Exam 4 Blueprint Flashcards

1
Q

What is a macule?

A

circular, flat discoloration < 1 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a papule?

A

superficial, solid, elevated <0.5 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a plaque/annular?

A

ring-like with central clearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a vesicle?

A

circular collection of free fluid < 1 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Wha is a pustule?

A

vesicle containing pus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why are children at risk for skin injuries?

A

due to their developmental immaturity, they suffer accidental minor injuries frequently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Approximately one in ____ children experience child abuse or neglect

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a non accidental injury to a child

A

done with harm intent ; child abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the types of injuries?

A

abrasions, lacerations, bites, bruises, burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where are common sites of bruises (these are caused by normal play)

A

-forehead
-eyebrows
-elbows
-shins
-knees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Questionable sites for bruises in children include places such as ?

A

-thighs
-calves
-neck
-back
-tops of shoulders
-etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Risk factors for child abuse include

A

-poverty
-prematurity
-chronic illness
-intellectual ability
-parent w/abuse history
-unrelated partner
-alcohol/substance abuse
-extreme stressors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why are premature infants, children with intellectual ability, and children with chronic diseases at higher risk of maltreatment?

A

it is harder to care for them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If a child comes into the ED with injuries in uncommon locations (such as backside) and has multiple in places other than the legs, the nurse should be suspicious of

A

child abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Bruises in an infant <9 months should raise suspicion to?

A

child abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What should the nurse observe for if she is working in the ED and suspects child abuse?

A

-frequent visits / delay in seeking care
- inconsistent stories
-unusual caregiver-child interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Physical cues of abuse include?

A

-suspicious location
-injuries in various stages of healing
-fear of parents
-lack of emotional responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Infant <6 months sun safety rules

A

-keep out of direct sunlight
-use minimal sunscreen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What extra clothing can a child wear to increase sun safety

A

-hats
-sun shirts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Sun exposure time should be limited between what hours

A

10am - 4 pm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why should sunscreen be broad spectrum

A

-screens out other UVA and UVB rays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Requirements for choosing a good sunscreen:

A

-fragrance and oxybenzone free
-spf 15 or higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What can be applied to nose, cheeks, ears, and shoulder areas to provide extra sun protection

A

zinc oxide products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Sunscreen should be applied 30 minutes before activity, and reapplied how often?

A

-q 80-90 min if in water
-at LEAST q 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the primary burn assessment the nurse should perform when a child comes to the ED?

A
  1. assess if airway is patent
    2.determine if airway injury is present
    3.evaluate child’s skin color, respiratory effort, pulse ox, ABG, carboxyhemoglobin levels, and breath sounds
    4.determine pulse strength, perfusion status, and HR
    5.note any edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

IF a client experiences an electrical burn, what do they require?

A

an EKG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

S/s of airway injury from burn or inhalation include?

A

-burns to face/lips
-nose hairs singed
-black sputum
-stridor, hoarseness, wheezing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The secondary assessment a nurse should perform upon child admission to the ED with burns is?

A
  1. determine burn depth
  2. estimate burn extend by calculating BSA affected
  3. inspect child for other traumatic injuries (I.E spinal cord injury)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe a first degree burn:

A

damage to epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Appearance of first-degree burn:

A

-pink to red in color
-no blisters
-blanches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe a second degree Superficial Partial Thickness burn

A

-damage to the entire epidermis
-dermal elements remain intact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Appearance of a second degree Superficial Partial Thickness burn

A

-moist, red, painful
-blisters
-mild to moderate edema
-blanches
-no eschar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Describe a second degree Deep Partial Thickness burn

A

-damage to the entire epidermis and some parts of the dermis
-sweat glands and hair follicles remain intact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe the appearance of a second degree Deep Partial Thickness burn

A

-mottled, red to white
-blisters
-moderate edema
-blanches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Describe a third degree burn

A

-damage to the entire epidermis and dermis
-possible damage to subcutaneous tissue
-nerve endings, hair follicles, and sweat glands are destroyed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the appearance of a third degree burn?

