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Anatomy & Physiology 2 > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Who discovers antigens (blood types)?

A

Karl Lansteiner

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2
Q

What is the function of Blood?

A
  1. Transportation
  2. Regulation of pH and ions
  3. Restriction of fluid loss
  4. Defense (white blood cells)
  5. Stabilization of body temperature
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3
Q

Plasma Percentage in blood

A

55%

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4
Q

How much blood is in red blood cells

A

Hematocrit

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5
Q

Production of any cell

A

Hematypoises

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6
Q

Production of platelets

A

Thrombopoesis

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7
Q

Where do platelets come from

A

Megakaryocytes

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8
Q

This phase is stimulated by physical injury. Spasms when the capillary is damaged

A

Vasoconstriction

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9
Q

This phase becomes sticky when encountering a damaged capillary

Keeps basophils going
Recruits other platelets
Secrete chemical and vasoconstriction

A

Platelet Plug

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10
Q

What are the phases of platelet plug

A
  1. Platelet adhesion
  2. Platelet aggregation (platelets accumulating)
  3. Platelet Plug
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11
Q

Damage to blood vessels

A

Intrinsic

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12
Q

Factors of Intrinsic pathways

A

XII, XI, IX

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13
Q

Factors of extrinsic

A

III, IV

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14
Q

What breaks down the clot

A

Plasmin

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15
Q

Production of red blood cells

A

Erythropoesis

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16
Q

Where are red blood cells produced

A

Bone Marrow

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17
Q

white blood cells with a one-lobed nucleus. They are characterized by the absence of granules in their cytoplasm

A

Agranulocytes

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18
Q

a white blood cell with secretory granules in its cytoplasm, e.g., an eosinophil or a basophil.

A

Granulocytes

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19
Q

Membrane attack complex

A

MAC

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20
Q

Initiates binding without antibodies

A

Alternative pathway

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21
Q

Recognizes antigens and binds to it

A

Classical pathway

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22
Q

Inactive enzymes that become active

A

Complement system

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23
Q

3 pathways of complement system

A

Classical
Alternative
Lectin

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24
Q

This increases the production on MHC molecules and interferes with viral infection.

Seen as proteins and function like chemical messengers

A

Interferons

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25
Q

Ultimate stem cell

A

Hemocytoblast

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26
Q

Myeloid consist of

A

Red blood cells, platelets, “phils”, monocytes

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27
Q

Lymphoid consist of

A

Lymphocytes (t-cells & b-cells)

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28
Q

Stops blood flow (blood clotting)

A

Hemostasis

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29
Q

Platelets becoming sticky

A

Platelet adhesion

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30
Q

Platelets building

A

Platelet aggregation

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31
Q

Blood clotting

A

Coagulation

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32
Q

Damage to tissue outside blood vessel

A

Extrinsic pathway

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33
Q

Damage to blood vessel

A

Intrinsic pathway

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34
Q

Dissolves blood

A

Plasmin

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35
Q

list the steps of erythropoiesis.

A
  1. Proerythroblast
  2. Erythroblast (nucleus ejected)
  3. Reticulocyte (enters bloodstream)
  4. Erythrocytes (mature red blood cell)
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36
Q

Stacks of Red blood cells

A

Rouleau

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37
Q

Creates rouleau

A

RBC in capillary

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38
Q

What happens to Iron when RBC’s are broken down?

A

It is reused

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39
Q

What happens to pigment when RBC’s are broken down

A

It is thrown away (not reused)

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40
Q

What happens to protein when RBC are broken down

A

Creates other proteins

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41
Q

This is a low count if of red blood cells and is diagnosed by low HCT

A

Anemia

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42
Q

What causes Anemia?

A

Low production of RBC due to inactive bone marrow or low EPO

Abnormal hemoglobin levels or low hemoglobin content

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43
Q

Type of anemia where mutation affects the amino acid sequence of HB chains

Cells become stiff and curved

A

Sickle cell

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44
Q

Too many Red Blood Cells

A

Polycythemia

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45
Q

What causes Polycythemia

A

Increase in bone marrow activity or too much EPO

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46
Q

What are the 3 forms of Hemoglobin?

A

Oxyhemoglobin
Deoxyhemoglobin
Carbaminohemoglobin

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47
Q

Oxygen is attached to Iron (RBCs are light red)

A

Oxyhemoglobin

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48
Q

Oxygen not attached to Iron (RBCs dark red)

No oxygen

A

Deoxyhemoglobin

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49
Q

CO2 bound to amino acids of hemoglobin protein (RBC dark red)

A

Carbaminohemoglobin

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50
Q

What causes carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

CO2 binds to Iron of hemoglobin which blocks Oxygen from building

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51
Q

Proteins in red blood cells that determine blood type

Antigens on red blood cells.

