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adv. patho > exam 1 practice questions > Flashcards

exam 1 practice questions Flashcards

1
Q

In somatic cell gene therapy, what type of vector is most commonly used to alter a specific set of
an individual’s somatic cells

A

Virus

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2
Q

In DNA replication, what does the enzyme DNA polymerase do?

a. Travel along the single DNA strand, adding the correct nucleotide to the new strand
b. Move along the double strand of DNA to unwind the nucleotides of the double helix
c. Hold the double strand apart while the correct nucleotides are added to the strand
d. Transport the double strand of DNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm for protein formation

A

Travel along the single DNA strand, adding the correct nucleotide to the new strand

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3
Q

How is transcription best defined?

a. DNA polymerase binds to the promoter site on ribonucleic acid (RNA).
b. RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides for protein synthesis.
c. RNA is synthesized from a DNA template.
d. A base pair substitution results in a mutation of the amino acid sequence.

A

RNA is synthesized from a DNA template

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4
Q

What is the term for an error in which homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis
or mitosis?

a. Aneuploidy
b. Nondisjunction
c. Polyploidy
d. Translocation

A

. Nondisjunction

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5
Q

healthcare professional is assessing a child who has complete trisomy of the twenty-first chromosome. What findings does the professional relate to this condition?

a. Widely spaced nipples, reduced carrying angle at the elbow, and sparse body hair
b. An IQ of 25 to 70, low nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and flat, low-set ears
c. High-pitched voice, tall stature, gynecomastia, and an IQ of 60 to 90
d. Circumoral cyanosis, edema of the feet, short stature, and mental slowness

A

An IQ of 25 to 70, low nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and flat, low-set ears

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6
Q

What is the most common cause of Down syndrome?

a. Paternal nondisjunction
b. Maternal translocations
c. Maternal nondisjunction
d. Paternal translocation

A

c. Maternal nondisjunction

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7
Q

What syndrome, characterized by an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X
chromosome, exhibits features that include a short stature, widely spaced nipples, and webbed
neck?

a. Down
b. Cri du chat
c. Turner
d. Klinefelte

A

turner

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8
Q

A person with 47, XXY karyotype has the genetic disorder resulting in which syndrome?

a. Turner
b. Klinefelter
c. Down
d. Fragile X

A

b. Klinefelter

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9
Q

What is the second most commonly recognized genetic cause of intellectual disability

a. Down syndrome
b. Fragile X syndrome
c. Klinefelter syndrome
d. Turner syndrome

A

Fragile X syndrome

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10
Q

What is the blood type of a person who is heterozygous, having A and B alleles as codominant?

a. A
b. B
c. O
d. AB

A

d. AB

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11
Q

A couple has two children diagnosed with an autosomal dominant genetic disease and asks the
healthcare professional what the probability is that their next child will have the same genetic disease. What response by the professional is best?

a. One sixth
b. One fourth
c. One third
d. One half

A

d. One half

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12
Q

When a child inherits a disease that is autosomal recessive, it is inherited from whom?

a. Father
b. Mother
c. Both parents
d. Grandparent

A

c. Both parents

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13
Q

Cystic fibrosis is caused by what type of gene?

a. X-linked dominant
b. X-linked recessive
c. Autosomal dominant
d. Autosomal recessive

A

d. Autosomal recessive

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14
Q

Which is an important criterion for discerning autosomal recessive inheritance?

a. Consanguinity is sometimes present.
b. Females are affected more than males.
c. The disease is observed in both the parents, as well as in the siblings.
d. On average, one half of the offspring of the carrier will be affected.

A

a. Consanguinity is sometimes present.

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15
Q

Consanguinity refers to the mating of people in what situation?

a. Who are unrelated
b. When one has an autosomal dominant disorder
c. Having common family relations
d. When one has a chromosomal abnormality

A

c. Having common family relations

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16
Q

Males are more often affected by which type of genetic disease?

a. Sex-linked dominant
b. Sex-influenced
c. Sex-linked
d. Sex-linked recessive

A

d. Sex-linked recessive

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17
Q

The presence of a zygote having one chromosome with the normal complement of genes and one
with a missing gene is characteristic of which genetic disorder?

a. Cri du chat
b. Down syndrome
c. Klinefelter syndrome
d. Turner syndrome

A

a. Cri du chat

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18
Q

Which statement is true regarding X-linked recessive conditions?

a. Such diseases use males as phenotypical carriers.
b. These conditions are passed from affected father to all of his female children.
c. 25% of an affected individual’s grandsons will be affected.
d. Cystic fibrosis is an example of such a condition

A

b. These conditions are passed from affected father to all of his female children.