A

-red to tan, black, brown, or waxy white color
-dry, leathery appearance
-no blanching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Describe a fourth degree burn

A

-damage to all layers of the skin that extends to muscle, fascia, and bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Describe the appearance of a fourth degree burn

A

-color variable
-dull and dry
-charring
-possible visible ligaments, bone, and tendons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What type of burn is painful, heals in 3-5 days, and has no scarring

A

first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What type of burn is painful, heals in < 21 days. Has variable amts of scarring, is sensitive to temperature changes/air/light touch

A

superficial partial thickness burn (2nd)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What type of burn is painful, is sentive to temp changes/light touch, and scarring is likely

A

deep partial thickness burn (2nd)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What stage of burn has pain that begins as burn heals, scarring is present, and a skin graft is needed

A

full thickness burn (3rd)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what stage of burn has no pain, scarring is present, skin graft is needed, amputation is possible

A

deep-full thickness (4th)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How many minutes before dressing changes or procedures should we administer pain medications to clients with burns

A

45 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What combination of pharmacologic pain management is used when treating burns

A

-opioids: morphine and fentanyl
-sedative: midazolam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Nonpharmacologic pain measures should be used in clients with burns. Examples of these include

A

-music, distraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Fluid resuscitation for 2nd and 3rd degree burns are based on

A

TBSA (Lund and Browder formula)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What solution is used for fluid replacement for burns in the first 24 hours

A

LR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

24-48 hours after a burn, when capillary permeability improves, what is added to IV fluids to help resuscitation

A

colloids such as albumin and FFP (fresh frozen plasma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Adequacy of fluid replacement when treating burns is determined by

A

evaluating urine output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A urine output of ___ should be maintained when treating burns

A

1-2 ml/kg/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What should be monitored when administering fluid resuscitation to clients with burns

A

DW, fluid and electrolyte imbalances, I and O’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Nursing considerations for wound care

A

-maintain standard precautions/ PPE
-clean with mild soap and water
-assist with debridement and hydrotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Should nurses pop blisters while performing wound care?

A

no, leave blisters intact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Loose skin from burns should be removed with

A

sterile scissors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How to prevent infection when caring for burns?

A

-use aseptic technique
-use Pt-designated equipment such as BP cuffs and thermometers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

If a tetanus vaccine is > 5 years old or if status is unknown, what should happen if they have a burn

A

administer one to prevent infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Why should flowers/plants be avoided in clients with burns

A

avoids exposures to pseudomonas to prevent infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Complications of burns include:

A

-carbon monoxide injury
-hypovolemic/septic shock
-wound infections
-inhalation injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is a skin abrasion

A

superficial rub or wearing off of the skin usually due to friction; mainly limited to the epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is a laceration

A

injury that penetrates skin and soft tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is atopic dermatitis (eczema)

A

inflammation/rash/itching caused by antigen response to environmental factors, temp changes, sweating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

common sites of atopic dermatitis/eczema include

A

wrists, antecubital of arm, popliteal space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What does atopic dermatitis/eczema cause?

A

elevated IgE levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What medications are used to treat atopic dermatitis/eczema

A

-topical corticosteroids
-immune modulators - tacrolimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Nursing considerations for tacrolimus include

A
  • used in children > 2
  • must avoid direct sunlight
    -can cause itching, flu-like symptoms ,and HA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

We should educate parents that children with atopic dermatitis should avoid soaps containing

A

perfumes, dyes, or fragrances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How to promote moisture in children with atopic dermatitis?

A

-pat skin dry and leave moist while applying moisturizers multiple times daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Should children with atopic dermatitis bath in warm or hot water

A

2 x a day in warm water / avoid hot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What type of clothes should children with atopic dermatitis wear?

A

-100% cotton clothing AND bed linens
-avoid synthetics and wool
-keep fingernails short

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What drugs may be given at bedtime for children with atopic dermatitis

A

antihistamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is diaper dermatitis

A

inflammatory reaction caused from urine, feces, harsh soaps, wipes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

T or F: diaper dermatitis can be either non-candida or candida

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Non-candida diaper dermatitis assessment finding s

A

red, shiny, NOT IN CREASES OR FOLDS
-occurs on buttocks, thighs, abdomen and waist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Candida diaper dermatitis assessment findings

A

deep red lesions, scaly with satellite lesions (outside of diaper area)
-OCCURS IN CREASES OR FOLDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Children with candida diaper dermatitis may also have

