrial regeneration after menstruation

A

a. Maturation of reproductive organs
b. Differentiating female physical characteristics
d. Regulation of the menstrual cycle
e. Endometrial regeneration after menstruation

56
Q

Which statements are true regarding the female menstrual cycle? (Select all that apply.)

a. Initial cycles may dramatically vary in length.
b. By adulthood, the commonly accepted cycle average is 28 (27 to 30) days.
c. The length of a cycle varies among women.
d. Up to 10 years before menopause, the intervals of the menstrual cycle begin to lengthen.
e. Menopause is achieved when a woman is without a period for 2 years.

A

a. Initial cycles may dramatically vary in length.
b. By adulthood, the commonly accepted cycle average is 28 (27 to 30) days.
c. The length of a cycle varies among women.
d. Up to 10 years before menopause, the intervals of the menstrual cycle begin to
lengthen.

57
Q

Testosterone is believed to have a role in what? (Select all that apply.)

a. Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit
b. Libido levels
c. Acne development
d. Altered cholesterol metabolism
e. Thinning of the larynx

A

b. Libido levels
c. Acne development
d. Altered cholesterol metabolism

58
Q

What are normal characteristics of aging of the male reproductive system? (Select all that apply.)

a. Reduced sperm count
b. Slower, less forceful ejaculations
c. Testicular atrophy and softening
d. Longer time to achieve full erection
e. Decreased levels of testosterone

A

b. Slower, less forceful ejaculations
c. Testicular atrophy and softening
d. Longer time to achieve full erection
e. Decreased levels of testosterone

59
Q

A healthcare professional is educating a community men’s group on symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). The professional relates that most symptoms are a result of which pathophysiologic condition?

a. Infection of the prostate
b. Obstruction of the urethra
c. Ischemia of the urethra
d. Compression of the urethra

A

d. Compression of the urethra

60
Q

A woman has been diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome but is confused because her pelvic ultrasound (US) was read as “normal” and did not show cysts. What response by the health care
professional is most appropriate?

a. “We will schedule another US in 3 months to check again.”
b. “The cysts may be too small to see right now.”
c. “Maybe that diagnosis was incorrect; let’s schedule more testing.”
d. “You do not need to have cysts on your ovaries to have this condition.”

A

d. “You do not need to have cysts on your ovaries to have this condition.”

61
Q

How does the epididymis become infected?

a. The pathogenic microorganisms ascend the vasa deferentia from an already infected urethra or bladder.
b. The pathogenic microorganisms are attached to sperm that travel through the genital tract.
c. The pathogenic microorganisms from the tunica vaginalis are transported to the epididymis.
d. The pathogenic microorganisms from the prostate fluid ascend to the epididymis.

A

a. The pathogenic microorganisms ascend the vasa deferentia from an already infected urethra or bladder

62
Q

In the mouth and stomach, salivary -amylase initiates the digestion of which nutrients?

a. Proteins
b. Carbohydrates
c. Fats
d. Fiber

A

b. Carbohydrates

63
Q

Saliva contains which immunoglobulin (Ig)?

a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM

A

a. IgA

64
Q

What effect is a result of inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system with a drug such as
atropine?

a. Salivation becomes thinner.
b. Salivation decreases.
c. The pH of saliva changes.
d. Digestive enzymes are inhibited.

A

b. Salivation decreases

65
Q

Food enters the stomach via which orifice or sphincter?

a. Cardiac
b. Upper esophageal
c. Gastric
d. Fundal

A

a. Cardiac

66
Q

Which gastric cells secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor?

a. Parietal
b. Chief
c. G
d. D

A

a. Parietal

67
Q

Which cells in the stomach secrete histamine?

a. Oxyntic
b. Chief
c. D
d. Enterochromaffin-like

A

d. Enterochromaffin-like

68
Q

Which gastric hormone inhibits acid and pepsinogen secretion, as well as decreases the release of
gastrin?

a. Motalin
b. Histamine
c. Somatostatin
d. Acetylcholine

A

c. Somatostatin

69
Q

Which enzyme breaks down protein-forming polypeptides in the stomach?

a. Acetylcholine
b. Pepsin
c. Gastrin
d. Secretin

A

b. Pepsin

70
Q

Exposure to which substance protects the mucosal barrier of the stomach?

a. Prostaglandins
b. Acetylcholine
c. Helicobacter pylori
d. Regurgitated bile

A

a. Prostaglandins

71
Q

The ileum and jejunum are suspended by folds of the peritoneum that contain an extensive vascular and nervous network. What are these folds called?

