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Anatomy & Physiology 2 > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the components of the Urinary System?

A

Kidneys, Ureters, Bladder, Urethra

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2
Q

Function of the Urinary System

A

Excretion: getting things out of blood
Elimination: getting things out of the body
Homeostasis: maintain fluid balance

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3
Q

What part of the urinary system produces urine( excretion)

A

Kidneys

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4
Q

What part of the urinary system carries urine outside of the body (elimination)?

A

Urethra

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5
Q

What organs are classified as retroparitineal?

A

*THINK SADPUCKER

Super Renal glands 
Aorta
Duodenum
Pancreas
Ureters
Colon (partial)
Kidneys
Esophagus 
Rectum
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6
Q

Be able to Trace the flow of urine

A

Glomerulus—>
proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) → nephron loop (descending → ascending) → distal convoluted tubule (DCT) → connecting tubule → collecting duct → renal papilla → minor calyx → major calyx → renal pelvis → ureter → urinary bladder → urethra

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7
Q

Drains fluid in

A

Ureters

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8
Q

Drains fluid out

A

Urethra

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9
Q

Folds of the bladder are called?

A

Rugae

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10
Q

Bladder fills from _______ ___

Why?

A

Bottom up

Due to the amount of room in bladder. More room on bottom of bladder- linguistics!

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11
Q

Be able to trace blood flow to kidneys?

A
  1. Renal Artery
  2. Sagmental arteries & veins
  3. Lobar arteries and veins
  4. Interlobular arteries & veins
  5. Arcuate arteries & veins
  6. Cortical radiate arteries(interlobular) & veins
  7. Afferent arteriole
  8. Glomerulus
  9. Efferent arteriole
    A. Leads into peritubular capillaries (always)
    B. Vasa recta (sometimes)
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12
Q

This is driven by pressure

A

Filtration

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13
Q

Filtration is moving from _______ —-> _______

A

Blood to filtrate

Or glomerulus to capsule

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14
Q

This is not driven by pressure but involves keeping fluid

A

Reabsorption

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15
Q

Reabsorption moves _________ to __________

A

Tubule/nephron to blood

Specifically: tubular fluid –> interstitial fluid—> blood

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16
Q

Driven by concentration gradient

A

Secretion

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17
Q

Secretion moves _______ to ______

A

Blood —–> tubular fluid

Or

Perit cap—–> DCT

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18
Q

This limb is permeable to sodium and chloride

A

Ascending Limb

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19
Q

This limb is permeable to water

A

Descending limb

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20
Q

As _______ moves out of the ascending limb into the interstitial fluid it draws _______ out of descending limb by osmosis

A

Sodium and chloride

Water

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21
Q

Where is Urea reabsorbed?

A

Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)

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22
Q

When Hydrostatic Pressure is greater than osmotic pressure what happens?

A

Filtration

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23
Q

Amount of filtration per minute

A

Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)

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24
Q

The plasma concentration of compound/ion when it begins to show up in urine

A

Renal Threshold

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25
Q

Sodium is ________ transported

A

Actively

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26
Q

In order for fluid to be filtered it has to get through all 3 of these layers

A
  1. Fenestrated capillary (fluid has to fit through pores)
  2. Basement membrane
  3. Podocyte: slits.
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27
Q

Aka foot process

A

Pedicels

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28
Q

Where does filtration take place?

A

Glomerulus

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29
Q

Where does reabsorption of nutrients take place

A

PCT

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30
Q

Where does reabsorption of water take place

A

PCT

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31
Q

Where does secretion take place

A

…

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32
Q

In the presence of ADH, additional water channels are added in which portion of the nephron

A

Collecting duct & DCT

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33
Q

Direction of movement for reabsorption

A

Tubular fluid from PCT to blood in peritubular capillaries

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34
Q

Dieetction of movement for secretion

A

Blood from peritubular cap to tubular fluid in DCT

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35
Q

Intercellular fluid refers to

A

Cystol

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36
Q

Extracellukar fluid refers to

A

Plasma
Lymph
Interstitial fluid

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37
Q

If osmoreceotirs are stimulated due to the increase of sodium in ECF, what is the response?