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19
Q

What is the risk for the recurrence of autosomal dominant diseases?

a. 10%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 70%

A

c. 50%

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20
Q

What is an individual’s genetic makeup called?

a. Phenotype
b. Genotype
c. Heterozygous locus
d. Homozygous locus

A

b. Genotype

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21
Q

The key to accurate DNA replication depends on which complementary base pairs? (Select all
that apply.)

a. Adenine with thymine
b. Adenine with guanine
c. Guanine with cytosine
d. Cytosine with thymine
e. Guanine with thymine

A

a. Adenine with thymine

c. Guanine with cytosine

22
Q

Chromosomal abnormalities are the leading known cause of what? (Select all that apply.)

a. Mental illness
b. Intellectual disability
c. Fetal miscarriage
d. Cardiovascular disease
e. Respiratory disorders

A

b. Intellectual disability

c. Fetal miscarriage

23
Q

What advantage is derived from human genome sequencing on genetic disorders? (Select all that
apply.)

a. Identification of the mutated gene
b. Reversal of the mutation
c. Diagnosis of the existing disorder
d. Appropriate treatment
e. Prevention of the disorder

A

a. Identification of the mutated gene
c. Diagnosis of the existing disorder
d. Appropriate treatment

24
Q

Prader-Willi syndrome causes a chromosomal defect that is what?

a. Initiated by postnatal exposure to a virus
b. Inherited from the father
c. Related to maternal alcohol abuse
d. Transferred from mother to child

A

b. Inherited from the father

25
Q

en microRNA (miRNA) are methylated their messenger RNA (mRNA) targets are over expressed. What would be the resulting effect on existing cancer?

a. Cell death
b. Metastasis
c. Remission
d. Relapse

A

b. Metastasis

26
Q

What is the difference between DNA sequence mutations and epigenetic modifications?

a. DNA sequence mutations can be directly altered.
b. Leukemia is a result of only DNA sequence mutation.
c. Epigenetic modifications potentially can be reversed.
d. No known drug therapies are available for epigenetic modifications.

A

c. Epigenetic modifications potentially can be reversed.

27
Q

Which term refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair?

a. Activated
b. Altered
c. Mutated
d. Imprinted

A

d. Imprinted

28
Q

What do hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in?

a. A decrease in the activity of the oncogene, thus suppressing cancer development.
b. A deactivation of MLH1 to halt DNA repair.
c. An increase in tumor progression from benign to malignant.
d. An over-expression of microRNA, resulting in tumorigenesis.

A

c. An increase in tumor progression from benign to malignant.

29
Q

When a chromosome lacking 4 million base pairs is inherited from the mother, the child is at risk
for developing which syndrome?

a. Prader-Willi
b. Angelman
c. Beckwith-Wiedemann
d. Russell-Silver

A

b. Angelman

30
Q

Which cancer originates from connective tissue?

a. Osteogenic sarcoma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Multiple myeloma
d. Adenocarcinoma

A

a. Osteogenic sarcoma

31
Q

Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?

a. Blood vessels
b. Epithelial cells
c. Connective tissue
d. Glandular tissue

A

b. Epithelial cells

32
Q

Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?

a. Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.
b. Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.
c. Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells.
d. Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia.

A

c. Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells.

33
Q

Which term is used to describe a cell showing a loss of cellular differentiation?

a. Dysplasia
b. Hyperplasia
c. Metaplasia
d. Anaplasia

A

d. Anaplasia

34
Q

What are tumor cell markers?

a. Hormones, enzymes, antigens, and antibodies that are produced by cancer cells
b. Receptor sites on tumor cells that can be identified and marked
c. Cytokines that are produced against cancer cells
d. Identification marks that are used in administering radiation therapy

A

a. Hormones, enzymes, antigens, and antibodies that are produced by cancer cells

35
Q

A student studying biology asks the professor to describe how the ras gene is involved in cancer
proliferation. What explanation by the professor is best?

a. It suppresses the action of the tumor-suppressor genes.
b. It changes the way the growth promotion genes work.
c. A mutation in this gene allows continuous cell growth.
d. It activates a cell surface receptor that allows signaling to the nucleu

A

c. A mutation in this gene allows continuous cell growth.