A

thrush of the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Does candida dermatitis improve with standard diaper cream

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

tx for non-candida diaper dermatitis

A

-topical A,D, and E or zinc oxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Tx for candida diaper dermatitis

A

nystatin or miconazole anti fungal cream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Diaper dermatitis management include

A

-change diaper s frequently
-avoid rubber pants, harsh soaps, and baby wipes with fragrance or preservatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Why should nurses obtain the date of LMP for females with acne during their history assessment

A

acne is worse 2-7 days prior to start of menses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

During the history and physical assessment for acne vulgaris, the nurse should ask

A

-onset of lesions
-medications that exacerbate
-note oily skin/hair
-hx of endocrine disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

We should educate clients with acne to avoid

A

oil - based cosmetics and hair products, headbands, helmets/ hats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

We should educate our patients with acne to do what to manage their symptoms

A

-clean skin with mild soap and water BID
-shampoo hair regularly
-avoid picking/squeezing
-eat a balanced diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

How does tretinion work to treat acne

A

interrupts abnormal keratinization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

How does benzoyl peroxide, an OTC medication help manage acne

A

-inhibits growth of P. acnes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What topical antibacterial medication can be given to reduce acne

A

clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What oral antibiotics can be given to treat acne

A

-tetracycline and erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What teratogenic medication can be given for severe cases of acne

A

isotretinoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How can oral contraceptives be used to help reduce acne

A

decreases endogenous androgen production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what is rubeola (measles)

A

a highly contagious viral respiratory illness spread via droplets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Assessment findings of measles includes

A

-Fever, Koplik spots, cough, nasal inflammation, malaise, conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

How does maculopapular rash spread with rubeola

A

starts on face –> neck –> trunk > arms > legs > feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Patients with rubeola need to be placed on what type of precautions

A

airborne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Nursing management of Rubeola / measles includes

A

-supportive care
-antipyretics
-bedrest, fluids, humidification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

If a client is 6 months - 2 years old and is hospitalized or immunocompromised with rubeola, what is the treatment

A

Vitamin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Complications of rubeola / measles includes

A

diarrhea, OM, PNA, encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Rubeola is communicable _______ days before rash appears and until ______ after the rash disappears

A

3-5 ; 4-6 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Physical findings of pertussis include?

A

-acute respiratory disorder
-paroxysmal cough
-whooping cough
-copious nasal / oral secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Patients with pertussis need to be placed in

A

droplet/standard precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

therapeutic management of pertussis

A

-high humidity environment
-observing airway for obstruction
-push fluids
-abx compliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the medication treatment for pertussis?

A

-Macrolides “mycins”
-erythromycins, azithromycins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

If a client is < 1 month of age, pertussis must be treated with

A

azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Pertussis can be prevented with what vaccine? When is it given?

A

-DTaP
-2,4,6,8, 15-18 months
-booster at 11 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Clinical manifestations of fever include

A

-sweating, weakness, lethargy, flushing, s/s of dehydration if severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

A fever in an infant younger than 3 months is

A

100.4 or higher

107
Q

A fever in a child 3 months to 3 years is

A

102.2 or higher

108
Q

An older child will have more traditional s/s of fever such as

A

-rash
-appearing sick
-persistent diarrhea or vomiting
-s/s of DHD

109
Q

How often should temp be assessed if client has a fever

A

-assess q 4-6 hours
-30 - 60 min after administering antipyretic
- any change of condition

110
Q

Should the nurse change the site or device used for temperature measurement for a client experiencing a fever

A

No ; use the same to accurately gage changes in temperature

111
Q

When should antipyretics be administered

A

when child is experiencing discomfort or cannot keep up with metabolic demands of the fever

112
Q

Nursing interventions during fever

A

-assess fluid intake
-encourage oral intake
-IV fluids per order
-keep linens and clothing dry

113
Q

What two medications are given to manage fever

A

-tylenol 10-15 mg/kg/dose q 4-6 h
-ibuprofen 5-10 mg/kg/dose q 6-8 h

-ibuprofen only given if > 6 months

114
Q

Physical findings of Lyme disease include

A

-onset of rash and erythema migrans
-fever
-HA
-joint/muscle pain that progresses to larger joints