A

Agglutinogens

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52
Q

Antibodies in plasma that binds to agglutinogens

A

Agglutinins

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53
Q

Determines positive or negative

A

Rh Factor

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54
Q

Donors give?

A

Antigens

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55
Q

Recipients

A

Antibodies

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56
Q

What are the 5 major types of leukocytes (WBC)?

A 
Neutrophils 
Easinophils
Basophils
Lymphocytes 
Monocytes
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57
Q

You can give _______ blood to a positive person but not _______ blood to a negative

A

Negative, positive

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58
Q

What are the plasma components in whole blood and their quantities?

A 
1. Proteins 7%: 
              Albumins: 57%
              Globulins: 38%
              Fibrogens: 4%
              Prothrombin: 1%
2. Water: 91%
3. Other: 2%
            Ions, Nutrients, Waste Products,          Gases
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59
Q

What are the formed elements components in whole blood and their quantities?

A

1.Platelets: <1%

2. Leukocytes: <1%
             Neutrophils: 60-70%
             Lymphocytes: 20-25%
             Monocytes: 3-8%
3. Erythrocytes: 99%
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60
Q

Percentage of Formed Elements in the Blood

A

45%

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61
Q

These are classified as Vagisitic cells and are usually the first in site at injury

Creates inflammatory response

65% in white blood cells

A

Neutrophils

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62
Q

This increases permeability

A

Prostaglandins

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63
Q

Signaling cell

A

Leukotriimes

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64
Q

2.5% in white blood cells
Protects against parasites and allergens
Crank out toxins to kill cell

Can help digest bacteria

A

Eosinophils

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65
Q

Less than 1% in white blood cells

Helps in inflammation by carting histamine and heparin

A

Basophils

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66
Q

Responds to infection - finds abnormal cells and eliminates possible cancer cells

A

T cells

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67
Q

Turn into plasma cells

Create antibodies

A

B cells

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68
Q

Make up 5-10 percent of circulating lymphocytes. These lymphocytes attack foreign cells, body cells infected with viruses, and cancer cells that appears in normal tissues. Their continuous monitoring of peripheral tissues is called immune surveillance.

A

Natural Killer cells

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69
Q

Types of lymphocytes

Percentage of lymphocyte in blood cells?

A

T cells
B cells
NK cells

20-30%

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70
Q

Digest bacteria and cells infected by virus

Largest in size

A

Monocyte

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71
Q

Percentage of monocytes in blood cells

A

2-8%

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72
Q

Abnormal leukocytes created

Suppresses normal development of other formed elements

A

Leukemia

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73
Q

Abnormal T and B cells

A

Lymphocytic leukemia

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74
Q

Effects “phils”

type of cancer of the blood and bone marrow with excess immature white blood cells.

A

Myeloid leukemia

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75
Q

Decrease in white blood cells

A

Leukopenia

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76
Q

Increase in White Blood Cells

A

Leukocytosis

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77
Q

Vessels and tissues

A

Lymphatic system

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78
Q

Cells

A

Immune system

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79
Q

Have multiple afferent vessels coming in and one efferent vessels

A

Lymph nodes

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80
Q

All ______ are lined by reticuloenfoyhelial cells (macrophages)

A

Sinuses

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81
Q

Stopping particles from going any further

A

Mechanical filtration

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82
Q

Action of what to do with particles

A

Biological filtration

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83
Q

T Cells mature in the the __________

A

Thymus

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84
Q

This is only active during puberty and isn’t present in adults

A

Thymus

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85
Q

Action of the Spleen?

A
  1. Cares for RBC’s - breaks down and recycles them
  2. Major Iron Storage Cite
  3. Initiate Immune Response

packed full of white blood cells

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86
Q

Type of immunity you are born with.
Skin, mucous membrane etc

do not distinguish one type of threat from another. Their response is the same, regardless of the type of invading agent. These defenses, which are present at birth, provide a defence capabillity known as nonspecific resistence.

