Exam 4- Vaccination, Deworming, Dehorning Flashcards
What are the 3 goals of vaccination programs?
- Protect against agents or diseases most likely to be encountered
- Protect during the period of maximum challenge
- Do no harm!
What is the appropriate site to administer sub q injections to cattle?
Neck triangle bounded by the spinal column, shoulder, and jugular furrow. Can go slightly more caudal than for IM injections.
True or False: A vaccine dose is not determined by weight of an animal
True
What is the appropriate site to administer IM injections to cattle?
Neck triangle bounded by the spinal column, shoulder, and jugular furrow.
How long after the initial dose should the booster dose be administered?
2 weeks is minimum, 4 weeks is better
Why are injection sites and needle sizes important in cattle?
Beef Quality Assurance (BQA)
How are “core” vaccines defined?
AVMA definition: those “that protect from
diseases that are endemic to a region, those with potential public health significance, required by law, virulent/highly infectious, and/or those posing a risk of severe disease”
What does “window of susceptibility” mean regarding immunity?
The ‘window of susceptibility’ occurs when there is no longer sufficient maternal antibody to provide full protection from infectious disease, but where sufficient antibody remains to block the ability of the animal to make its own immune response.
What are the 4 agents that cause scours which we vaccinate for?
– Enterotoxigenic E. coli
– Rotavirus
– Coronavirus
– Clostridium perfringens type C
What are the 3 ways to protect calves from scours?
1- vaccinate springing heifers and dry cows
2- vaccinate newborns
3- Provide monoclonal antibodies to newborns
What is the timing of calf scours vaccination of springing heifers and dry cows?
- Primer and booster in springing heifers, annual booster thereafter
– Booster needs to be at least 3 weeks pre-fresh, meaning primer should go 60-75 days
pre-fresh
What type of vaccine is used to prevent scours and are given to springing heifers and dry cows?
Scour Guard® 4KC (killed virus, bacterin-toxoid):
Rotavirus, Coronavirus, K99+ E. coli, Clostridium perfringens type C
What is the timing and route of administration when vaccinating newborn calves against calf scours?
Administered orally before the calf nurses
What type of vaccine is used to vaccinate newborn calves against calf scours?
Vaccinate newborns (MLV, modified-live)
Calf-Guard®: Rotavirus, Coronavirus
What are 2 non-vaccine options for treatment of newborn calves for the prevention of scours?
Provide monoclonal antibodies to newborns
■ First Defense® : K99+ E. coli , Coronavirus antibody
■ Tri-shield First Defense®: Rotavirus, Coronavirus, E. coli antibody
Why is the timing of the primer and booster dose of a killed scours vaccines so critical for a springing heifer?
Because you have to time the vaccine booster to coincide with the time colostrum is produced so that the maternal antibodies can be transferred to the calf orally via the colostrum
Why do oral MLV vaccines need to be given before the calf nurses?
So that maternal antibodies in colostrum don’t interfere with the vaccine’s ability to elicit an immune response in the calf
What 4 respiratory pathogens do we vaccinate newborn calves against?
Viral respiratory disease
– Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR)
– Bovine respiratory syncytial virus (BRSV)
– Parainfluenza 3 (PI3)
What is an example of a respiratory vaccine used in newborn calves? What does it cover, what type of vaccine is it, what is the route of administration, and what is the timing of dosing?
Example: INFORCE™ 3
Bovine Rhinotracheitis, Parainfluenza3-Respiratory Syncytial Virus
Modified Live Virus
For intranasal use only
Typically administered at birth
Why do intranasal vaccines allow for greater flexibility in timing of administration?
Mucosal IgA response does not interfere with maternal antibodies
What vaccine is used to prevent septicemia in newborn calves?
Live culture for Salmonella Dublin
What are the 4 diseases that we vaccinate 4-8 month old calves against?
- Respiratory disease
- Leptospirosis
- Clostridial diseases
- Brucellosis
What type of respiratory vaccine is used in 4-8 month old calves?
5-way MLV: BVD I, BVD II, BRSV, IBR and PI3
How long do maternal antibodies interfere with vaccination of calves? How does this impact vaccination schedules?
Maternal antibodies may interfere up to 6 months
Re-vaccination after 6 months is recommended
What are the clinical signs of Leptospirosis in calves? What are the clinical signs of Leptospirosis in adult cattle?
In calves: septicemia - fever, hemolytic anemia, hemoglobinuria, jaundice.
In breeding age heifers and adults - reproductive failure, abortion.
What is the host-adapted serovar of Leptospirosis for cattle?
Serovar Hardjo-bovis
What are 2 types of Leptospirosis vaccines available for use in cattle? How is it recommended to use them?
5-way
and
Monovalent: serovar Hardjo-bovis
Current recommendation: vaccine protocols should include use of both multivalent and
monovalent products
What are the 8 Clostridial pathogens that we can use Clostridium bacterin-toxoids to protect against in calves?