a. Ligament of Treitz
b. Mesentery
c. Auerbach folds
d. Lamina propria

A

b. Mesentery

72
Q

Where in the small intestines are lymphocytes, plasma cells, and macrophages produced?

a. Brush border
b. Microvilli
c. Lamina propria
d. Crypts of Lieberkühn

A

c. Lamina propria

73
Q

The student asks the professor why water and electrolytes are transported in both directions
through tight junctions and intercellular spaces rather than across cell membranes. What response by the professor is best?

a. The intercellular hydrostatic pressure is inadequate to push the water and electrolytes across the cell membranes.
b. A balance of cations and ions among the electrolytes on each side of the cell membranes cannot be maintained.
c. The epithelial cell membranes are formed of lipids that are hydrophobic and therefore repel water.
d. Receptors on those cell membranes are occupied with a diffusion of amino acids and monosaccharides.

A

c. The epithelial cell membranes are formed of lipids that are hydrophobic and therefore repel water.

74
Q

Which statement best describes the gastrointestinal tract?
a. The gastrointestinal tract is a muscular tube that transports food from the mouth to
the stomach.
b. The gastrointestinal tract is a hollow tube that extends from the mouth to the anus.
c. The gastrointestinal tract is a baglike structure that propels partially digested food
(chyme).
d. The gastrointestinal tract is 5 m long and consists of three segments.

A

b. The gastrointestinal tract is a hollow tube that extends from the mouth to the anus.

75
Q

Glucose transport enhances the absorption of which electrolyte?

a. Sodium
b. Phosphate
c. Potassium
d. Chloride

A

a. Sodium

76
Q

What process is capable of increasing both intrathoracic and intraabdominal pressure, thereby
facilitating defecation?

a. Relaxation of the internal anal sphincter
b. Intestinal peristalsis
c. Valsalva maneuver
d. Ileogastric reflex

A

c. Valsalva maneuver

77
Q

Which pancreatic enzyme is responsible for the breakdown of carbohydrates?

a. Trypsin
b. Amylase
c. Lipase
d. Chymotrypsin

A

b. Amylase

78
Q

What is the formation of water-soluble molecules to facilitate the absorption of the byproducts of lipid hydrolysis accomplished by?

a. Micelles
b. Phospholipase
c. Chylomicrons
d. Colipase

A

a. Micelles

79
Q

What is the primary source of physiologic iron?

a. Transferrin from plasma
b. Pepsin form pepsinogen
c. Bile from bilirubin
d. Heme from animal protein

A

d. Heme from animal protein

80
Q

A professor has taught a class of students about the characteristics of vitamin B12. Which statement by a student demonstrates a need for more education?

a. Vitamin B12 is absorbed in the terminal ileum.
b. Vitamin B12 is absorbed in its free (unbound) form in small amounts.
c. Vitamin B12 is necessary for platelet maturation.
d. Vitamin B12 binds to intrinsic factor

A

c. Vitamin B12 is necessary for platelet maturation.

81
Q

Which water-soluble vitamin is absorbed by passive diffusion?

a. Vitamin B6
b. Vitamin B1
c. Vitamin K
d. Folic acid

A

a. Vitamin B6

82
Q 
Which vitamin facilitates the absorption of iron by the epithelial cells of the duodenum and 
jejunum?
a. B6
b. C
c. E
d. B12
A

b. C

83
Q

What is the role of the normal intestinal bacterial flora?

a. Metabolizing bile salts, estrogens, and lipids
b. Breaking down proteins into amino acids
c. Facilitating the motility of the colon
d. Metabolizing aldosterone and insulin

A

a. Metabolizing bile salts, estrogens, and lipids

84
Q

How are Kupffer cells best described?

a. Natural killer cells that produce interferon-gamma (IFN-)
b. Contractile and therefore capable of regulating the sinusoid blood flow
c. Bactericidal and therefore central to innate immunity
d. Able to metabolize estrogen, progesterone, and androgens

A

c. Bactericidal and therefore central to innate immunity

85
Q

Bilirubin is a byproduct of the destruction of which aged cells?

a. Platelets
b. Protein
c. Leukocytes
d. Erythrocytes

A

d. Erythrocytes

86
Q

The process of conjugation of bilirubin in the liver is best described as which transformation?

a. Unconjugated (fat-soluble) bilirubin into urobilinogen
b. Unconjugated (fat-soluble) bilirubin into conjugated (water-soluble) bilirubin
c. Conjugated (water-soluble) bilirubin into unconjugated (fat-soluble) bilirubin
d. Conjugated (water-soluble) bilirubin into urobilinogen

A

b. Unconjugated (fat-soluble) bilirubin into conjugated (water-soluble) bilirubin

87
Q 
A professor has been teaching a class on gastrointestinal function. Which statement by a student 
indicates the need for more education?

a. Within 30 min of eating, the gallbladder forces bile into the stomach.
b. Cholinergic branches of the vagus nerve mediate gallbladder contraction.
c. Cholecystokinin provides hormonal regulation of gallbladder contraction.
d. The sphincter of Oddi controls the flow of bile from the gallbladder.