115
Q

How long after bite from deer tick does onset of rash and erythema migrans occur

A

usually 7-10 days

116
Q

Lyme disease treatment for clients > 8 years old

A

-14-28 day course of Doxycycline

117
Q

Lyme disease treatment for clients < 8 years old

A

-Amoxicillin to prevent teeth discoloration

118
Q

Nursing education for preventing future tick bites includes

A

-wear protective clothing that fits tightly around wrists, waists, and ankles
-do a full body check after leaving area with ticks
-examine gear, clothes, and pets for ticks
-tumble dry gear on high heat for an hour
-insect repellent is temporary and may be toxic to children

119
Q

Teaching patients how to remove a tick includes

A

-using fine-tipped tweezers
-protect fingers with gloves
-do not twist or jerk the tick
-clean site with some and water or alcohol
-save the tick in case child becomes sick

120
Q

Physical cues of pediculosis captitis

A

-nits or lice behind ears or on nape of neck
-extreme pruritis
-small red bumps on scalp
-white specks on hair shaft

121
Q

management of pediculosis capitis

A

-follow directions exactly on pediculicide
-comb out hair q 2-3 days
-soak combs and hairbrushes in treatment solution, hot water, or shampoo

122
Q

What should we do to bed sheets or environmental items when our patient has head lice

A

-use hot water
-use dry cleaning
-seal in plastic bags

123
Q

What kind of precautions are patients with head lice placed in

A

contact precautions

124
Q

What are standard precautions

A

-applies to all patients
-hand hygiene before and after
-gloves when handling all body fluids
-masks/goggles if splashing of body fluids indicated

125
Q

What are contact precautions?

A

-private room or cohort w / like conditions
-gloves and hand hygiene
-gowns donned before entering and doffed before exiting

126
Q

What are droplet precautions

A

-respiratory or mucous containing pathogens from nose / mouth
-private room or cohort with like illness
-surgical mask if within 3 feet

127
Q

what are airborne precautions

A

-droplets or dust in air
-negative pressure required
-masks or n95 device
-restriction of susceptible visitors or staff

128
Q

What kind of precautions does rubeola (measles) require

129
Q

What kind of precautions does pediculosis capitus need

130
Q

what kind of precautions does pertussis need

A

droplet/standard

131
Q

History cues of immunodeficiency in pediatric patients

A

-four or more episodes of otitis media in 1 year
-2 or more episodes of severe sinusitis
-tx with abx for 2 months or longer with no effect
-FTT in the infant
-recurrent deep skin or organ abscesses
-persistent oral thrush or skin candidiasis
-hx of infections requiring iv abx
-two or more serious infections such as sepsis
-family hx of primary immunodeficiency

132
Q

Lab findings for infections include CBC with differential, what does this evaluate?

A

-proportion of each of the 5 WBC types

133
Q

Neutrophils increase in the presence of

A

-bacterial infections or severe stressor

134
Q

Neutrophils decrease in the presence of

A

some viruses, exhausted BM (bone marrow), chemo

135
Q

Eosinophils are associated with

A

antigen-antibody reactions

136
Q

Lymphocyte numbers increase in

A

presence of viral infections, chronic bacterial infections, ALL

137
Q

Lymphocytes decrease in

138
Q

Immunoglobulin lab cues of immunodeficiency

A

IgG
IgA
IgM
IgE
IgD

139
Q

Lab cues of immunodeficiency that indicate inflammation

A

ESR and CRP

140
Q

Lab cues of immunodeficiency that monitor amount of T-helper cells

141
Q

What is the Complement C3 lab cue for immunodeficiency

A

evaluated to determine howe well the immune system is working

142
Q

Characteristics of IgG

A

-only immunoglobulin that crosses the placenta and transferred via breastmilk
-protects against viruses, bacteria, and toxins

143
Q

Lack of IgG causes

A

severe immunodeficiency

144
Q

At what age do infants produce their own IgG

A

6 months - 1 year of age

145
Q

Characteristics of IgA

A

-first line of defense against respiratory, gi and gu pathogens

146
Q

At what age do infants begin producing IgA

A

3 months of age

147
Q

Characteristics of IgM

A

-presence indicates an active infection

148
Q

Characteristics of IgE

A

-increases in allergic states
-increases in parasitic infections
-increases in hypersensitivity reactions