C. perfringens C
C. perfringens D
C. chauvoei
C. hemolyticum
C. novyi
C. septicum
C. sordelli
C. tetani
Which cattle do we vaccinate against Brucella abortus?
Female cattle only, 4-12 months of age
What are the special requirements for vaccination of cattle against Brucella abortus? Why is this?
Must be administered by an accredited veterinarian, officially reported, and animal permanently identified. Animal will appear positive on serotesting after vaccination.
What is the standard of care during banding of cattle, vaccination-wise?
Tetanus vaccination should be standard of care when cattle are being banded for
castration
What are the 2 biggest causes of morbidity and morality in pre-weaned calves?
Pre-weaned calf scours and respiratory disease are major causes of morbidity
and mortality on dairy farms
What types of farms should consider vaccinating pre-weaned calves for scours and respiratory disease?
Viral scours and respiratory vaccines should be strongly considered on all farms
What component of bacteria cause endotoxemia? Gr + or Gr - ? What are 2 important examples of these types of bacteria?
LPS (lipopolysaccharide), Gram negative bacteria share a common
set of LPS core antigens in their outer membranes, E. coli, Salmonella enterica
What is a core antigen vaccine and what does it do?
Core antigen vaccines help prevent
endotoxemia caused by a multitude of
gram-negative agents
– Mastitis caused by E. coli (J-Vac®)
– Salmonellosis caused by Salmonella typhimurium (Endovac-Dairy®)
What is the dosing schedule for core antigen vaccines in springing heifers?
Primer and booster required for springing
heifers, followed by annual re-vaccination
What is a Siderophore receptor porin vaccine and what does it protect against? What age of cattle is it used in and what is the dosing schedule?
SRP is an additional Salmonella vaccine containing siderophore receptor porin which is involved in iron transport into bacteria.
■ Effective at reducing fecal shedding of Salmonella Newport and controlling
disease caused by different serotypes of Salmonella
■ Can be administered to cattle > 6 months of age
■ Primer and booster required
In adult cattle, what vaccines should be considered for annual re-vaccination?
In adult cattle consider annual re-vaccination with:
– 5-way MLV respiratory vaccine
– 7 or 8-way clostridial vaccine
– SRP
What vaccines should be considered for cows at dry off?
At dry-off
– Gram-negative core antigen vaccine
– Calf scours vaccine
What components are necessary to elicit an appropriate immune response, other than the vaccine itself?
Immune response requires low stress, good
nutrition and health
What are the major dairy cattle diseases for which there are commercially
available vaccines?
Rotavirus, Coronavirus, E. coli, Clostridia, Salmonella, BVD I, BVD II, BRSV, IBR, PI3, Siderophore, Bovine Rhinotracheitis, Brucellosis
Explain the three ways to confer protection against calf scours
1- Vaccinate springing heifers and dry cows with killed virus/bacterin-toxoid vaccine Scour Guard® 4KC against Rotavirus, Coronavirus, K99+ E. coli, Clostridium perfringens type C
2- Vaccinate newborns (modified-live)
Calf-Guard®: Rotavirus, Coronavirus administered orally before the calf nurses
3- Provide monoclonal antibodies to newborns like First Defense® (K99+ E. coli , Coronavirus antibody) or Tri-shield First Defense® (Rotavirus, Coronavirus, E. coli antibody)
What are the risk factors and clinical signs of coccidiosis?
Risk factors: high egg burden in the environment, young, nonimmune, stressed (hutches to group pens), co-infection with respiratory viruses, multiple ages housed together, poor sanitation/high fecal contamination in environment.
Clinical signs: Profuse diarrhea (+/- blood), poor condition, reduced weight gain
What is the infective stage of coccidia? Where are they found?
Sporulated oocysts, fecal contaminated environment
What are the clinical signs of ostertagiasis?
Ill thrift, poor growth, anorexia, diarrhea, hypoproteinemia
What is the difference between types 1 & 2 Ostertagiasis?
Type I is gradual ingestion of L3 larvae and development over ~ 3 weeks. Type II is larvae from a previous season that were in hypobiotic state becoming active all at once and causing severe clinical disease.
What are the 3 most important internal parasites (general categories) of dairy cattle in WI?
– Lungworm (Dictyocaulus viviparus)
– Coccidiosis
– “HOT” complex GI nematodes (Hemonchus, Ostertagia, Strongyles)
What are the 3 most important external parasites (general categories) of dairy cattle in WI?
– Mange (mites)
– Lice
– Ringworm
What organism causes verminous pneumonia in cattle?
Lungworms aka Dictyocaulus viviparous
What are the clinical signs of verminous pneumonia? Related issues?
Clinical disease characterized by bronchitis and pneumonia
– Parasite induced hypersensitivity
– Secondary bacterial infection
Which populations of cattle are most affected by verminous pneumonia?
Pastured calves in first grazing season