A

a. Within 30 min of eating, the gallbladder forces bile into the stomach.

88
Q

Which structure synthesizes clotting factors and the vitamin K necessary for hemostasis?

a. Colon
b. Spleen
c. Gallbladder
d. Liver

A

d. Liver

89
Q

How many days does it take for the entire epithelial population of the small intestines to be replaced?

a. 30 to 45
b. 15 to 25
c. 7 to 15
d. 4 to 7

A

d. 4 to 7

90
Q

Which statement, made by a student, is correct regarding the state of the intestinal tract at birth?

a. The intestinal tract is colonized by Escherichia coli.
b. The intestinal tract is sterile.
c. Clostridium welchii is present in but in very small numbers.
d. Streptococcus colonization in the intestinal tract has begun.

A

b. The intestinal tract is sterile.

91
Q

Gastric emptying is delayed by the presence of which substances? (Select all that apply.)

a. Solids
b. Carbohydrates
c. Nonisotonic solutions
d. Bacteria
e. Fats

A

a. Solids
c. Nonisotonic solutions
e. Fats

92
Q

Which hormones are involved in the relaxation of the stomach’s fundus during swallowing? (Select all that apply.)

a. Progesterone
b. Glucagon
c. Motilin
d. Gastrin
e. Cholecystokinin

A

d. Gastrin

e. Cholecystokinin

93
Q

Which hormones are involved in regulating gastric motility by lowering the threshold potential of muscle fibers? (Select all that apply.)

a. Estrogen
b. Secretin
c. Somatostatin
d. Gastrin
e. Motilin

A

d. Gastrin

e. Motilin

94
Q

What requirements are necessary for calcium to be absorbed through the ileum at concentrations
of less than 5 mmol/L? (Select all that apply.)

a. Receptor site on the ileum
b. Vitamin D3
c. Vitamin K
d. Carboxypeptidase
e. A carrier protein

A

b. Vitamin D3

e. A carrier protein

95
Q

Which water-soluble vitamins are dependent on sodium for absorption? (Select all that apply.)

a. Pantothenic acid
b. Vitamin B1
c. Niacin
d. Vitamin B12
e. Folic acid

A

b. Vitamin B1

e. Folic acid

96
Q

What information does the student learn regarding the functions of the pancreas? (Select all that apply.)

a. Cholecystokinin stimulates the release of pancreatic enzymes.
b. Bilirubin and S cells inhibit the secretion of pancreatic enzymes.
c. Pancreatic polypeptide is released after eating.
d. Acetylcholine (ACh) is liberated from the pancreatic branches of the vagus nerve.
e. ACh stimulates the release of pancreatic enzymes.

A

a. Cholecystokinin stimulates the release of pancreatic enzymes.
c. Pancreatic polypeptide is released after eating.
d. Acetylcholine (ACh) is liberated from the pancreatic branches of the vagus nerve.

97
Q

A student learns what information about acute pancreatitis?

a. Autoimmune process with IgG attacking pancreatic acinar cells
b. It is usually a severe disease with a high mortality rate.
c. Pancreatic enzymes autodigest pancreatic cells and tissues.
d. Oversecretion of pancreatic enzymes and malnutrition

A

c. Pancreatic enzymes autodigest pancreatic cells and tissues.

98
Q

Cellular basis of obesity

A

Adipocyte

99
Q

Molecules that stimulate eating:

A

Orexins

100
Q

Molecules that inhibit eating

A

Anorexins

101
Q

chronic inflammatory disease that causes ulceration of the colonic mucosa, most commonly in the rectum and sigmoid colon

A

Ulcerative colitis

102
Q

All of the following are characteristics of ulcerative colitis except:

iron deficiency anemia.
the presence of “skip” lesions.
diarrhea.
an increased risk of colon cancer.

A

the presence of “skip” lesions.

103
Q

Which of the following factors are known causes of ulcerative colitis?

Genetic predisposition
Autoimmune injury
Inflammation
All of the above

A

All of the above

104
Q

Common characteristics of Crohn disease include which of the following?