149
Q

what immunoglobulin level is measured during allergy testing

150
Q

Pathophysiology of Severe Combined Immune Deficiency (SCID)

A

-absent B and T cell function
-x - linked autosomal recessive

151
Q

SCID is a potentially fatal disorder that requires

A

emergency intervention at time of diagnosis

152
Q

History and physical cues of SCID

A

-hx of frequent, severe infections
-chronic diarrhea
-FTT
-persistent thrush

153
Q

Lab cues of SCID

A

-very low levels of immunoglobulins IgA and IgM

154
Q

Main treatment of SCID includes

A

-preventing infections

155
Q

What can be administered to reduce the number of bacterial infections in a child

156
Q

What is necessary for a patient with SCID

A

-a bone marrow transplant with HLA matched sibling or donor

157
Q

If a transfusion is necessary in a child with SCID, what must we take note of

A

-only cytomegalovirus (CMV) negative, irradiated blood or platelets can be administered

158
Q

Diagnostic labs for children with HIV 18 months or older

A

+ ELISA and +Western blot

159
Q

Lab criteria for diagnosis of HIV in infants < 18 months and born to an infected mother

A

+ PCR and viral culture

160
Q

HIV in children can cause

A

-progressive HIV encephalopathy

161
Q

Sx of HIV encephalopathy

A

-acquired microcephaly
-motor deficits
-loss of previously achieved development milestones

162
Q

HIV affects what type of cells

A

CD4 (T-helper cells)

163
Q

Pathophysiology of juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A

-autoimmune disease that causes the body to release inflammatory chemicals that attack synovium
-attack joints + eyes or other organs

164
Q

The first sign of juvenile idiopathic arthritis may be?

A

-history of irritability or fussiness

165
Q

Other assessment findings of JIA include

A

-redness, pain, swelling and stiffness with inactivity or in the AM, eye inflammation, organomegaly, poor weight gain, severe anemia

166
Q

Lab cues of JIA include

A

Anemia
+ ANA in young child with pauciartiular type
Increased WBC
+RA Factor in serious cases

167
Q

Cross reactions to latex - containing products and specific foods such as

A

pear, peach, passion fruit, plum, pineapple

168
Q

Latex allergies have a response similar to food allergies. what immunolglobulin mediates this

169
Q

Nursing care and interventions for latex allergy???????

A

-avoid products that contain latex ?

170
Q

Clinical manifestations of latex allergy????

171
Q

Symptoms of allergic reactions include

A

-hives
-flushing
-angioedema
-mouth/throat itching
-swelling of throat/pharnyx/uvula
-runny nose
-gi distress

172
Q

What allergic reaction symptoms may indicate the airway is compromised

173
Q

Physical cues of anaphylaxis reactions

A

-swelling of mucosal tissue, lips
-respiratory compromise
-reduced BP or associated s/s of end organ dysfunction

174
Q

Management of allergies

A

-administration of histamine blockers
-If anaphylaxis: epipen should be carried at all times
-written emergency plan for child’s allergy
-dietary consult ot assist family with reading foods labels and recognizing hidden sources of allergens

175
Q

Nursing assessment for allergic and anaphylactic reactions

A

-ABC’s
-VS ; auscultate heart and lungs
-assess oropharynx
-assess skin
-note length of time between exposure and reactions

176
Q

What causes allergic and anaphylaxis reactions

A

-food or environmental allergens initiate IgE mediated antibodies to form –> mediators and cytokines released

177
Q

What is amblyopia? aka lazy eye

A

poor visual acuity in one eye ; can lead to blindness if not corrected ; can be caused by strabismus

178
Q

all preschoolers should be screened for visual acuity by age

179
Q

the only sign of amblyopia in preverbal child may be

A

asymmetry of cornea light reflex

180
Q

Therapeutic management of amblyopia includes:

A

-wearing patch or administering atropine drops to STRONGER eye

181
Q

What are the types of hearing loss

A

conductive and sensorineural

182
Q

Conductive hearing loss means

A

transmission of sound through middle ear is disrupted

183
Q

Causes of conductive hearing loss include

A

-frequent otitis media with effusion (fluid in middle of ear)
-ruptured tympanic membranes