A

Innate

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87
Q

Immunity you are not born with

A

Adaptive

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88
Q

Immune system is stimulated to produce its own antibodies

A

Active Adaptive Immunity

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89
Q

Type of immunity when you come across germs in environmental- causes you to produce your own immunity to it

A

Naturally acquired active immunity

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90
Q

Purposefully produce immunity (vaccinations)

A

Artificially induced active immunity

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91
Q

This type of immunity is obtained by the transfer of antibodies

A

Passive adaptive immunity

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92
Q

Type of immunity one gets from Maternal antibodies through things like breast feeding

A

Naturally acquired passive immunity

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93
Q

Type of immunity one gets from injection of antibodies

A

Artificially induced passive immunity

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94
Q

Lymphocyte does not attack pathogens

A

Antibody-mediated immunity

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95
Q

Antibody-mediated immunity usually are refers to what type of cell

A

B cells

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96
Q

an immune response that does not involve antibodies, but rather involves the activation of phagocytes, antigen-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocytes, and the release of various cytokines in response to an antigen.

A

Cell-mediated immunity

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97
Q

Cell-mediated immunity usually refers to what type of cell?

A

T-cells

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98
Q

What are the steps of activation for antigen recognition?

A
  1. Specific antigen—> Find the antigen to bind to

2. Chemical stimulus

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99
Q 
All nucleated cells,
If antigen is present this class tells T-cells "I'm abnormal or an infected cell kill me"
A

Class I

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100
Q

This class is recognized by cytotoxic and suppressor T cells

A

Class I

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101
Q

This class tells T-cells “look what I found. Dangerous. kill it NOT ME.”

A

Class II

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102
Q

T cells with CD8 markers

A

Cytotoxic and Suppressor

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103
Q

How are Class I Cells killed?

A
  1. Infected cells present antigen
  2. Presentation with MHC class I protein
  3. Cytotoxic T cells recognize Class I MHC
  4. Cytotoxic T cells bind to infected cell
  5. Divide creating effector and memory cytotoxic T cells
  6. Effector CT cells kill infected cells
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104
Q

Destroying of membrane by poking holes

A

Perforin release

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105
Q

Triggers apoptosis

A

Granzymes

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106
Q

The lymphatic system filters and cleans lymph. Which of the following is the correct order of fluid movement?

A

Blood- interestitial fluid lymph- blood

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107
Q

What are the functions of the lymphatic system?

A

absorbs and transports fats and fat-soluble vitamins
drains excess fluid from body tissues to the blood
aids the body’s immune system by filtering out harmful microorganisms from lymph.

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108
Q

How does fever occur?

A

Result from a reset of the body’s thermostat in the hypothalamus which temporarily increases the set point or target temperature to a higher than normal value.

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109
Q

What is the difference between a humoral specific immune response and cellular specific immune response?

A

Humoral specific immune response is the defense system made up by of antibodies, defense proteins secreted by lymphocytes that attack foreign agents with a high degree of specificity. Cellular specific immune response is the defense system in which specific lymphocytes (cells) directly attack other foreign cells and agents.

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110
Q

secrete small proteins called cytokines that regulate or assist in the active immune response by activating other immune cells. They also present antigens to B cells.

A

Helper T Cell

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111
Q

persist long-term after an infection has resolved. They quickly expand to large numbers of effector T cells upon re-exposure to their antigens, thus providing the immune system with “memory” against past infections.

A

Memory T Cells

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112
Q

crucial for the maintenance of immunological tolerance, because they play a role in suppressing overactive immune responses.

A

Suppressor T Cells

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113
Q

bridge the adaptive immune system with the innate immune system by producing cytokines and binding to non-MHC or protein bound antigens, such as glycolipids and lipids.

A

Natural Killer Cells

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114
Q

a toxin or other foreign substance that induces an immune response in the body, especially the production of antibodies.

A

Antigen

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115
Q

the part of an antigen that is recognized by the immune system

A

Antigenic determinant

116
Q

a bacterium, virus, or other microorganism that can cause disease.

A

Pathogen

117
Q

a substance that causes an allergic reaction

Caused by an excessive immune response

A

Allergen

118
Q

explain the communication between the sensitized B cell and the helper T cell to activate the B cell.

A

The helper T cell binds to the antigen-MHC class II complex and is induced to release cytokines that induce the B cell to divide rapidly, making thousands of identical (clonal) cells. These daughter cells become either plasma cells or memory B cells.

119
Q

explain the difference in activation time and antibody concentration between primary and secondary response.

A

Primary 10 days and less concentration (slower response)

Secondary: 3 days and more concentration (faster response time)

120
Q

Be able to discuss the functional aspects of RBCs, specifically surface

A

The shape allows it to fit into capillaries and flexibility for the turns in the blood stream

121
Q

Be able to explain the role of the liver in coagulation.