A

increase ADH to increase the water retention (?)

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38
Q

A low or acidic PH is due to

A

A increase concentration of hydrogen ions in solution

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39
Q

The muscular band that acts as a valve permitting VOLUNTARY control of micturition is the

A

External sphincter

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40
Q

The mucosa of the urinary bladder consists of

A

Transitional epithelium

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41
Q

Glomerular capillaries are

A

Fenestrated

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42
Q

Due to sodium gain and increasing ECF volume, natriuretic Peptides cause what response?

A

Increase sodium loss in urine
Increase water loss in urine
Decrease thirst
Stimulate ADH and aldosterone

…… ?????

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43
Q

ECF

A

Extracellular Fluid

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44
Q

ICF

A

Intracellular Fluid

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45
Q

Function of Extracellular Fluid?

A

Transport to and from cells

Constant cellular environment (maintain homeostasis)

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46
Q

Intracellular Fluid Function

A

Solve chemical reactions in cell

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47
Q

What is an Anion?

A

A negative electrolyte

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48
Q

What is a Cation?

A

A positive electrolyte

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49
Q

Most common anions?

A

ICF (intracellular Fluid): Hydrogen phosphate and proteins

ECF(extracellular Fluid): Cl-

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50
Q

Most common Cation?

A

ICF: K+
ECF: Na+

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51
Q

What makes plasma different from interstitial fluid?

A

Proteins in plasma

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52
Q

What makes plasma similar to interstitial fluid

A

Both extracellular

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53
Q

How do we get water in?

A

Foods, liquids, cellular metabolism

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54
Q

How do we get water out?

A

Kidneys, lungs, skin, intestines

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55
Q

When water input is less than output what is the feedback loop?

A

Blood Volume decreases
Blood pressure decreases
JG releases renin
Angiotensin I & II: aldosterone
Angiotensin I & II: increase thirst
Angiotensin I & II: ADH

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56
Q

What does Aldosterone do?

A

Increase reabsorption of sodium which in return increases the water absorption

Targets DCT and CD

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57
Q

What does ADH do?

A

Retains water by aquaporus on DCT and Collecting Duct

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58
Q

Feedback loop: Sodium too high

A 
Too High:
1. Increase Na+ in ECF
2. Osmoreceptors stimulated
3. Secretion of ADH increases
          Increase water absorption
          Increase thirst 
4. Water shift from ICF to ECF (fluid comes out of cells) 
5. Decrease Na+ concentration 
6. Return to Homeostasis
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59
Q

Feedback: Sodium too Low

A
  1. Decrease Na+ in ECF
  2. Osmoreceptors inhibited
  3. Secretion of ADH decreases
    Suppress thirst
    Increase water loss
  4. Decrease ECF volume
  5. Increase Na concentration
  6. Return to Homeostasis
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60
Q

Feedback loop: increased sodium causing increase blood Volume( BV)

A
  1. Na increases in ECF
    2 homeostatic response increases water intake and retention
  2. Increase BV
  3. Increase stretch in Atria
    Releases ANH
  4. ANH secretes Na
    Less water absorption- more water going out.. decrease BV and BP
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61
Q

CHP ( hydrostatic pressure) > BCOP (osmotic pressure)

A

Filtration

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62
Q

BCOP(osmotic pressure)> CHP(hydrostatic pressure)

A

Reabsorption

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63
Q

Feedback loop: increased BV and BP

A
  1. Increases Fluid (Increase Na causing increases fluid)
    2 increase BV and BP
    3 atrial distension stimulates ANP
  2. ANP: Na secretion, increase H2O, decrease thirst, inhibit competing hormones
  3. Decrease BP and BV
  4. Homeostasis
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64
Q

Feedback loop: decreased BV & BP

A
  1. Loss of fluid: loss of Na causing decreases fluid, decrease BV and BP
  2. JG cells detect decrease in drop of renal BP
  3. Secrete renin: activate renin-angiotensin system, ADH and Aldosterone
  4. Increase Na reabsorption
  5. Increase H2O reabsorption
  6. increase thirst
  7. increase BP = increases BV
  8. Return to Homeostasis
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65
Q

This diuretic blocks ACE which blocks the production of Angiotensin II… causes a decrease in Aldosterone and decreases activity Na/K exchange pumps

A

Loop diuretics

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66
Q

This diuretic blocks sodium chloride cotransporters in ascending limb

A

Thiazides diuretics

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67
Q

PH below 7.35

A

Acidosis

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68
Q

pH above 7.45

A

Alkalosis

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69
Q

Where does Hydrogen come from?

