Exam 2 Orange Packet Flashcards

1
Q

What are the ten categories of antibiotics?

A

Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Macrolides
Sulfonamides
Tetracyclines
Aminoglycosides
Flouroquinolones
Glycopeptides
Lipopeptides
Carbapenems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are three adverse reactions of all antibiotics?

A

Allergy (hypersensitivity)
Superinfection
Organ toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What antibiotic do we use for almost all upper respiratory infections?

A

Penicillins!

95% of upper respiratory infections are caused by strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What two step are you going to take when administering antibiotics?

A

Always send a culture before starting!

Start with a broad spectrum antibiotic like tetracyclines or cephalosporins until culture is back to show a specific.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If a patient is allergic to penicillins, what other antibiotic should you monitor closely for allergy as well?

A

Cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When a patient is on penicillin, what are you assessing? (3)

A

Liver enzymes
Urine output - lower dose if u/o is low
BUN Creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How long should you take antibiotics?

A

Until the prescription is finished. Do not stop taking early just because you are feeling better.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Should you take antibiotics with food?

A

No, you should preferable take on an empty stomach. Food decreases absorption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are side effects of ALL antibiotics? (6)

A

N/V/D - take on empty stomach
Ineffective birth control
Photosensitivity
Allergic reaction
Superinfection
Assess kidney and liver function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Aminoglycosides are inactivated by what other antibiotic?

A

Penicillins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What should I avoid when taking Penicillin?

A

Fruit juices/acidic beverages
Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What nursing intervention is a higher priority for the client who is taking a cephalosporin?
A. Wait until culture results are received before initiating antibiotic.
B. Monitor the client for signs and symptoms of a superinfection.
C. Administer IV cephalosporins over 2 hours to prevent phlebitis.
D. Instruct the client to take the drug for 5 days only.

A

B. Superinfection is a common side effect of antibiotics.

You always start a broad spectrum antibiotic while waiting on the culture results.

Check a drug guide to determine IV push time. Usually 30-45 minutes for Cephalosporins.

Typical course of antibiotics is 7-10 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are antibiotic substitutes for a patient allergic to Penicillin?

A

Erythromycin (Macrolides)
Sulfonamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which antibiotic is it important to IV push VERY slowly to avoid phlebitis?

A

Macrolides - monitor liver!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the two ‘tank’ antibiotics?

A

Vancomycin
Gentomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What two toxicities are you monitoring for when administering Vancomycin and Gentamycin?

A

Ototoxicity
Nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Vancomycin and Gentamycin have very narrow therapeutic ranges, what is important to monitor to avoid toxicity?

A

Peaks and Troughs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which antibiotic can cause Red Man Syndrome?

A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What should you avoid if you are taking Tetracyclines? (3)

A

Dairy/Milk products
Iron Supplements
Antacids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a side effect in children that are taking Tetracyclines?

A

Teeth discoloration (brown teeth, typically under the age of 8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which antibiotic cannot be absorbed through the GI tract?

A

Aminoglycosides (Gentamycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The ‘tank’ antibiotics cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity, what are you going to monitor?

A

Hearing
Balance
Urine Output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is in the name of all Flouroquinolones?

A

~floxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the antibiotics is ‘the bomb’?

A

Daptomycin - Lipopeptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What can you NOT mix Daptomycin IVs with?

A

Dextrose IV solutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What adverse effects are caused by lipopeptides (Daptomycin)?

A

Chest pain
Potassium changes
Bleeding
Pleural Effusions
Blood sugar changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which antibiotic can cause BP changes, dizziness, numbness, and burning with urination.

A

Lipopeptides (Dapto)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which antibiotic is 90% effective against E.Coli, thus used for UTIs?

A

Sulfonamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are some adverse reactions of Sulfonamides? (2)

A

Blood dyscrasias (~enia, ~emia, ~cyto)
Crystalluria - increase fluids!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a combo sulfa drug that increases the desired drug response and makes it so that bacterial resistance develops much more slowly?

A

Bactrim - do not give with severe liver or renal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which teaching is a higher priority for the client who is taking the sulfonamide TMP-SMX (Bactrim)?
A. Encourage an increase in fluid intake.
B. Report signs of ototoxicity.
C. Individuals taking this drug are not affected by sun exposure.
D. Take with dairy products or antacids to protect stomach.

A

A. Fluids should be increased to at least 2000 mL/d

Ototoxicity is not a common adverse reaction to sulfonamides

Photosensitivity is common for all antibiotics

Dairy product and antacids decrease absorption

32
Q

Which antibiotics have a sulfa cross-sensitivity?

A

Sulfonamides - always check to make sure drugs are not sulfa-derivatives!

33
Q

What do all Carbapenems have in their name?

A

~penems

34
Q

What are some contraindications for Carbapenems? (4)

A

Seizure disorders
Meningitis
Pregnancy/Lactation
Children

35
Q

You are watching for colitis, C. Diff when on which antibiotic?

A

Carbapenems

36
Q

What medication is given to someone that has been EXPOSED to TB?

A

INH (isoniazid)

37
Q

What medication is given to someone DIAGNOSED with TB?

A

INH/Rifampin combination

38
Q

INH can cause peripheral neuropathy, what can you give them to help prevent it?

