Exam 4 - PGT (cont.) and Birth Defects Flashcards

1
Q

What can be determined from PGS (PGT-A) and PGD (PGT-M)?

A

PGS/PGT-A : number of chromosomes, aneuploidy, sex, mosaicism, etc.
PGD/PGT-M: specific gene mutations/single gene disorders

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2
Q

What are arguments in favor of universal PGT-A?

A

decreased termination due to aneuploidy
increased pregnancy rates
reduced miscarriage rates

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3
Q

What is aCGH?

A

array comparative genomic hybridization

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4
Q

Why does PGT-A increase ongoing pregnancy rates and decrease pregnancy loss rate?

A

embryos with aCGH testing prior to transfer means only euploid embryos get transferred

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5
Q

What are some considerations for PGT?

A

genetic counseling must include alternate strategies (such as donor gametes or adoption)
diagnostic methodology may be expensive
biopsy may damage embryo
not all genetic abnormalities can be diagnosed
there may be no “unaffected” embryos to transfer
controversial applications (gender selection, savior siblings, designer babies)
misdiagnosis may result from mosaicism
prenatal diagnosis is recommended for confirmation of PGS/PGD

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6
Q

What is a birth defect?

A

abnormality of structure, function, or metabolism that is present at birth and results in a physical or mental disability/death

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7
Q

What is a congenital defect?

A

any physical anomaly which is recognizable at birth

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8
Q

How common are birth defects?

A

about 120,000 babies (1 in 33) in the US are born with birth defects each year

leading cause of death in the first year of life

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9
Q

What are the three causes of birth defects?

A

chromosomal defects, single gene defects, and environmental factors

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10
Q

What are chromosomal birth defects?

A

too many or too few chromosomes (aneuploidy) such as trisomy 21, 13, and 18

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11
Q

What are single gene defects?

A

mutation in a gene (or multiple genes) causes a disorder
ex:
achondroplasia, cystic fibrosis, hemophilia

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12
Q

What are environmental factor birth defects?

A

teratogens (environmental substances that cause birth defects)
ex:
alcohol (cause fetal alcohol syndrome)
drugs/medication (cocaine, acne medication isotretinoin)
infections (STDs)

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13
Q

How can birth defect risk be reduced?

A

consult a genetic counselor if birth defects are present in family history, avoid smoking/alcohol/drugs, STD screening, multivitamin with folic acid

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14
Q

What is the recommended folic acid dose?

A

400 micrograms to 4 mg

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15
Q

When does neural tube formation occur? Why is this important?

A

15-28 days of development (from fertilization)
often before women know they are pregnant so defects can be attributed to environmental (or genetic) factors

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16
Q

What are the two neural tube defects we discussed? How do they happen?

A

anencephaly:
- upper part of neural tube does not close all the way
- baby is born with parts of brain and skull missing

spina bifida:
- can happen anywhere along the spine where lower part of the neural tube doesn’t close all the way
- causes physical and mental disability that range from mild to severe

17
Q

Failure of the neural plate to fuse in what regions cause anencephaly and spina bifida?

A

anencephaly: failure to close in region 2

spina bifida: failure to close in region 5

18
Q

What processes are folic acid important for?

A

DNA synthesis, DNA repair, DNA methylation, cofactor in biological reactions, rapid cell division and growth, preventing major birth defects in brain and spine such as anencephaly and spina bifida

19
Q

How much does folic acid decrease risk of neural tube defects?

A

decrease risk by 50-70%

20
Q

How has the government tried to increase women’s intake of folic acid?

A

1992, US Public Health Service recommended women of childbearing age increase consumption of folic acid to reduce spina bifida and anencephalus

1996, FDA authorized that all enriched cereal grain products be fortified with folic acid

21
Q

What ways can birth defects be diagnosed before birth?

A

blood tests, ultrasound, chorionic villus sampling, amniocentesis

22
Q

How can blood tests be used to test for birth defects?

A

Non Invasive Prenatal Testing (NIPT) done as early as 7 weeks from LMP

uses cell free fetal DNA:
- primary source in maternal circulation though to be apoptosis of placental cells (syncytiotrophoblasts)
- most reliably used for sex determination and sex linked disorders, potential for gender discrimination
- most commonly used to diagnose trisomy 13, 18, and 21 and single gene defects of paternal origin

23
Q

How is ultrasound used in each trimester?

A

first trimester: establish dates of pregnancy, detect heartbeat by 7 weeks from LMP, fetal movement at 7-8 weeks, number of fetuses, ectopic pregnancy or miscarriage

second trimester: fetal anatomy for presence of abnormalities, discover sex of fetus around 14 weeks

third trimester: monitor fetal growth, check amount of amniotic fluid, determine position of fetus and placenta

24
Q

What is CVS?

A

chorionic villus sampling

  • performed between 10-12 weeks from LMP (when placenta is fully functional)
  • sample of placental tissue taken under ultrasound guidance (contains same genetic info as fetus and can be tested for chromosomal abnormalities and some other genetic defects)
  • does not provide info on neural tube defects
25
Q

What type of procedure is used for CVS?

A

transcervical or transabdominal, depending on the position of the fetus in the uterus

26
Q

What is amniocentesis?

A

performed between 15-20 weeks from LMP (when the volume of amniotic fluid is max relative to size of fetus)

sample of fluid that surrounds the fetus taken under ultrasound guidance, contains cells shed by the fetus and alpha fetoprotein (indicates neural tube defect)

provides info about neural tube defects, chromosomal abnormalities, and some other genetic defects

27
Q

Chromosomal abnormalities cannot be detected by which method of testing?

A

ultrasound

28
Q

Cells in the amniotic fluid are identical to cells of…

A

the fetus

29
Q

Describe the risk/benefit ratio for CVS and amniocentesis

A

Starting at age 35, the risk of CVS or amniocentesis causing miscarriage is lower than the risk of having a baby with down syndrome

Before 35, the risk of miscarriage is greater than the risk of having a baby with down syndrome

30
Q

What are arguments in favor of prenatal screening?

A

pursue interventions, plan for child with special needs, address anticipated lifestyle changes, identify support groups and resources, make decisions about carrying child to term

31
Q

What are arguments against prenatal screening?

A

parents should accept results regardless of outcome, making decisions about carrying a child to term is not an option because of personal/moral/religious reasons, testing may pose risk of harming the developing baby

32
Q

How are birth defects diagnosed after birth?

A

newborn screening tests
- every state screens newborns before they leave the hospital for certain genetic, metabolic,
hormonal and functional disorders
- most birth defects have no immediate visible
effects on a baby but, unless detected and treated early, can cause physical problems, mental
retardation and, in some cases, death
- except for hearing screening, all newborn
screening tests are done using a few drops of blood
from newborn’s heel

33
Q

How many disorders does the state of Arizona screen for in newborn screening? What are the categories of disorders?

A

31
endocrine, amino acid, fatty acid oxidation, organic acid, hemoglobin, other disorders
hearing loss, critical congenital heart defects

34
Q

What is PKU? How is it treated?

A

phenylketouria

  • babies cant process phenylalanine (amino acid in most food)
  • affects 1/25,000 babies
  • without treatment, it builds up in bloodstream and causes brain damage and mental retardation
  • treatment is a low-phenylalanine diet that is generally followed throughout life