A
  1. Carbonic acid - metabolism (CO2 produced, converted)
  2. Lactic Acid - metabolism (too much pyruvate, convert)
  3. Sulfuric Acid- proteins broken down
  4. Phosphoric Acid - proteins, DNA breakdown
  5. Acidic Ketone Bodies - breakdown fats
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70
Q

Respiratory response (quick or slow?)

A

Takes minutes (very quick)

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71
Q

Renal response (quick or slow?)

A

Takes hours, very slow

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72
Q

What is the phosphate buffer system?

A

H3PO4 —> H2PO4 + H+ —> HPO4 + H+ —-> PO4 + H+

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73
Q

H3PO4

A

Phosphoric Acid

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74
Q

H2PO4

A

Dihydrogen phosphate

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75
Q

HPO4

A

Mono Hydrogen phosphate

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76
Q

PO4

A

Phosphate

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77
Q

If pH is alkaline, carboxal group donates H+ ion.

If pH is acidic amino Acid will accept H+ Ion

A

Protein Buffer System

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78
Q

Carbonic Acid Buffer System?

A

CO2 + H2O H2CO3 HCO3- + H+

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79
Q

What is the Respiratory Mechanism?

A

Burning fat because cannot burn glucose

Creates ketones

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80
Q

Respiratory Acidosis Feedback loop?

Ex: hypovenilation

A
  1. Increase CO2 leads to
  2. Increase H+ which 3.leads to a decrease pH
  3. Chemoreceptors Stimulated
  4. Increase Respiratory Rate
    Decreases CO2
  5. Renal Response: Secrete H+, Reabsorb HCO4
    Decreases H+
  6. Increase pH
  7. Homeostasis
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81
Q

Metabolic Acidosis (loss of bicarbonate)

Example: Diarrhea

A
  1. Loss of bicarbonate leads to
  2. Increase H+ leads to
  3. Decrease pH
  4. Stimulates Chemoreceptors
  5. Increase Respiratory Rate
    Decreases CO2
  6. Renal Response: Secretes H+ and Reabsorbs HCO3
    Decreases H+
  7. increases pH
  8. Returns Homeostasis
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82
Q

Metabolic Acidosis (loss of Hydrogen)

Example: lactic acidosis, ketone acidosis

A
  1. Breakdown and release H+ which leads to
  2. Increase H+ which leads to
  3. Decrease pH
  4. Stimulates Chemoreceptors
  5. Increase Respiratory Rate
    Decreases CO2
    6 Renal Response: Secretes H+, Reabsorbs HCO3
    Decreases H+
  6. Increase pH
  7. homeostasis
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83
Q

Respiratory Alkalosis

Example: Hyperventilating

A
  1. decrease CO2 leads to
  2. Decrease H+ leads to
  3. increase pH
  4. inhibits Chemoreceptors
  5. decrease Respiratory Rate
    Increases CO2
  6. Renal Response: Reabsorbs H+ and Secretes HCO3
    Increases H+
  7. Decreases pH
  8. Homeostasis
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84
Q

Metabolic Alkalosis

Example: Vomiting

A
  1. Loss of gastric acid leads to
  2. Decrease H+ leads to
  3. Increase pH
  4. inhibits Chemoreceptors
  5. decrease Respiratory Rate
    Increases CO2
  6. Renal Response: Reabsorbs H+ and Secretes HCO3
    Increases H+
  7. Decreases pH
  8. Homeostasis
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85
Q

What are the steps of the Urinary Mechanisms to acidify urine involving secretion of H+

