exam 5 need to knows Flashcards

1
Q

how do you diagnose cancer?

A

biopsy

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2
Q

what are the side effects of chemotherapy?

A

mucositosis and alopecia

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3
Q

a pt can get ______ from radiation therapy

A

skin burns

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4
Q

what does each letter in CAUTION stand for?

A

C= change in bowel or bladder habits,
A= a sore throat that does not heal
U=unusual bleeding or discharge
T= thickening of lump in the breast or any other part of the body
I=indigestion or difficulty swallowing
O=obvious changes in wart or mole
N= nagging or hoarseness

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5
Q

once you have HIV it can go away, true or false?

A

false once you have it you always have it

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6
Q

what cd4+ count is considered aids?

A

less than 200

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7
Q

if a pt has a cd4+ count less than 200 they have (greater/less) chance of developing OIs?

A

greater

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8
Q

what are some signs and symptoms indicating a dteriorating status in a HIV patient requiring immediate attention?

A

anything new

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9
Q

if the viral load of HIV is undetectable does this mean they are negative for the virus?

A

no

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10
Q

there is a _______ window after infection

A

72 hour

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11
Q

PrEP medicine is used inc ombination of other preventative measures such as….

A

condoms, risk reduction counseling, regular HIV testing, see HCP after every 3 months

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12
Q

what are the known genetic mutations for female breast cancer?

A

BRCA 1 or BRCA 2

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13
Q

what should you know for a pt following a mastectomy?

A

do range of motion exercises and no bp/iv sticks in the same arm

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14
Q

what are the neutropenia precautions?

A

avoid crowds, no raw fruits and vegetables, monitor temp daily, no plants for flowers, private room if hospitalized

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15
Q

what are some things to know about bleeding precautions?

A

use a electric razor, use stool softener, keep injections and sticks to a minimum, apply direct pressure for no less than 5 minutes if laceration occurs

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16
Q

reed-sternberg cells belong to what disease?

A

hodgkin’s lymphoma

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17
Q

how are reed-sternberg cells defined?

A

by biopsy

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18
Q

what are b symptoms of hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

fever, night sweats, weight loss

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19
Q

what can cause multiple myeloma?

A

hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, bone disease

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20
Q

what can diagnose multiple myeloma?

A

CRAB criterion

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21
Q

what is the crab criterion?

A

c- hyperCalcemia
R- renal insufficiency
A- anemia
B- bone disease

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22
Q

what is an example of an type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A

immediate and rapid suchs as allergies, anaphylaxis, and asthma

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23
Q

what is an example of a type ii reaction?

A

cytotoxic- transfusion reaction

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24
Q

what is an example of type III hypersensitivity reaction?

A

immune complex such as lupus or rheumatoid arthritis

25
Q

what is type 4 hypersensitivity?

A

delayer hypersenstitivty, contact dermatitis to poision ivy, positive TB test, latex allergy

26
Q

how do you treat type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A

o2 100% nonrebreather

27
Q

what is the number one thing to do for a pt experiencing a hypersensitivty reaction type I?

A

Epipen IM, call 911 after giving and can repeat every 5-15 min

28
Q

what are things that could trigger a latex allergy?

A

medical gloves

29
Q

rheumatoid arthritis joints are affected….

A

symetrically

30
Q

when is rheumatoid worse? why?

A

in the morning because of lack of mobility

31
Q

what medicine is given for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

methotrexate

32
Q

when taking methotrexate, what should you also take? why?

A

folic acid to prevent mouth sores

33
Q

scleroderma can cause…

A

raynaunds’s phenomenon

34
Q

what is raynaunds phenomemnon?

A

caused by exposure to cold, fingers become to blanch white and become blue and then red from reactice hyperemia

35
Q

what is the treatment for scleroderma?

A

wear gloves and dress warmly

36
Q

lupus affects the kidneys which means you should watch..

A

urinary output

37
Q

what are the symptoms of lupus?

A

butterfly rash, lupus nephritis, neuropathy

38
Q

what is the treatment for lupus?

A

avoid prolonged sun exposure and wear 50 SPF or higher on daily basis

39
Q

what are the risk factors for gout?

A

obesity, hypertension, eating large amount of meat and seafood, using thiazide diruetics, and consuming large amounts of alcohol

40
Q

what medicine may you use for gout?

A

nsaids such as indomethacin and colchine

41
Q

what is acute gout NEVER treated with first?

A

uric acid lowering agents such as allopurinol

42
Q

what should you teach your patients with gout?

A

avoid alcohol (beer) and avoid high purine foods

43
Q

what should you get before initiating therapy for RA pateints?

A

baseline renal and hepatic functions

44
Q

before the initation of biological therapies, what is needed?

A

a TB test and hepatitis

45
Q

what should you monitor for with DMARDS?

A

CBC and liver enzymes

46
Q

what do DMARDS do?

A

cause immunosuppresion

47
Q

biological therapy dmards increase the risk for

A

infections such as tb and fungal infections and cancer

48
Q

what are some examples of biological therapy DMARDS?

A

infliximad and etanercept

49
Q

what should you be cautious of if your patient is on methotrexate?

A

lab enzymes, take folic acid to prevent ulcers, avoid alcohol, proper birth control measures, patients with renal insufficiency require lower doses

50
Q

scleroderma causes the accumulation of ______ resulting in

A

collagen; damage and hardened skin

51
Q

what are three important manifestations of scleroderma?

A

raynounds, scleroderma renal crisis, and hypertension

52
Q

what are triggering factors for lupus?

A

pregnancy, exercise, sunlight, illness, major surgery, silica dust, medication allergies

53
Q

what are risk factors for developing gout?

A

obesity, hypertension, eating large amounts of meat and seafood, using thiazide diuretics, consuming alcohol

54
Q

what is the nonpharmalogical treatment of gout?

A

weight management

55
Q

what NSAIDS can you give pts with gout?

A

indomethacin and colchicine

56
Q

acute gout is never treated with

A

allopurinol

57
Q

what medicine should be avoided in gout treatment? why?

A

aspirin because it can increase uric acid levels by causing retention of uric acid

58
Q
A