184
Q

Sensorineural hearing loss means

A

caused by damage to hair cells in the cochlea

185
Q

What are causes of sensorineural hearing loss

A

-ototoxic meds, meningitis, rubella, excessive noise

186
Q

Pathophysiology of infantile glaucoma

A

obstruction of aqueous humor flow, causing high intraocular pressure; vision loss occurs from retinal scarring and optic nerve damage

187
Q

Assessment findings of infantile glaucoma

A

spasmodic winking, corneal clouding, enlarged eyeball, excessive tearing, red reflex appears gray or green

188
Q

Management of infantile glaucoma

A

-3-4 surgeries (surgical management) is first line treatment

189
Q

Congenital cataracts pathophysiology

A

opacity of the optic lens preventing light from entering the eye
-leading cause of visual impairment and blindness

190
Q

Assessment findings of congenital cataracts

A

cloudy cornea, absent red reflex

191
Q

Tx for congenital cataracts

A

-best outcomes when surgically removed by 3 months of age
-can begin surgery as young as two weeks

192
Q

Nursing care of children with visual impairment

A

-use child’s name to get attention
-tell child you are there before touching them
-encourage independency while maintaining safety
-name and describe people/objects to make child more aware of what is happening
-discuss upcoming activities
-use simple and specific directions
-use parts of child’s body as reference
-encourage exploration of objects through touch

193
Q

What is acute otitis media?

A

infection of middle ear structures
Bacterial: strep
Viral: RSV , influenza

194
Q

s/s of acute otitis media

A

fever, ear pulling, irritability, poor feeding, lymphadenopathy

195
Q

what does the tympanic membrane look like with acute otitis media

A

dull, red, bulging, deceased or no movement

196
Q

management of acute otitis media

A

-Amoxicillin/Augmentin or azithromycin: PO
-Ceftriaxone: IM x 1 dose
-Tylenol / ibuprofen: manage ear pain and fever
-Benzocain: ear drops for pain if TM intact

197
Q

If > 3 years old, to assess TM or administering ear drops we pull the pinna

A

up and back

198
Q

if < 3 years old, to assess TM or administering ear drops we pull the pinna

A

down and back

199
Q

What is otitis media with effusion

A

collection of fluid in the middle ear with NO infection
-related to allergies or Ig adenoids

200
Q

S/s of otitis media with effusion

A

feeling of fullness, transient hearing loss possible

201
Q

What does the tympanic membrane look like with otitis media with effusion

A

dull, orange discoloration, air bubbles, decreased movement

202
Q

Tx of otitis media with effusion

A

-resolves on own
- if > 3 months no resolution, refer to ENT and assess for hearing or speech loss

203
Q

What is myringotomy and tympanovstomy

A

-small incision in TM and placement of PE tubes that can be indicated for a child with recurrent OM

204
Q

Is post op pain common after PE tube placement

205
Q

is PE tube placement usually done outpatient or inpatient

A

outpatient under general anesthesia

206
Q

What is recommended while swimming after ear tube placement

A

ear plugs
-if water enters ear allow it to drain out

207
Q

Patient education after PE tube placement

A

-notify provider if drainage occurs
-ear drop administration
-tubes fall out spontaneously after 8-18 months

208
Q

S/s of hearing loss in infants

A

-does not startle to loud noises
-wakes only to touch
-does not turn to sound by 4 months of age
-no babbling at 6 months
-no speech development

209
Q

S/s of hearing loss in young child

A

-communicates needs through gestures
-does not speak by 2 years
-prefers solitary play
-does not respond to telephone or door bell ringing

210
Q

S/s of hearing loss in older child:

A

-often asks for statements to be repeated
-is inattentive or daydreams
-performs poorly in school
-gives inappropriate answers to questions if not facing speaker

211
Q

Pathophysiology of ALL

A

overproduction of immature lymphoblast cells that infiltrate organs and tissues

212
Q

History cues of ALL

A

-reports of leg pain
-reports of decreased activity level
-recurrent infections
-persistent fevers