A

Located in DCT & CD

  1. CO2 moves from capillaries to DCT Cells
  2. This forms carbonic acid
  3. Carbonic Acid Dissociates
  4. Releases H+ to urine
  5. Phosphate binds to Hydrogen
  6. Sodium goes back into cell
  7. Binds to bicarbonate
  8. Returns to blood
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86
Q

What are the steps of urinary mechanism to acidify urine involving sodium exchange pumps

A

If blood is acidic, exchanges more H+ for excretion of urine

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87
Q

What are the steps of urinary mechanism to acidify urine involving ammonia

A

Located in DCT & CD

  1. Amino acid goes into cells
  2. Amino acid is then converted into ammonia
  3. Ammonia moves into tubule
  4. Displace Salt
  5. Ammonia binds to Cl- and excepts hydrogen- excreted
  6. Na+ moves into cell
  7. Binds to bicarbonate –> back to blood
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88
Q

Myogenic Mechanism (high BP) feedback loop

A
  1. Increase Renal BP
  2. Increase GFR
    3 Constrict Afferent Arterioles
  3. Decrease Blood Flow= Decrease GFR
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89
Q

Tubuloglomerular feedback loop (low BP)

A
  1. Decrease Renal BP
  2. decrease GFR
  3. Constrict Efferent Arterioles, Stimulate JG Cells( Renin Angiotensin System Activated),
    Keep More Na+ & Cl- (decrease water to blood)
  4. Increase HP= Increase GFR
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90
Q

Whether Referring to Respiratory or metabolic Alkalosis, what are the responses?

A

Renal: generation of Hydrogen ions, and secretion of bicarbonate
Respiratory: inhibit Chemoreceptors to decrease respiratory Rate

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91
Q

_______ may cause respiratory alkalosis, while ______ may cause respiratory acidosis

A

Hyperventilation; Hypoventilation

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92
Q

Metabolic acidosis may be caused by

A

Too few hydrogen ions, or too many bicarbonate ions

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93
Q

The major anion in extracellular fluid is what, while the major intercellular anion is what

A

Chloride, biphosphate

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94
Q

Which of the following hormones play a major role in mediating fluid electrolyte balance?

A

ADH, ANP, & Aldosterone

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95
Q

Atrial Natriiuretic Peptinde hormones

A

Reduces thirst
Blocks Aldosterone release
Blocks ADH release

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96
Q

Hypoventilation would cause

A

Respiratory Acidosis

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97
Q

Prolonged vomiting can result in

A

Metabolic Alkalosis

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98
Q

The lungs respond to metabolic Alkalosis by __________

A

Decreasing Respiratory Rate

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99
Q

The kidneys respond to respiratory Acidosis by

A

Both excreting Hydrogen ions and generating bicarbonate ions

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100
Q

There are how many primary buffering systems in the body?

A

3

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101
Q

Identify the parts of the kidneys that secrete Renin and EPO.

A

Renin: secreted from juxtaglomerular kidney cells

Epo: is produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney in close association with peritubular capillary and proximal convoluted tubule

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102
Q

Identify the type of epithelium found in the ureters and urinary bladder.

A

Ureters - transitional epithelium
Bladder - transitional epithelium
Proximal urethra - transitional epithelium
Mid-urethra (males) - stratified and pseudostratified columnar
Distal urethra - stratified squamous epithelium

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103
Q

Explain what occurs in fluid shift and identify its driving force.

A

Increasing the ECF solute content can be expected to cause osmotic & volume changes in the ICF - a shift of water out of the cells. Conversely, decreasing ECF osmolality causes water to move into the cells, Thus the ICF volume is determined by the ECF solute concentration.

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104
Q

Explain hyperkalemia and hypokalemia.

A

Hyperkalemia: too much potassium in the body.

Hypokalemia: not enough potassium in the body.

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105
Q

the chemical processes that occur within a living organism in order to maintain life

A

Metabolism

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106
Q

the synthesis of complex molecules in living organisms from simpler ones together with the storage of energy; constructive metabolism.

