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NURS 104 Final Exam > Exam 5 Blue Packet > Flashcards

Exam 5 Blue Packet Flashcards

1
Q

What is glaucoma?

A

Build up of fluid in the posterior chamber of the eye

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2
Q

What are some drug types for eye disorders?(5)

A

Dyes used to visualize abnormalities
Topical for surgeries
Antiinfectives/antiinflammatories - pink eye
Antihistamines - allergies
Lubricants - dry eyes

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3
Q

What is the most common type of glaucoma?

A

Open angle - plumbing won’t allow outflow of aqueous humor

Chronic

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4
Q

What is closed angle glaucoma?

A

Angle blocked and flow blocked

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5
Q

What are antiglaucoma drug classes?(4)

A

Cholinergic/Anticholinesterase Miotics
Beta blockers
Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors
Osmotics

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6
Q

What drug should you never give to a patient with glaucoma?

A

Anticholinergics - unless HR is very low

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7
Q

What is the antidote for bradycardia caused by cholinergic & anticholinesterase drugs (miotics)?

A

Atropine

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8
Q

What are side effects of miotics? (5)

Think brow

A

Headache
Brow pain
Low vision
Burning
Redness

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9
Q

What can happen if miotics are systemically absorbed?(8)

A

N/V/D
frequent urination
asthma attacks
Increased salivation
Diaphoresis
Muscle weakness
Bradycardia
Low BP

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10
Q

What are signs of miotic toxicity? (6)

A

Vertigo
Bradycardia
Tremors
Low BP
Dysrhythmias
Seizures

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11
Q

How often should you replace Ocusert (Ocular therapeutic system)?

A

Every 7 days

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12
Q

Do not use ocusert if you have any of the following?

A

Retinal detachment
Infection
Styes/adhesions

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13
Q

What is the antidote to Beta blockers?

A

Atropine

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14
Q

When do we use carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?

A

Only if drops are ineffective, oral medication

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15
Q

What is the contraindication of carbonic anhydrase inhibitor?

A

Sulfa allergy

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16
Q

What do all of the newer glaucoma drugs have in their name?

A

~prost

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17
Q

Which type of glaucoma are osmotics typically used for?

A

Closed angle

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18
Q

What is Mannitol (Osmitrol)?

A

Osmotic drug for eye

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19
Q

What do beta blockers block in the eye?

A

Production of aqueous humor, decrease IOP

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20
Q

What do Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitors interfere with in the eye?

A

Production of carbonic acid - lowers aqueous humor - lowers IOP

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21
Q

What type of glaucoma are carbonic anhydrase inhibitors used for?

A

Open angle

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22
Q

What is acetazolamide (Diamox)?

A

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors

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23
Q

What are the side effects of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors? (7)

Think K

A

N/V
Low K+
Photosensitivity
Lethargy
Anorexia
Drowsiness
Polyuria

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24
Q

What is the action of osmotics?

A

Lower vitreous humor - lower IOP

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25
Q

What are the side effects of mannitol? (3)

A

Headache
N/V/D
Electrolyte Imbalances

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26
Q

What are the two actions of anticholinergic mydriatics & cycloplegics?

A

Mydriatics - dilate the pupil
Cycloplegics - paralyze the muscles of accommodation

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27
Q

What are the uses of Mydriatics and cycloplegics?

A

Diagnostic tests
Eye surgery

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28
Q

What is atropine and scopalamine?

A

anticholinergic mydriatic and cycloplegic

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29
Q

What are the side effects of mydriatics and cycloplegics? (5)

A

Headache
Pain
Blurred vision
Increased heart rate
Dry mouth

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30
Q

What is the contraindication to mydriatics and cycloplegics?

A

Glaucoma

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31
Q

What are the steps to administer eye drops? (9)

A

Wash hands
Wear gloves if RN administering
Instruct pt to look up
Clean eye - inner to outer
Press down to expose sac
Administer drops
Gently press on lacrimal sac
Gently close eye 1-2 min
Wait 5 min between doses

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32
Q

What is different about applying eye ointment? (4)

A

Don’t have to press lacrimal sac
1/4 in of ointment onto conj sac
Close eyes for 2-3 min
Apply at bedtime

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33
Q

How do you administer ear drops?

A

Wash hands
Sit with head toward unaffected side
Child <3 - pull down & back on auricle
Adult - pull up & back
Instill drops - room temp
Do not contaminate dropper
Maintain position 2-3 min

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34
Q

What is drug induced dermatitis?

A

Rash, urticaria, papules, or vesicles caused by and adverse reaction to a medication.

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35
Q

What are two types of drug induced dermatitis?

A

Erythema Multiform
Stevens - Johnson Syndrome

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36
Q

What is erythema multiform?

A

Small pox blisters over the body. Life threatening. Dehydration and infection. High fever.