A

the liver include coagulation factors I (fibrinogen), II (prothrombin), V, VII, VIII, IX, X, XI, XIII

122
Q

Binds to surface of bacteria

End result kills bacteria

A

Lectin pathway

123
Q

Be able to explain the role of vitamin K in coagulation

A

vitamin K affects the clotting mechanism by being essential for the production of four distinct clotting factors: prothrombin, factors VII, IX and X.

124
Q

characteristics of innate immunity

A

Antigens on surface
Attack anything
No memory
Localized

125
Q

identify the major physical barriers to infection

A

Skin and mucous

126
Q

Phagocytes role in immunity

A

To engulf and digest pathogens

127
Q

Be able to briefly explain the role of cell-mediated (cellular) immunity

A

an immune response that does not involve antibodies, but rather involves the activation of phagocytes, antigen-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocytes, and the release of various cytokines in response to an antigen.

128
Q

Be able to briefly explain the role of antibody-mediated (humoral) immunity.

A

On exposure to antigenic determinants in lymphatic organs, B‐lymphocytes are activated and differentiated to form plasma cells. Plasma cells are specialized, differentiated cells that synthesize and secrete antibodies specific for an antigen.

129
Q

role of MHC proteins.

A

Role: recognize antigens bound to glycoproteins in plasma membrains

130
Q

Types of MHC proteins

A

Class I: protein fragments inside cell, recognized by cytotoxic and suppressor T cells, holds antigen on cell if abnormal

Class II: on antigen presenting cell, recognized by helper T cells, presents antigen so body can’t find it

131
Q

Be able to explain or trace the flow of lymph through the lymphatic vessels to the lymphatic trunks to lymphatic ducts to the subclavian veins.

(Right Side)

A

R head —-> r jugular trunk–> r lymphatic duct—> r subclavian vein

R arm—> r subclavian trunk—> r lymphatic duct —> r subclavian Vein

132
Q

Be able to explain or trace the flow of lymph through the lymphatic vessels to the lymphatic trunks to lymphatic ducts to the subclavian veins.

(Left side)

A

L head—> l jugular trunk —> thoracic duct —> l subclavian Vein

L arm—> l subclavian trunk—> l thoracic duct—> l subclavian Vein

133
Q

Be able to explain or trace the flow of lymph through the lymphatic vessels to the lymphatic trunks to lymphatic ducts to the subclavian veins.

(Lower Body)

A

Cisterna chyli —> thoracic duct —> left subclavian Vein

134
Q

Antibody binds to site b4 pathogen can

A

Neutralization

135
Q

Antibody binds to pathogen so it can’t interfere with other cells

A

Adhesion

136
Q

Attracts phagocytes and makes phagocytosis easier

A

Opsonization

137
Q

Clumping

A

Precipitation and agglutination

138
Q

What are the 5 classes of antibodies?

A
  1. IgM
  2. IgG
  3. IgA
  4. IgE
  5. IgD
139
Q

Class of antibodies known for allergies. Binds to mast cells and basophils in order to release histamine.

A

IgE

140
Q

Class of antibodies in mucous membranes and bodily fluids

A

IgA

141
Q

Class of antibodies that are on the surface of B cells. Cannot cross placenta

A

IgG

142
Q

Class of antibodies that are a part of the secondary response system and are the most in the body. These can cross the placenta

A

IgM

143
Q

Amount of antibodies in blood

A

Antibody titer

144
Q

Most common type of allergy?

A

Type I

145
Q

Type of allergy that is
IgE mediated
Example: hay fever

A

Type I

146
Q

Type of allergy that is anyibody mediated, IgG and IgM

Ex: ABO incompatibility

A

Type II

147
Q

Type of allergy that is complement system mediated

Example: serum sickness

A

Type III

148
Q

Type of allergy that is T cell mediated

Ex: contact dermatitis

A

Type IV

149
Q

Function of RBC

A

Carries oxygen and removes Carbon dioxide from the body

150
Q

Function of WBC

A

involved in protecting the body against both infectious disease and foreign invaders.

151
Q

Function of platelets?

A

The principal function of platelets is to prevent bleeding

152
Q

What causes hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?

A

occurs when an Rh negative mother has a baby with an Rh positive father. When the baby’s Rh factor is positive, like the father’s, problems can develop if the baby’s red blood cells cross to the Rh negative mother.

153
Q

Why is RhoGAM Administered?