A

anabolism

107
Q

the breakdown of complex molecules in living organisms to form simpler ones, together with the release of energy; destructive metabolism.

A

Catabolism

108
Q

How does the body compensate for increased sodium levels in the ECF?

A
  • Osmoreceptors stimulates in hypothalamus.
  • Secretion of ADH restricts the loss of water and promotes thirst.
  • Osmolarity of ECF increases and water shifts out of the ICF into the ECF to increase ECF volume while decreasing ECF sodium concentractions.
109
Q

High sodium

A

Hyperatremia

110
Q

Low sodium

A

Hypoatremia

111
Q

High potassium:

A

Hyperkalmia

112
Q

Low potassium

A

Hypokalmia

113
Q

High calcium

A

Hypercalcemia

114
Q

Low calcium

A

Hypocalcemia

115
Q

What are the three major systems in the body that control pH balance?

A

protein buffer system
carbonic acid-bicarbonate
phosphate buffer system

116
Q

What is the carbonic buffer systems response to acidosis?

A

a drop in pH causes an increased respiratory rate to decrease the partial pressure of carbon dioxide, converting carbonic acid molecules into water.

the kidneys respond by secreting hydrogen ions, removing co2 and reabsorbing bicarbonate to help replenish the bicarbonate reserve.

117
Q

How does the carbonic acid buffer system respond to alkalosis?

A
  • Decreased respiratory rated pc02, effectively converting co2 molecules to carbonic acid.
  • kidney tubules respond by conserving hydrogen ions and secreting bicarbonate.
118
Q

How does the protein buffer system increase pH?

A

Carboxyl group donates a hydrogen ion.

119
Q

How does the protein buffer system decrease pH?

A

amino acid groups accepts a hydrogen ion

120
Q

What are the functions of the digestive system?

A
  • Ingestion
  • Mechanical processing
  • digestion
  • secretion
  • absorption
  • excretion
121
Q

What is the term used for the intake of food?

A

Ingestion

122
Q

The physical breakdown of food is referred to as:

A

Mechanical processing

123
Q

What occurs in the digestive process during secretion?

A

the release of enzymes, acids, buffers, water, and salts by the digestive tract

124
Q

The duodenum differs from the rest of the small intestine in that its submucosa contains many __________ that secrete mucus.

A

Brunner Glands

125
Q

Incisors are used for

A

Clipping or cutting

126
Q

Bile functions and digestion as a

A

Emulsifier

127
Q

The longitudinal ribbon of smooth muscle visible on the outer surfaces of the colon just beneath the serosa are the:

A

Taenia coli

128
Q

Chief Cells secrete

A

Pepsinogen

129
Q

Which of the following is a function of the liver

A

Vitamin storage, amino acid metabolism, drug in activation, mineral storage

130
Q

Muscles of the tongue or control by what nerve

A

Hypoglossal

131
Q

The wall of the small intestine bears a series of folds called the

A

Plicae Circulares

132
Q

How long is the human small intestine

A

20 feet

133
Q

The last section of the small intestine is the

A

Ileum

134
Q

The intestinal phase

A

Controls the rate at which chyme enters the intestine

135
Q

The large crushing grinding teeth found at the back of each dental arch are

A

Molars

136
Q

Which of the following is not part of the digestive tract

A

Liver

137
Q

The major functions of the large and intestine are

A

Absorption of water

138
Q

The fauces

A

the spaces between the oral cavity in the oropharynx

139
Q

The visceral paratonia

A

Covers organs in the peritoneal cavity

140
Q

The fundus of the stomach

A

Is superior to the junction of the esophagus and stomach

141
Q

The gastric phase last how long

A

Hours

142
Q

Pancreatic juice contains

A

Carbohydrase
Proteases
Lipase

143
Q

Muscles of the external anal sphincter are

A

Skeletal

144
Q

The exocrine secration of the pancreas to drain through __________ ducts

A

Two

145
Q

What are the accessory organs

A

Teeth
Pancreas
Liver

146
Q

Cholecystokinin

A

Did you like secretion of the gallbladder
Stimulates production of pancreatic enzymes
Reduces hunger
Inhibits gastric secretion and Motility