213
Q

Physical cues of ALL

A

elevated temp (leukopenia)
pallor in color (anemia)
petechiae, purpura, brusies (thrombocytopenia)
enlarged lymph nodes
hepatomegaly, splenomegaly

214
Q

Lab cues of ALL

A

-depleted CBC (WBC may be low, elevated, or high)
-Blood smear for lymphoblasts
-bone marrow aspirate (BMA) for lymphoid cells

215
Q

Pathophysiology of lymphoma

A

malignancy of the lymph system

216
Q

History cues of lymphoma

A

-adolescent age
-family hx
-reports of night sweats
-weight loss
-hx of frequent infections

217
Q

Physical sx of lymphoma

A

-painless enlarged supraclavicular or cervical lymph nodes

218
Q

the two classifications of lymphoma and their sx

A

Class A: asymptomatic
Class B: fever, night sweats, > 10 % weight loss, cough, SOB, abdominal discomfort, enlarged liver or spleen, pruritis

219
Q

Lab cues for lymphoma

A

Lymph node biopsy + for reed Sternberg cells

220
Q

Pre - op care for brain tumors

A

-monitor for increased ICP
-steroids to decrease swelling
-pre-op teaching /emotional support

221
Q

Post-op management of brain tumor

A

-monitor for Increased ICP and manage
-frequent VS, pupil checks, and LOC
-monitor I and O’s
-JP drain monitoring and care

222
Q

How should patients be positioned post operatively of brain tumor removal

A

-keep head midline
-position on unaffected side at level ordered by provider

223
Q

Hyperthermia following brain tumor surgery is treated with

A

antipyretics

224
Q

Headache following brain tumor surgery is treated with

A

analgesics

225
Q

Pathophysiology of Wilm’s tumor (nephroblastoma)

A

solid tumor that commonly occurs in the abdomen (mainly kidneys)

226
Q

Assessment/physical cues of nephroblastoma

A

swollen, asymmetric abdomen, hematuria, HTN, firm nontender abdominal mass

227
Q

s/s indicative that Wilm’s tumor has metastasized to lungs

A

cough/SOB/chest pain

228
Q

Diagnostics for film’s tumor

A

Abdomen: US, CT, MRI, chest X-ray
UA: gross or microscopic care
24 hr urine

229
Q

If the 24 H urine protein is negative for homovanillic acid and vanillamandelic acid, this means?

A

the patient has a wilms tumor

230
Q

Biggest nursing consideration for Wilm’s tumor

A

do NOT palpate the abdomen
-place signs outside door and above the bed

231
Q

What is the most common site for bone marrow aspirate? What about in infants?

A

-iliac crest
-tibia can be used for infants

232
Q

Describe the procedure for Bone Marrow Aspiration?

A

topical anesthetic may be applied over biopsy area 45 min - 1 h prior (fetanyl) ; conscious sedation used (propofol, versed/midazolam)

233
Q

Post-procedure actions for BMA

A

-apply pressure to site for 5-10 min
-apply pressure dressing
-assess VS frequently
-monitor for bleeding and infection

234
Q

Neutropenic precautions

A

-meticulous hand hygiene
-VS q 4 h
-assess for s/s of infection q 8h
-avoid rectal temps, enemas, suppositories, urinary catheters, and invasive procedures
-restrict visitors
-mask on child when outside room
-soft toothbrush
-private room
-prophylactic ABX
-monitor ANC
-no raw fruits / veggies
-no raw plants

235
Q

What does chemotherapy do?

A

target different phase of the cell cycle and affects rapidly growing cells

236
Q

Common adverse effects of cancer

A

-mucosal ulceration
-skin breakdown
-neuropathy
-pain
-NV/ Loss of appetite
-hemorrhage cystitis
-cardiomyopathy (late)
-cognitive defects

237
Q

What is the biggest side effect of chemo

A

myelosuppression
-anemia, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia

238
Q

Long term complications of chemotherapy

A

altered G&D, CV/respiratory changes, reproductive dysfunction, vision/hearing changes, tooth loss, and secondary cances

239
Q

What is radiation therapy for cancer

A

-high energy radiation to kill cancer cells
-may also destroy any rapidly dividing cells in proximity to the irradiated area.