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37
Q

What is Stevens - Johnson syndrome?

A

Blisters in mucosa of body. Mouth esophagus, GI, eyes, nose, rectum, vagina.

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38
Q

What is contact dermititis?

A

Caused by chemical or plant irritation.

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39
Q

What are signs and symptoms of contact dermititis?(6)

A

Rash
Pruritus - itching
Swelling
Blistering
Oozing
Scaling

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40
Q

What are treatments for dermatitis? (6)

A

Wet dressing (burrows solution)
Calamine
Zinc oxide
Glycerin
Topical/systemic antihistamines
Gluccocorticoid ointment/cream/gel

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41
Q

Topicort, Doprosone, Kenalog, and Elocon are all what type of drug?

A

Gluccocorticoid (topical)

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42
Q

What can cause alopecia? (6)

A

Family history
Aging
Drugs (anticancer, gold salts)
Severe fever
Pregnancy
Myxedma- hypothyroidism

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43
Q

What are the two treatments for alopecia?

A

Topical 2% minoxidil (Rogaine solution) - vasodilation

Finasteride (Propecia)

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44
Q

What was Rogaine initially advertised as?

A

Antihypertensive

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45
Q

What is Finasteride also used for?

A

High doses used for BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia) - enlarged prostate

46
Q

What are three considerations for burns?

A

Give lots of fluids
Cover open blisters
Do not pop blisters!

47
Q

What is the reaction of a first degree burn?

A

Epidermis
Redness, pain
Cold wet compress, bacitracin

48
Q

What is the reaction of a second degree burn?

A

Epidermis and lower dermis
Mottled, blistering, pain
Cleanse, topical broad spectrum antibiotic

49
Q

What is the reaction of a third degree burn?

A

Epidermis, dermis, nerve endings, subcutaneous tissue
Pearly white skin, charred, no pain
Cleanse, topical broad spectrum antibiotic

50
Q

What is a risk with third degree burns?

A

Gangrene

51
Q

What is the most used topical antiinfective for 2nd and 3rd degree burns?

A

Sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

52
Q

What do you need to be aware of with Silvadene?

A

Sulfa allergy

53
Q

What are side effects of Silvadene? (8)

A

Skin discolorization
Burning
Rashes
Erythema multiforme
Skin necrosis
Crystalluria
Leukopenia
Avoid during pregnancy

54
Q

What are some nursing interventions for topical antiinfectives? (6)

A

Administer analgesic first
Cleanse and apply - aseptic
Monitor fluid balance, electrolytes, and renal function
Monitor for signs of infection
Monitor for side effects
Store at room temp.

55
Q

How can you tell from drainage if you have a bacterial or viral infection?

A

Clear - viral

Yellow/green - bacterial

56
Q

What are the two instances that the stimulus to increase ventilation is lost?

A

CO2 levels are elevated
O2 levels elevated through O2 therapy

57
Q

What are the four main upper respiratory infections?

A

Common cold
Acute rhinitis
Sinusitis
Acute pharyngitis

58
Q

What is the action of antihistamines?

A

Decrease nasopharyngeal secretions by blocking the H1 receptor.

59
Q

What are antihistamines used for?

A

Colds
Allergic rhinitis

60
Q

What is the difference between 1st and 2nd generation antihistamines?`

A

2nd generation has fewer side effects and non drowsy - loratadine

~tadine=allergy
~tidine=GI

61
Q

What are side effects of antihistamines?(6)

A

Dry mouth - 1
Drowsiness - 1
Dizziness
Fatigue
Disturbed coordination
Skin rashes

62
Q

Who should you not give Benedryl to?

A

Patients with closed angle glaucoma

63
Q

What is the action of nasal decongestants?

A

Stimulate the alpha-adrenergic receptors thus producing vascular constriction of the capillaries within the nasal mucosa.

Result - shrinking nasal mucosa and decreased secretions

64
Q

What three forms can you get nasal decongestants?

A

Nasal spray
Oral
Drops

65
Q

What are Ephedrine and Pseudoephedrin?

A

Systemic decongestants

66
Q

What are some considerations for decongestants? (2)

A

BP and glucose levels can increase
Avoid caffeine

67
Q

What are some contraindications for decongestants? (4)

A

Diabetes
Hypertension
Hyperthyroidism
Cardiac disease

68
Q

What are 3 side effects of decongestants?

A

Jittery
Nervousness
Restless

69
Q

What are flonase and nasocort?

A

Intranasal Glucocorticoids

70
Q

What is the action of antitussives?

A

Act on the cough control center in the medulla to suppresss the cough reflex.

71
Q

What medications should not be taken with antitussives? (5)

A

Sedatives
Alcohol
Narcotics
Antidepressants
Barbituates

72
Q

What is the best antitussive?