147
Q

The cephalic phase of gastric activity is directed by

A

CNS

148
Q

Each intestinal villas contains a lymphoid capillary called a

A

Lacteal

149
Q

The outer layer of a tooth is called

A

Enamel

150
Q

The cecum is

A

Where the appendix attaches, a blunt in the pouch, where the ileum empties into the large intestine

151
Q

Deglutition (swallowing) consist of ______ phases

A

Three

152
Q

Nutrients are observed in the small intestine by the process of

A

Diffusion, cotransport, facilitated diffusion

153
Q

Ball secretion occurs _______, but bike release occurs _________

A

Continuously, only when CCK is secreted

154
Q

Gastric activity can be divided into how many phases

A

Three

155
Q

Pancreatic juice is

A

Alkaline

156
Q

Swallowing

A

Begins voluntarily but continues in voluntarily

157
Q

The region of the large intestine includes

A

Rectum, colon, cecum

158
Q

The pouches of the colon are call the

A

Haustra

159
Q

There are how many pairs of salivary gland’s opening into the oral cavity

A

3

160
Q

The inner lining of the digestive tract is the

A

Mucosa

161
Q

The first section of the small intestine is the

A

Duodenum

162
Q

From the outside in, the correct order of the layers of the digestive tract is

A

Serosa, muscularis externa, submucosa, mucosa

163
Q

Catobism

A

Produces ATP and Heat

Breaks down organic molecules

164
Q

The breakdown a fatty acid molecules into two carbon fragments are called

A

Beta oxidation

165
Q

High density lipoproteins ______

A

Are sometimes called good cholesterol

166
Q

The break down is one fatty acid molecule yields ______ the breakdown of one molecule of glucose

A

More ATP than

167
Q

In glycolysis each molecule of glucose metabolized releases enough energy to form how many molecules of ATP

A

2

168
Q

Effect of vitamin a deficiency

A

Retarded growth and blindness

169
Q

Affect of vitamin K deficiency

A

Bleeding disorders

170
Q

Affective vitamin E deficiency

A

Anemia

171
Q

Effective vitamin D deficiency

A

Rockets

172
Q

Amoung the products of glycolysis are ______

A

ATP
NADH
pyruvic Acid

173
Q

The breakdown of fatty acid molecules in the production of __________, which then enters the citric acid cycle

A

Acetyl-coenzyme A

174
Q

The TCA or Krebs cycle takes place in the

A

Mitochondria

175
Q

There are ______ essentially amino acids

A

10

176
Q

Glycolysis occurs where?

A

Cytoplasm

177
Q

Glycolysis occurs ____________

A

Whether or not oxygen is present

178
Q

The final hydrogen ion acceptor in the electron transport chain is ________, forming water

A

Oxygen

179
Q

The synthesis of glucose is called

A

Gluconeogenesis

180
Q

Focal point for metabolic regulation and control

A

Liver

181
Q

Maintains numerous reserves of glycogen and protein

A

Skeletal tissue

182
Q

No Reserve of lipids, carbohydrates, or proteins

A

Neural tissue

183
Q

Stores lipids primarily as triglycerides

A

Adipose tissue

184
Q

The process of cellular respiration in most cells, each molecule of glucose that is metabolized yields enough energy to form ________ molecules of ATP

A

36

185
Q

The transition between glycolysis and the TCA cycle involves a molecule called

A

Acetyl coenzyme A

186
Q

Functions of the digestive system!

A 
Ingestion 
Motility
Secretion
Absorption
Elimination 
Digestion
187
Q

Salivary amylase digests

A

Carbs

188
Q

Lingual lipase digests

A

Fats

189
Q

Baby teeth

A

Deciduous teeth

190
Q

Adult teeth

A

Permanent

191
Q

What are the phases of deglutition

A
  1. Oral phase
  2. Pharyngeal phase
  3. Esophageal phase
192
Q

Where is the swelling reflex located?