A

Rh immunoglobulin prevents your immune system from attacking your baby’s blood.

154
Q

the presence in tissues of harmful bacteria and their toxins, typically through infection of a wound.

A

Sepsis

155
Q

an intermittent and remittent fever caused by a protozoan parasite that invades the red blood cells. The parasite is transmitted by mosquitoes in many tropical and subtropical regions.

A

Malaria

156
Q

a medical condition in which the ability of the blood to clot is severely reduced, causing the sufferer to bleed severely from even a slight injury. The condition is typically caused by a hereditary lack of a coagulation factor, most often factor VIII.

A

Hemophilia

157
Q

blood disorder involving less than normal amounts of an oxygen-carrying protein.

A

Thalassemia

158
Q

Aka embolus
a blood clot, air bubble, piece of fatty deposit, or other object that has been carried in the bloodstream to lodge in a vessel and cause an embolism.

A

Emboli

159
Q

Aka thrombus

a blood clot formed in situ within the vascular system of the body and impeding blood flow.

A

Thrombi

160
Q

a pathological process characterized by the widespread activation of the clotting cascade that results in the formation of blood clots in the small blood vessels …

A

DIC (Disseminated intravascular coagulation)

161
Q

Which cells:
Are involved in direct immunity, bind to an infected cell, align the Golgi apparatus and secrete performs to create pores in the infected cell?

A

NK Cells

162
Q

List the Non Specific defenses.

A
  • Physical barriers: keep hazardous organisms and materials outside of the body.
  • Phagocytes: cells that engulf pathogens and collect cell debris.
  • Immune surveillance: the destruction of abnormal cells bt NK cells in peripheral tissues.
  • Interferons: chemicals that coordinate the defenses against viral infections.
  • Complement: a system of circulating proteins that tends to limit the spread of an injury or infection.
  • Inflammation: localized tissue level response that limits the spread of injury or infection.
  • Fever: an elevation of body temperature that accelerates tissue metabolism and defenses.
163
Q

Involved in slowing down virus replication by triggering nearby healthy cells to create antiviral proteins

A

Interferons

164
Q

Serves as a barrier lining entrances and exits to the human body

A

Mucous membranes

165
Q

Went to baby breast-feeds he acquires antibodies from his mother. For the baby this is an example of what kind of immunity

A

Naturally acquired passive

166
Q

Vaccination which is an injection of an in active anagen to stimulate an immune response is an example of which type of immunity

A

Artificially induced active(adaptive)

167
Q

If a patient is receiving Raby shots which administered antibodies to the patient to fight off the virus this is an example of which type of immunity

A

Artificially induced passive

168
Q

B cells have two important components on their service. What are they?

A

MHC class II proteins and a sample of there in antibody

169
Q

How do T Cells Kill?

A

Perforin Release: pokes holes
Granzymes: triggers apoptosis
interferes with cell metabolism

170
Q

When helper T cells are activated they?

A

Release cytokines to attract other immune cells to attack the target

171
Q

What section of an antibody determines its structure and therefore how it is secreted and distributed

A

…. constant segment(?)

172
Q

section of antibodies that contain binding sites?

A

variable segment(?)

173
Q

What is the function of the Respiratory system?

A 
Move and distribute air
Exchange gases
Warm, filter, humidify air
Produce sound
Role in olfaction
Homeostasis of pH
174
Q

What is considered the Upper Respiratory Tract?

A 
Outside Thorax( chest)
Larynx and above

Upper: nose, nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, pharynx.

175
Q

What is considered Lower Respiratory Tract?

A 
Below larynx (larynx not included)
Inside thorax (chest)

Lower: larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli.

176
Q

From external Nares to soft pallet

A

Nasopharynx

177
Q

From soft pallet to hyoid

A

Oropharynx

178
Q

From hyoid to opening of esophagus or larynx

A

Laryngopharynx

179
Q

Swirls and filters air

A

Chonchaee

180
Q

The nasal cavity traces air through?

A

External nares
Vestibule
Meatuses
Internal nares

181
Q

Voice box

A

Larynx

182
Q

What are the 3 major cartilage structures of the larynx?

A
  1. Cricoid- hyaline cartilage
  2. Thyroid
  3. Epiglottis
183
Q

Creates Adam’s apple

Hyaline cartilage

A

Thyroid

184
Q

Folds over when swallowing

Elastic cartilage

A

Epiglottis

185
Q

What are the 2 olds Mucosa Forms?