Significant blood loss in diarrhea
Gastroesophageal reflux
Vitamin B12 deficiency
Mucosal erosions of the rectum

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency

105
Q

Although the term hepatitis describes any inflammatory process affecting the liver, it is usually used to describe liver inflammation as a result of:

bacterial infection.
viral infection.
prescription drug toxicity.
street drug toxicity.

A

viral infection.

106
Q

Which of the following types of hepatitis is acquired from ingesting contaminated food and manifests acutely with fever, abdominal pain, and jaundice but does not usually result in fulminant liver failure?

Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
All of the above

A

Hepatitis A

107
Q

The most common cause of liver cirrhosis are hepatitis C and:

alcoholism.
cocaine abuse.
overdose of antibiotic medications.
liver cancer

A

alcoholism.

108
Q

The most common cause of portal hypertension is:

renal failure.
liver cirrhosis.
congestive heart failure.
esophageal varices.

A

liver cirrhosis.

109
Q

Which of the following statements explains why portal hypertension leads to ascites?

Hepatosplenomegaly develops.
Backup of blood in the intra-abdominal veins occurs.
Esophageal varices form in the lower esophagus.
Hemorrhoids can bleed.

A

Backup of blood in the intra-abdominal veins occurs.

110
Q

Symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy are caused by increased serum levels of:

ammonia.
potassium.
urea.
creatinine

A

ammonia.

111
Q

Which of the following symptoms is associated with hepatic encephalopathy?

Ascites, bleeding disorders, and immunosuppression
Peripheral edema, dyspnea, and weight gain
Decreased urinary output, increased serum creatinine, and elevated liver enzymes
Memory loss and confusion, progressing to coma

A

Memory loss and confusion, progressing to coma

112
Q

Jaundice related to biliary duct obstruction is manifested by which of the following laboratory alterations?

Decreased unconjugated bilirubin
Increased unconjugated bilirubin
Decreased conjugated bilirubin
Increased conjugated bilirubin

A

Increased conjugated bilirubin

113
Q

Hepatic failure results in decreased:

levels of steroid hormones in the plasma.
albumin synthesis and decreased oncotic pressure.
levels of liver enzymes in the blood.
nitric oxide production.

A

albumin synthesis and decreased oncotic pressure

114
Q

The most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension is what type of bleeding?

a. Rectal
b. Duodenal
c. Esophageal
d. Intestinal

A

c. Esophageal

115
Q

A patient has portal hypertension-induced splenomegaly. Which lab value would the healthcare
professional associate with this condition?

a. Low white blood cell count
b. Low platelet count
c. High red cell count
d. High hemoglobin and hematocrit

A

b. Low platelet count

116
Q

Hepatic fat accumulation is observed in which form of cirrhosis?

a. Biliary
b. Metabolic
c. Postnecrotic
d. Alcoholic

A

d. Alcoholic

117
Q

A student asks the healthcare professional to explain the pathophysiologic process of alcoholic cirrhosis. What statement by the professional would not be consistent with complete knowledge about this process?

a. Inflammation and damage leading to cirrhosis begin in the bile canaliculi.
b. Alcohol is transformed to acetaldehyde, which promotes liver fibrosis.
c. Mitochondrial function is impaired, decreasing oxidation of fatty acids.
d. Acetaldehyde inhibits export of proteins from the liver.

A

a. Inflammation and damage leading to cirrhosis begin in the bile canaliculi.

118
Q

Which complication is associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome?

Dysmenorrhea
Infertility
Heavy periods
Ovarian cancer

A

Infertility

119
Q

The protrusion of the uterus into the vaginal canal and possibly outside of the vagina is a condition known as uterine:

rectocele.
cystocele.
prolapse.
vulvitis.

A

prolapse.

120
Q

Pain in the abdomen or pelvis occurring with dysmenorrhea, dyschezia, dyspareunia, vaginal bleeding, infertility, adhesions, and scarring anywhere in the abdomen and pelvis is generally associated with what condition?

Endometriosis
Leiomyomas
Endometrial polyps
Adenomyosis

A

Endometriosis

121
Q

What is a posssible outcome of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

Infertility
Urethral obstruction
Prolapsed bladder
Testicular cancer

A

Urethral obstruction

122
Q

Failure to menstruate and develop secondary sex characteristics by age 14 is a condition referred to by what term?

Dysmenorrhea
Dysfunctional menarche
Primary amenorrhea
Secondary amenorrhea

A

Primary amenorrhea

123
Q

What is the major endocrine abnormality associated with the development of polycystic ovarian syndrome?

Depressed estradiol levels
Hyperinsulinemia
Hypocortisolism
Low androgen production

A

Hyperinsulinemia

adv. patho (10 decks)

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