A

Medulla oblongata

193
Q

Explain the oral phase of swallowing (deglutition)

A

Elevated soft palate, closing off nasopharynx

Reflex response triggered when bolus enters oropharynx

Mouth to oropharynx

194
Q

What mechanism is targeted by aldosterone?

A

Sodium potassium exchange pumps

195
Q

Where is most potassium found in the body?

A

In the cells, while the rest is involved in sodium/pottassium exchange pumps.

196
Q

How do loop diuretics work?

A

By blocking ACE and the production of angiotensin II, decreasing aldosterone and the activity of the sodium/potassium exchange pumps.

197
Q

How to thiazide diruetics work?

A

By blocking sodium chloride cotransporters in the ascending limb, and indirectly stimulating other types of potassium channels, causing an increase in the secretion of potassium.

198
Q

What occurs in the digestive process during absorption?

A

movement of organic molecules into interstitial fluid

199
Q

What happens during the digestive process of excretion?

A

removal of wastes from bodily fluids

200
Q

What happens during defecation?

A

ejection of materials from the digestive tract

201
Q

What is the purpose of the digestive lining?

A

Protection against the corrosive effects of acid and enzymes, mechanical stress, and bacteria.

202
Q

Double sheets of peritoneal membrane where blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels travel, while stabilizing organs and prevent tangling

A

Mesenaries

203
Q

What is the purpose of the lesser omentum?

A

Stabilization of the stomach

204
Q

What is the purpose of the greater omentum?

A

Protection and insulation adipose

205
Q

what is the purpose of the mesentary proper?

A

suspension of the small intestines

206
Q

In what areas of the digestive tract will you not find peritoneum?

A

Oral cavity, pharynx, esophogus or rectum.

207
Q

movement of food through the digestive tract

A

Propulsion

208
Q

ball of digestive contents

A

Bolus

209
Q

contractions which move materials down the digestive tract, in which circular muscles contract behind the bolus and logitudinal muscles contract in front of the bolus to move the material forward.

A

peristalsis

210
Q

These contracts churn the bolus, rather than propel.

A

Segmentation

211
Q

What salivary gland secretes digestive enzymes (salivary amylase)?

A

Parotid

212
Q

What salivary gland secretes mucus, buffer, and lubricant?

A

Sublingual

213
Q

what salivary gland secretes, buffer, mucins, enzymes (salivary amylase)

A

Submandibular

214
Q

glycoproteins responsible for lubrication

A

Mucins

215
Q

Explain the pharyngeal phase of swallowing:

A

bolus comes into contact with pharyngeal wall
larynx elevates
epiglottis folds over

216
Q

explain the esophogeal phase of swallowing:

A

begins with contraction of pharyngeal muscles
forces bolus to the esophogus and then peristalic contraction push it to the stomach
bolus triggers the opening of the esophogeal sphincter to open and allow the bolus to enter the stomach

217
Q

A mixture of materials and stomach secretions that is highly acidic and thick.

A

Chyme

218
Q

what do chief cells secrete?

A

Pepsinogen

219
Q

what do pyloric glands secrete?

A

Mucus

220
Q

What are three phases of gastric activity control?

A

Cephalic
Gastric
Intestinal

221
Q

What starts the cephalic stage of gastric activity and what does this phase do?

A

seeing, smelling, or thinking of food.

prepares the stomach for food and produces gastric juice

222
Q

What starts the gastric phase of digestion?

A

Food arriving at stomach

223
Q

What controls the cephalic phase of GA, Gastric Phase?

A

Vagus Nerve

neural and local factors

224
Q

What is the neural response of the gastric phase of GA?

A

stimulation of stretch receptors in the stomach wall and chemoreceptors in the mucosa trigger sensory neurons which intervate parietal and chief cells

225
Q

When does the intestinal phase of GA start?

A

When Chyme enters stomach

226
Q

Explain the neural response of gastric activity during the intestional phase?

A

chyme leaves the stomach, distention lessens, stretch receptor stimulation decreases, while chyme entering the duodenum stimulates stretch and chemoreceptors.

The enterogastric reflex inhibits gastric production, contractions, and stimulates the pyloric sphincter.