A

Vestibular Folds

Vocal folds

186
Q

False vocal chord

A

Vestibular folds

187
Q

True vocal chords

A

Vocal folds

188
Q

Produced by the length and tenseness of the vocal folds

A

Pitch

189
Q

Produced by vibrating vocal folds

A

Sound

190
Q

Production of sound

A

Phonation

191
Q

Modification of sound

A

Articulation

192
Q

Inflammation of the larynx

A

Laryngitis

193
Q

Function of the Trachea?

A

Passage of air

194
Q

As diameter decreases in the bronchial tree you _____ smooth muscle and ________ cartilage

A

Gain, lose

195
Q

This part of the bronchial tree goes into the lungs

A

Primary bronchi

196
Q

Trace the bronchial tree to the lungs

A 
Trachea 
Primary bronchi
Secondary bronchi
Tertiary bronchi 
Bronchioles 
Terminal bronchioles
Respiratory bronchioles 
Alveolar duct
Alveolar sac 
Alveoli
197
Q

What is the function of alveoli

A

Gas exchange

198
Q

This creates the respiratory membrane

A

Alveoli

199
Q

What produces surfactant

A

Pneumocytes Type II

200
Q

Keeps alveoli open, decreases surface tension

A

Surfactant

201
Q

Function of lungs

A

Distributes air, gas exchange

202
Q

Cilia sweeps mucus toward pharynx

A

Ciliary Escalator

203
Q

How does the respiratory defend against pathogens?

A

Mucus traps the debris and pathogen then cilary escalator is activated.

You either cough or swallow to rid the debris. Mucus increases

204
Q

Boyles law states

A

Pressure is inversely proportional to volume

205
Q

How does temperature affect oxygen saturation

A

Increased temperature causes a decrease in oxygen saturation

206
Q

The respiratory centers of the brain are located in the

A

Pons and medulla oblangata

207
Q

Increased tension of the vocal chords results in

A

Higher pitch

208
Q

Contraction of the diaphragm ________ the intrapulmonary pressure, producing _______

A

Decreases, inhalation

209
Q

Normal values of hematocrit for both men and women

A

Men: 50-54.1
Women: 38-47.1

210
Q

There are ______ lobes in the right lung and _____ lobes in the left lung

A

three, two

211
Q

Lower pH _____ the oxygen affinity of hemoglobin

A

Decreases

212
Q

What is the pressure relationship that causes inspiration to occur

A

Atmospheric pressure is greater than intrapulmonary pressure

213
Q

Sympathetic stimulation leads to_____ of the bronchioles

A

Dilation

214
Q

If you increase the volume of gas the pressure

A

Decreases

215
Q

If the dorsal respiratory group is active what will happen

A

Inhalation

216
Q

The. Amount of air moving into or out of the lung in a single respiratory cycle

A

Tidal volume

217
Q

Dalton’s law state

A

Total pressure exerted by mix of gases is the some of each individual gas

218
Q

The pneumococci and a pneumatic center ______ the respiratory rhythmicity centers

A

Adjust the output of

219
Q

Henry’s law states

A

Amount of particular gas in a solution is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas

220
Q

CO2 was transported in the blood by which of the following ways

A

Dissolves in plasma, binds to hemoglobin, becomes part of carbonic acid buffer system within a red blood cell

221
Q

If the ventral respiratory group is active what is happening

A

Forced inhalation

222
Q

process by which B-Cells prepare for activation by presenting an antigen bound to Class II MHC proteins

A

Sensitization

223
Q

Air moving from high to low pressure

A

Primary principle of ventilation

224
Q

Barametric pressure > Alveolar pressure

A

Happens during inhale

225
Q

Diaphragm contracts

A

Quiet Inhalation

226
Q

When diaphragm contracts Volume _____?

A

Increases

227
Q

Barometric pressure < Alveolar Pressure

A

Exhalation

228
Q

Normal expiration

A

Tital Volume

229
Q

Pushing out more air after normal exhale

A

Exploratory Reserve Volume

230
Q

Breathing in more after normal inhale

A

Inspiratory Reserve Volume

231
Q

TV+ ERV+IRV

A

Vital capacity

232
Q

Air left behind in alveoli

A

Residual Volume

233
Q

Air that we can’t do anything with

A

Dead space

234
Q

Air that hasn’t gotten to alveoli

A

Anatomical dead space

235
Q

Air is in alveoli but alveoli is damaged or not working

A

Physiological dead space

236
Q

TV x Respiratory rate

A

Total Minute Volume

237
Q

Tests for obstruction

A

FEV test

238
Q

Forced Expiratory Volume

A

FEV

239
Q

TV

A

Tital Volume

240
Q

ERV

A

Expiratory Reserve Volume

241
Q

IRV

A

Inspiratory Reserve Volume

242
Q

What happens in first 2nd (83%)