A

Vitamin B6

39
Q

What are some side effects of antitubercular drugs? (5)

A

Drowsiness
Tremors
Rash
Blurred Vision
Photosensitivity

40
Q

What are some adverse reactions to antitubercular drugs? (5)

A

Psychotic behavior
Peripheral neuropathy - Vit B6
Hepatotoxicity - monitor liver enzymes
Seizures
Blood dyscrasias

41
Q

What are the two types of Antifungal (antimycotic) drugs that we are focusing on?

A

Polyenes
Imidazoles

42
Q

What are the two different types of fungal infections?

A

Systemic
Superficial

43
Q

What is the drug of choice for severe systemic fungal infections?

A

Amphotericin B (Polyene) - given IV only

44
Q

What are some common side effects to the antifungal medication polyenes? (4)

A

N/V/D
Flush
Fever
Chills

45
Q

What are some common adverse effects of polyenes? (2)

A

Nephrotoxicity
Electrolyte imbalance

46
Q

What are you going to monitor while your patient is taking polyenes? (4)

A

Urine output
Electrolytes
BUN Creatinine
Magnesium

47
Q

What is nystatin?

A

It is an antifungal polyene that is topical or oral. It is used for superficial infections like thrush (swish and swallow) It is poorly absorbed, excreted in feces.

48
Q

Which antifungal is used for candidiasis (superficial and systemic)?

A

Imidazole Antifungals (can be given PO)
~azole
Ketoconazole, Fluconazole

49
Q

Which teaching is a priority for the client who is taking fluconazole (Diflucan)?
A. Take concurrent vitamin B6 to prevent peripheral neuropathy.
B. Take 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals.
C. Advise that hypoglycemia may occur with concurrent oral hypoglycemics.
D. Warn that gingival hyperplasia may occur with prolonged use.

A

C. Hypoglycemia may occur with patients taking fluconazole and sulfonylurea.

Vitamin B6 may prevent neuropathy in patients taking INH.

INH should be taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals

Gingival hyperplasia may occur as an adverse reaction of acyclovir (Herpes antiviral)

50
Q

Which antifungal is used as an antibiotic, as they interfere with the bacterial cell membrane function?

A

Peptides - bacitracin

51
Q

What can Metronidazole (Flagyl) treat?

A

H. Pylori
IBS
Trichomoniasis
Bacterial Vaginosis
Perioperative Prophylaxis

52
Q

What is a common side effect of flagyl?

A

Discolored urine

53
Q

What is the main antimalarial drug?

A

Chloroquine HCL

54
Q

What are the three methods used to eradicate malaria?

A

Prophylaxis (prevention)
Treatment of acute attack
Prevention of relapse

55
Q

Where is Chloroquine HCL metabolized?

A

Liver - monitor enzymes

56
Q

What are some adverse effects of Chloroquine? (4)

A

Ototoxicity
GI upset
Renal impairment
Toxicity and death in children

57
Q

What are antihelmintic drugs used to treat?

A

Parasitic worms - tapeworms, roundworms, flukes

58
Q

What are the two side effects of antihelmintic drugs?

A

GI upset
Neuro problems like drowsiness or tiredness

Adverse effects are rare due to short durations of use.

59
Q

What is the most appropriate nursing implication for a client who is taking Antimalarial drugs?

A. Collect stool sample.
B. Assess the client’s hearing.
C. Advise the client to take showers, not baths.
D. Encourage females to have a pap test every 6 months.

A

B. Antimalarials can cause ototoxicity.

Monitoring for stools and showers are appropriate for antihelmintics.

Pap tests are recommended for genital herpes.

60
Q

What are signs and symptoms of a viral infection?

A

Headache
Low grade fever
N/V/D
Muscle pain
Fatigue
Cough

61
Q

Which vaccine is recommended annually?

A

Influenza vaccine - 60-90% effective

62
Q

What is a contraindication of the flu vaccine?

A

Allergy to eggs

63
Q

What is the timeframe that you must take an influenza antiviral for it to be effective?

A

Within 48 hours of symptoms

64
Q

Zanamir (Relenza) and Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) are which type of medications?

A

Influenza antivirals

65
Q

What drug is used as a passive form of immunity to a virus by blocking the penetration of the virus into the host cell?

A

Gamma Globulin (Immune Globulin)

66
Q

How is Gamastan (human immune globulin) administered?

A

IM

67
Q

How long will Gamma Globulin protect?

A

2-3 weeks

68
Q

How is Gamimune N (immune globulin) given?

A

IV - immediate

69
Q

What is acyclovir used to treat?

A

Herpes virus

70
Q

What can Herpes/Cytomegalovirus antivirals be used to treat?

A

Herpes simplex virus
Shingles
Chicken Pox
RSV - Ribavirin - aerosol

71
Q

What are some common side effects of acyclovir (Zovirax)? (5)

A

GI disturbances
Headache
Dizziness
Hematuria (blood in urine)
Elevated BUN Creatinine

72
Q

What are some common adverse effects of acyclovir?

A

Decrease in hemoglobin, WBC, and platelets
Thrombophlebitis
Hepatotoxicity

73
Q

What is viral load?

A

The measurement of how much HIV in in the blood.
Determines how well treatment is working.
Decrease in VL should be within 16-24 weeks.

74
Q

What is the current treatment recommendation for HIV?

A

Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) - three drugs from several categories.

2 NRTI’s 1NNRTI
2 NRTI’s or 2 protease inhibitors

75
Q

What can non-adherence of HAART therapy lead to?

A

Resistant viral strains