240
Q

Adverse affects of radiation

A

-similar to chemotherapy
-irritation/ burns to site

241
Q

Long term complications of radiation therapy

A

-similar to chemotherapy
-pulmonary fibrosis, osteoporosis, development of secondary cancer at / near the site

242
Q

Assessment findings of iron deficiency anemia

A

-pallor in skin, MM, conjunctiva
-SOB
-dizziness
-weakness
-fatigue
-irritability
-spooning of nails (concave shape)
-splenomegaly

243
Q

Diagnostic labs for iron deficiency anemia

A

-low RBC, hgb and hematocrit, MCV, MCH, ferritin decreased
-RDW (red blood cell distribution) increased

244
Q

Tx of iron deficiency anemia

A

-Fe fortified formula
-4-5 months breast fed infants need Fe+ fortified cereal or Fe gets
-encourage breastfeeding mothers to increase Fe + in their diet
-Limit cow’s milk in children > 1 to 24 oz/day
-SW referral for resources such as WIC

245
Q

Side effects of Fe+ supplements

A

-metallic taste in mouth
-nausea
-upset stomach

246
Q

Client education for Fe+ supplements

A

-place behind teeth to avoid stains
-cause constipation - increase fluids and may need stool softeners
-cause dark, green stools - this is normal

247
Q

Foods high in iron include:

A

-meat
-tuna
-salmon
-eggs
-tofu
-enriched grains
-dried beans and peas
-dried fruits
-leafy green vegetables
-Fe fortified cereals

248
Q

Physical findings of hemophilia

A

-swollen or stiff joints
-multiple bruises
-hematuria
-bleeding gums
-bloody sputum or emesis
-black tarry stools
-chest or abdominal pain (internal bleeding)

249
Q

Lab cues for hemophilia

A

-PTT prolonged, normal PT and platelets
-low Hgb and Hct

250
Q

Treatment of bleeding episodes for hemophilia

A

Factor VIII administration (slow IV push)
-acute and prophylactic regimens

251
Q

Nursing actions for hemophilia bleeding

A

-med administration first
-apply direct pressure to external bleeding
-apply ice or cold compress to joint
-elevate extremity
-desmopressin for mild cases

252
Q

What is a vaso-occlusive crisis?

A

-when the circulation of blood vessels is obstructed by sickled RBC’s causing ischemia and infarction

253
Q

Assessment findings of vaso occlusive anemia

A

-joint pain, increased HR/RR,
-Acute Chest Syndrome, Splenic Sequestration Crisis
-Dactylitis

254
Q

What does Splenic Sequestration crisis cause

A

big drops in blood volume

255
Q

What is dactylitis

A

symmetric swelling of hands and feet

256
Q

Labs or vaso-occlusive crisis:

A

-low Hgb
-Increased platelets, sedimentation rate, LFT, bilirubin, reticulocyte count

257
Q

Management of vaso-occlusive crisis

A

-pain control (NSAIDs, opioids)
-Hydration (double maintenance fluid)
-150 ml/kg/day
-Hypoxia (O2 if < 92%)

258
Q

Risk factors for lead poisoning

A

-old home (paint/pipes/soils)
-toys
-developmental delays, learning deficits, behavioral problems
-malnutrition
-PICA

259
Q

Physical cues for lead poisoning

A

-irritability
-abdominal pain/cramping
-Low IQ/delayed growth and development
-poor appetite
-vomiting
-ataxia
-hematuria
-new onset of seizures

260
Q

Lab cues for lead poisoning

A

< 5 mcg: repeat in 6-12 months if high risk
5-14 mcg: repeat test in 1-3 months, educate parents to decrease exposure
15-44 mcg: confirm with repeat test in 1-4 wks, educate parents to decrease lead exposure, repot to local health authorities
>45 mcg: begin chelation therapy
>69 mcg: hospitalized child

261
Q

When is chelation therapy given?

A

when blood lead levels are >45

262
Q

How does chelation therapy work?

A

-removes lead from soft tissue and bone then excreted via kidneys

263
Q

What medications are given during chelation therapy

A

-PO or IV - succimer/Dimercaprol/Adetate calcium disodium

264
Q

Nursing considerations for Chelation therapy

A

-ensure adequate fluid intake and monitor I&Os