A

FEV 1

243
Q

What happens in first 2 seconds

A

FEV 2

244
Q

Airflow to alveoli

A

Alveolar ventilation

245
Q

Blood flow to alveoli

A

Alveolar perfusion

246
Q

Pneumotaxic ________ apneustic

A

Inhibits

Exhalation

247
Q

Apneustic _______ dorsal Respiratory group

A

Stimulate

Inhalation

248
Q

Negative feedback loop chemoreceptor Reflex

A

Increase partial pressure of CO2
Stimulate chemoreceptors
Send info to Respiratory Centers
Increase Respiratory Rate

Decrease partial pressure CO2
Inhibit chemoreceptors
Send info to Respiratory centers
Decrease Resp. Rate

249
Q

O2 diffusion is determined by…

A 
O2 pressure gradient
Surface area of Respiratory membrane 
Respiratory Rate
Respiratory Volume 
Alveolar ventilation
250
Q

Oxygen binds to?

A

Iron

251
Q

CO2 binds to?

A

Amino Acid Chains

252
Q

Where does oxygen go to in the blood stream

A

20% oxygen in plasma

80% oxygen to hemoglobin

253
Q

Where does CO2 go into the blood stream

A

10% CO2 to plasma
20-25% to hemoglobin
70% CO2 to bicarbonate

254
Q

What is the carbonic acid bicarbonate buffer system

A

H2O + CO2 —> H2CO3 —> H+ + HCO3-

255
Q

When CO2 increases
Hydrogen _______
And pH _________

A

Increases

Decreases

256
Q

When CO2 decreases
Hydrogen ________
Ph ____________

A

Decrease

Increases

257
Q

Oxygen diffuses ________ to __________

A

Capillary to Tissue

258
Q

CO2 diffuse _________ to _______

A

Tissue to capillary

259
Q

Pressure exerted by one gas in a mixture of gases?

A

Partial pressure

260
Q

Breathing to slow

A

Hypoventilation

261
Q

Breathing to fast

A

Hyperventilation

262
Q

The absence of oxygen

A

Anoxia

263
Q

An absence of enough oxygen in the blood to sustain bodily functions.

A

Hypoxia

264
Q

Abnormally elevated CO2 in blood

A

Hypercapnia

265
Q

state of reduced carbon dioxide in the blood. Aka hyperventilation

A

Hypocapnia

266
Q

Locate and explain the role of respiratory control centers in the brain.

A

Medulla:
the dorsal respiratory group -> takes place in normal breathing.
the ventral respiratory group -> forced breathing.
These respiratory rhythmicity centers establish the pace of respiration by adjusting pacemaker cells and coordinating respiratory muscle actions.

Pons: home to the apneustic and pneumotaxic centers, which work together to adjust the output of the respiratory rhythmic centers.

  • The pneumotaxic centers inhibit the apneustic centers and promote active or passive exhalation. An increase in pneumotaxic output quickens the pace of respiration by shortening the duration of each inhalation, and etc.
  • The apneustic centers promote inhalation by stimulating the DRG.
267
Q

Be able to explain the three major steps of hemostasis.

A

1 - Vascular: smooth muscle spasms, endothelial cells change structure and become sticky.

2 - Platelet phase: platelet adhesion, platelet aggregation, platelet plug.

3 - Coagulation: the extrinsic pathway begins with the release of tissue factor III by damaged endothelial cells or peripheral tissues. Tissue factor III then combines with Ca2+ and another clotting factor to form an enzyme complex capable of activating factor X, the first step in the common pathway. The intrinsic pathway begins with the activation of pro enzymes exposed to collagen fibers at the injury site. The pathway proceeds with the assistance of Pf-3, a platelet factor released by by aggregating platelets. After a series of linked reactions, activating clotting factors come together to form an enzyme complex capable of activating factor x. The common pathway begins when enzymes from either the extrinsic or intrinsic pathway activate factor x. Activated factor x activates the prothrombin activator - prothrombin activator converts the prothrombin enzyme to thrombin. Thrombin completes the clotting process by converting fibrinogen to fibrin.

267
Q

Secreted by T cells and NK cells and stimulates macrophage activity.