A

Delsyn

73
Q

What type of cough would you use an antitussive on?

A

Dry and unproductive

74
Q

What is the action of an expectorant?

A

Loosen bronchial secretions so they may be eliminated by coughing.

75
Q

What is the best expectorant?

A

Water!

76
Q

What is guaifeneson?

A

Mucinex
Expectorant

77
Q

What does COPD stand for?

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

78
Q

What are five lower respiratory diseases associated with COPD?

A

Chronic airflow limitation
Bronchial asthma
Chronic asthma
Bronchiectasis
Emphysema

79
Q

What are the five medications for COPD?

A

Bronchodilators - open airway
Glucocorticoids - decrease inflammation
Leukotriene - reduce inflammation in lung tissues
Expectorants - loosen mucous
Antibiotics - Prevent infections

80
Q

What is the use of sympathomimetics?

A

Mimic the sympathetic nervous system

81
Q

Compare adrenergic antagonist and agonist?

A

Antagonist = Beta blocker ~lol Lower BP and HR, Bronchial constriction, pupil constriction

Agonist = ~ol
Increase BP and HR, Bronchial dilation, Pupil dilation

82
Q

When might you need to use a spacer?

A

If someone is having difficulty using an inhaler correctly.

83
Q

What is the ‘rescue inhaler’?

A

Albuterol

84
Q

What are the three types of inhalers?

A

Bronchial dilators
Steroids
Mucilitics

85
Q

What drug mimics the parasympathetic system?

A

Anticholinergics

86
Q

What are the effects of anticholinergics?

A

Can’t see - pupil dilation
Can’t pee - urine retention
Can’t spit - dried secretions
Can’t shit - constipation
Tachycardia
Increased BP
Bronchial dilation

87
Q

What is Theophylline?

A

Xanthine derivative

88
Q

What are bronchodilators like theophylline used for? (4)

A

Asthma
Stimulate CNS and respiration
Vasodilation
Cause diuresis

89
Q

What is the action of theophylline?

A

Relaxes smooth muscle of the bronchi, bronchioles, and pulmonary vessels

90
Q

What is the therapeutic range for theophylline?

A

10-20 ug/ml

91
Q

When should you NOT use theophylline?(6)

A

Seizure disorders
Cardiac, liver, renal disease
Hyperthyroidism
Children
Smokers
Diabetics

92
Q

What should you not have with theophylline?

A

Caffeine

93
Q

What are side effects of theophylline? (12)

A

Anorexia
N/V
Gastric pain
Intestinal bleeding
Nervousnous
Headache
Dysrythmias
Tachycardia
Palpitations
Dizziness
Hypotension
Seizures

94
Q

What drug interactions does theophylline have? (9)

A

Beta blockers
Tagamet
Propanolol
Erythromycin
Barbituates
Carbamazepine
Digitalis toxicity
Lithium
Beta adrenergic agonists

95
Q

What is Singulair (montelukast)?

A

Leukotriene receptor antagonist and synthesis inhibitor

Monteluekast
Leukotrine
Asthma

96
Q

What is the action of singulair?

A

Decrease airway wall edema and mucus production

97
Q

In what forms can you get glucocorticoids?

A

MDI Inhaler
Tablet
Injection

98
Q

What should you do after using a steroid inhaler?

A

Rinse mouth

99
Q

What is acetylcystine (mucomyst)?

A

Mucolytic

100
Q

What is the action of mucolytics?

A

Liquefy and loosen thick mucus

101
Q

What are side effects of mucomyst? (3)

A

N/V
Stomatitis
Runny nose

102
Q

What is mucomyst the antidote for?

A

Acetominophen

103
Q

What do acetylcholinesterase inhibitors do? Opposite of anticholinergics

A

Pupil constriction
Urinary outflow
Salivation/diaphoresis
Diarrhea
Bradycardia
Low BP
Bronchial constriction

104
Q

What is an agonist?

A

Produce a response

105
Q

What is an antagonist?

A

Block a response

106
Q

What is the action of Albuterol (Proventil)?

A

Acts on beta2 adrenergic receptors

Promotes bronchodilation

107
Q

What are the uses of albuterol?

A

Treat bronchospasm
Asthma
Bronchitis
COPD

108
Q

Cautions for albuterol?

A

Severe cardiac disease
Hypertension
Hyperthyroidism
Diabetes
Pregnancy

109
Q

What are the side effects of proventil (albuterol)?

A

Tremors, nervousness, restlessness
Dizziness
Reflex tachycardia
Hallucinations
Cardiac dysrhythmias

110
Q

What are drug interactions does albuterol have? (4)

A

May increase effect of:
sympathomimetics
MAOIs
Tricyclic antidepressants
May block effect of beta blockers

111
Q

What is the generic name for Proventil?

A

Albuterol

NURS 104 Final Exam (5 decks)

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