36
Q

The professor explains to students that oncogenes are genes that are capable of what?

a. Undergoing mutation that directs the synthesis of proteins to accelerate the rate of tissue proliferation
b. Directing synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and to provide necessary replacement of tissue
c. Encoding proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to slow or halt the replacement of tissue
d. Undergoing mutation that directs malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph nodes for metastasis

A

a. Undergoing mutation that directs the synthesis of proteins to accelerate the rate of tissue proliferation

37
Q

Burkitt lymphomas designate a chromosome that has a piece of chromosome 8 fused to a piece
of chromosome 14. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?

a. Point mutation
b. Chromosome translocation
c. Gene amplification
d. Chromosome fusion

A

b. Chromosome translocation

38
Q

In childhood neuroblastoma, the N-myc oncogene undergoes which type of mutation of normal
gene to oncogene?

a. Point mutation
b. Chromosome fusion
c. Gene amplification
d. Chromosome translocation

A

c. Gene amplification

39
Q

Why are two “hits” required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes?

a. Each allele must be altered, and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent.
b. The first hit stops tissue growth, and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth.
c. Tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to affect carcinogenesis.
d. The first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation

A

a. Each allele must be altered, and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent.

40
Q

. How does the ras gene convert from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene?

a. Designating a chromosome that has a piece of one chromosome fused to a piece of another chromosome
b. Duplicating a small piece of a chromosome, repeatedly making numerous copies
c. Altering one or more nucleotide base pairs
d. Promoting proliferation of growth signals by impairing tumor-suppressor genes

A

c. Altering one or more nucleotide base pairs

41
Q

How do cancer cells use the enzyme telomerase?

a. To repair the telomeres to restore somatic cell growth
b. As an intracellular signaling chemical to stimulate cell division
c. To switch off the telomerase to enable cells to divide indefinitely
d. To switch on the telomerase to enable cells to divide indefinitely

A

d. To switch on the telomerase to enable cells to divide indefinitely

42
Q

Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene?

a. Proto-oncogenes
b. Oncogenes
c. Tumor-suppressor genes
d. Growth-promoting genes

A

c. Tumor-suppressor genes

43
Q

What is the consequence for cells when the functioning TP53 gene is lost as a result of mutation?

a. Cells undergo apoptosis.
b. Cells escape apoptosis.
c. Cells receive less oxygen.
d. Cells adhere more readily.

A

b. Cells escape apoptosis.

44
Q

Which gastrointestinal tract condition can be an outcome of both chemotherapy and radiation
therapy?

a. Increased cell turnover
b. Constipation
c. Stomatitis
d. Bloody stool

A

c. Stomatitis

45
Q

What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and basic fibroblast growth factor(bFGF) in cell metastasis?

a. To stimulate growth of nearby tumor cells
b. To develop new blood vessels to feed cancer cells
c. To prevent cancer cells from escaping apoptosis
d. To act as a chemical gradient to guide cells to blood vessels

A

b. To develop new blood vessels to feed cancer cells

46
Q

It has been determined that a patient’s tumor is in stage 2. How does the healthcare professional
describe this finding to the patient?

a. Cancer is confined to the organ of origin.
b. Cancer has spread to regional structures.
c. Cancer is locally invasive.
d. Cancer has spread to distant sites.

A

c. Cancer is locally invasive.

47
Q

A cancer patient has pain at the tumor site and is worried the tumor has metastasized. What does
the healthcare provider understand about this patient’s complaint?

a. Pain is primarily a result of pressure caused by the tumor.
b. Pain indicates the metastasis of a cancer.
c. Pain is usually the initial symptom of cancer.
d. Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer.

A

d. Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer.

48
Q

What is the role of caretaker genes?

a. Maintenance of genomic integrity
b. Proliferation of cancer cells
c. Secretion of growth factors
d. Restoration of normal tissue structur

A

a. Maintenance of genomic integrity

49
Q

In a normal, nonmutant state, what is an oncogene referred to as?

a. Basal cell
b. Target cell
c. Caretaker gene
d. Proto-oncogene

A

d. Proto-oncogene

50
Q

Normally, which cells are considered immortal? (Select all that apply.)

a. Germ
b. Stem
c. Blood
d. Epithelial
e. Muscle

A

a. Germ

b. Stem

adv. patho (10 decks)

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