227
Q

90% of nutritent absorption occurs in the

A

Small intestine

228
Q

what does pancreatic alpha amylase do?

A

Breakdown starches

229
Q

provides digestive enzymes and buffers to neutralize chyme

A

Pancreas

230
Q

produces bile into the small intestine containing buffers and bile salts

A

Liver

231
Q

he digestive functioning of the pancreas is mostly controlled by

A

Hormones in the duodenum

232
Q

what does pancreatic lipase do?

A

Breaks down lipids

233
Q

what do nucleases do?

A

Breakdown RNA & DNA

234
Q

what do proteolytic enzymes do?

A

Break down proteins

235
Q

proteolytic enzymes are activated in the

A

Small intestine

236
Q

What are the classes of lipids?

A

Hormones, cholesterol, steroids, fatty acids

237
Q

many monosaccharides condensed by dehydration synthesis - glycogen, starch.

A

Polysaccharide

238
Q

two simple sugars condensed by dehydration synthesis - sucrose, maltose, lactose.

A

Disaccharide

239
Q

Simple sugars with 3 to 7 carbon atoms - glucose, fructose, galactose

A

Monosaccharide

240
Q

Why are ketones dangerous?

A

They cannot be absorbed by the liver, and return to circulation via the peripheral tissues where they are converted back to acetyl-koa.
The dissociate in solution, releasing a hydrogen ion that lowers pH

241
Q

What are the five important components regarding metabolism?

A 
liver
adopose tissue
skeletal muscle
neural tissue
peripheral tissues
242
Q

Why are proteins not an ideal source of ATP?

A

more difficult to break apart
makes ammonium ions, which are toxic
needed elsewhere - for structure and functioning of cells

243
Q

the hydrogen and amino group are removed from an amino acid, yielding an amoonium ion. Ammonium goes on to the liver, where it is coverted to urea via the urea cycle.

A

Deamination

244
Q

attaches an amino group to a keto acid, then coverts the keto acid into a form that can exit the mitochondria and be used for protein synthesis

A

Transamination

245
Q

equal lipids and proteins, lipids mostly cholesterol and phospholipids, transports extra cholesterol from tissues to liver for exrection through the bile - “good cholesterol”

A

Hi density lipoprotein’s

246
Q

made of cholesterol, even less phospholipids, very few tryglycerides, deliver cholesterol to peripheral tissues that can end up in the heart - “bad cholesterol”

A

Low density lipoprotein’s

247
Q

mainly tryglicerides, produces by intestinal epithelial cells from fats in food, carry fats from the intestinal tract to the bloodstream

A

Chlymicrons

248
Q

all cells use _____ for plasma membranes

A

Lipids

249
Q

the synthesis of lipids

A

Lipogenesis

250
Q

At rest, cells will use ______ - when active, cells will use ______ because it can be used immediately.

A

Lipids, glucose

251
Q

Do lipids generate more or less ATP than carbs?

A

more

252
Q

One fatty acid molecule can generate _____ ATP.

A

144

253
Q

every time a fatty acid is broken down __ ATP are generated.

A

12

254
Q

calcium absorption is: passive/active

A

Active

255
Q

sodium is absorbed via:

A

diffusion, cotransport, and active transport

256
Q

ll chemical reactions in an organism

A

Metabolism

257
Q

reactions that happen in a cell

A

Cellular metabolism

258
Q

breakdown of organic molecules

A

Catabolism

259
Q

synthesis of new molecules

A

Anabolism

260
Q

What are the three steps of lipid catabolism?

A
  • lipids are broken up via hydrolysis to produce one glycerol and three fatty acids
  • glycerol is converted to pyruvic acid
  • pyruvic acid enters the citric acid cycle
261
Q

What happens to fatty acids in lipid metabolism?

A

broken into 2 carbon molecules which are attached to acetyl-coA and enter the citric acid cycle

262
Q

Molecule with a peptide bond

A

peptide

263
Q

3 or more Peptides

A

Polypeptide

264
Q

Polypeptide with 100 amino acids

A

Protein

Anatomy & Physiology 2 (4 decks)

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