A

Gamma interferon

268
Q

Be able to explain the role of inactive CD4 T cells in antigen recognition.

A
  • Before they can initiate antibody mediated immunity, inactive CD4 cells must be exposed to class II MHC proteins.
  • Upon activation, CD4 T cells undergo a series of divisions and daughter cells differentiate into active helper t cells and memory TH cells.
  • Helper T cells stimulate immune responses of T and B cells, while the memory cells await the reapperance of the antigen.
269
Q

How immune system decreases with age

A

The immune system becomes less effective at combating disease. T cells become less responsive to allergens, so fewer cytotoxic t cells respond to an infection. Because the number of helper T cells is also reduced, B cells are less responsive so antibody levels do not rise as quickly after antigen exposure. The net result is an increased susceptibility to viral and bacterial infections.

270
Q

Explain the influence of baroreceptors on respiratory minute volume.

A

Barcoreceptors monitor blood pressure!

When arterial blood pressure decreases below its normal range, the respiratory minute volume increases due to stimulation of the respiratory centers.

When arterial blood pressure increase above normal range, the respiratory minute volume decreases due to inhibition of the respiratory centers.

271
Q

describe the process by which NKcells identify and kill abnormal cells.

A

a cell has unusual components in its plasma membrane, the NK cell recognizes it as abnormal.

The golgi apparatus moves around the nucleus until the maturing face points directly toward the abnormal cell. Perforin is produced and travels through the cytoplasm toward the cell surface.

The perforins are released at the cell surface via exocytosis and diffuse across the narrowing gap separating the NK cell from its target.
- As a result of the pores made by perforin molecules, the target cell can no longer maintain its internal environment and dies.

272
Q

occurs via a blockage of lymphatic drainage, a condition in which interstitial fluids accumulate and the affected area gradually becomes swollen and grossly distended. Most often affects a limb.

A

Lymphedema

273
Q

Explain why the lymphatic organs and tissues swell when the body fights infection.

A

When bacteria are recognized in the lymph fluid, the lymph nodes make more infection-fighting white blood cells, which can cause swelling.

274
Q

Distinguish between Hodgkin’s and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

A

If the specific type of abnormal cell called a Reed-Sternberg cell is present, the lymphoma is classified as Hodgkin’s. If the Reed-Sternberg cell is not present, the lymphoma is classified as non-Hodgkin’s.

275
Q

what is the function of the thymus

A

function of the thymus is to receive immature T cells that are produced in the red bone marrow and train them into functional, mature T cells that attack only foreign cells.

276
Q

What are the differences between pulmonary ventilation and re

A

Pulmonary ventilation represents total exchange of air between the lungs and the outside air, usually measured in liters per minute, and is driven by pressure differences.

Pulmonary respiration refers to the exchange of gases between the blood, lungs, cells and external environment.

277
Q

A disease in which the body produces antibodies that attack its own tissues, leading to the deterioration and in some cases to the destruction of such tissue.

A

Auto immune disorder

278
Q

prevent your body from fighting infections and diseases. This type of disorder makes it easier for you to catch viruses and bacterial infections

A

Immuno deficiency disorder

279
Q

Describe the pleura and explain its role in pulmonary ventilation (breathing)

A

pleural membranes enclose a fluid-filled space surrounding the lungs. The membranes and associated fluid serve to protect the lungs and to provide lubrication.

280
Q

produced by cells infected with viruses - attracts and stimulates NK cells and enhances resistance to viral infection.

A

Alpha interferon

281
Q

Secreted by fibroblasts and slows inflammation in a damaged area.

A

Beta interferon

282
Q

Secreted by T cells and NK cells and stimulates macrophage activity

A

Gamma interferon

283
Q

a reflex triggered to prevent over-inflation of the lung. Pulmonary stretch receptors present in the smooth muscle of the airways respond to excessive stretching of the lung during large inspirations.

A

Inflation reflex

284
Q

when the lungs are compressed or deflated an increase in ventilation occurs—pneumothorax

A

Deflation reflex

285
Q

sneezing, coughing. Both reflexes involve apena, a period in which breathing has stopped, usually followed by a forceful expulsion of air to remove the offending stimulus.

A

Protective reflex

286
Q

Explain the timing and processes of quiet and forced breathing, being sure to identify the respiratory centers and muscles involved.

A

Quiet - Diaphragm (60%) External Intercostals (40%)

Forced - uses accessory muscles of neck and thorax

Anatomy & Physiology 2 (4 decks)

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