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Biology 2051 > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

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AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Two types of growth in prokaryotes

A

Intercalary and Polar

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2
Q

Most common form of intercalary growth

A

binary fission

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3
Q

4 types of polar growth

A
  1. Simple Budding
  2. Budding by hyphae
  3. Cell Division in Stalked Bacteria
  4. Polar growth without differentiation of cell size
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4
Q

The growth of most microbes occurs by the process of

A

binary fission

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5
Q

What are the progeny like after the cell goes through binary fission?

A

The two progeny are exactly the same as the original cell

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6
Q

Steps in Binary Fission

A
  1. Cell Elongation
  2. Septum Formation (pinch b/w cells)
  3. Completion of Septum
  4. Formation of Walls
  5. Cell Separation
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7
Q

What happens to the DNA during binary fission

A

The DNA is copied (1 origin of replication to 2). The origins more to opposite sides of the cell and pull it apart.

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8
Q

Enzyme that moves the origins of replication to the opposite sides during binary fission

A

translocase

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9
Q

Steps in cell division

A
  1. DNA replication
  2. Formation of Divisome
  3. Cell elongation
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10
Q

proteins that ensure divisive forms at cell center

A

Min

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11
Q

proteins form ring where cell begins division

A

FtsZ

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12
Q

proteins that help hold FtsZ ring to cytoplasmic membrane

A

FtsA

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13
Q

in all 3 domains, this relaxes supercoils ahead of the replication fork

A

type II topoisomerase (DNA Gyrase)

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14
Q

in all 3 domains, this unwinds double helix at the replication form

A

DNA helicase

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15
Q

in all 3 domains, this adds RNA primer

A

primase

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16
Q

in all 3 domains, this adds deoxyribonucleotides in a 5’ to 3’ direction, complementary to the 3’ to 5’ strand

A

DNA polymerase (mainly DNA polymerase III)

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17
Q

What is the direction of synthesis in DNA replication

A

5’ to 3’

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18
Q

How is replication terminated in circular chromosomes?

A

Tus proteins recognize Ter sites and block the progress of the replication fork

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19
Q

How is replication terminated in eukaryotic chromosomes?

A

eukaryotes have telomerase to complete the ends of linear chromosomes to form the telomeres at each end

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20
Q

what happens to telomeres as you age

A

Telomeres get shorter as you age, but the only thing you lose is repeats

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21
Q

proteins that ensure divisome forms at cell center

A

Min

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22
Q

protein that forms ring were cell begins division

A

FtsZ

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23
Q

protein that helps hold ftsZ ring to cytoplasmic membrane

A

FtsA

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24
Q

proteins that form filamentous spiraled bands around inside of cell under the cytoplasmic membrane to direct new cell wall to be made at certain locations

A

MreB

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25
Q

penicillin binding proteins that are transpeptidases that insert new peptidoglycan into expanding cell wall

A

FtsI

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26
Q

proteins that are DNA translocates that move DNA during cell division

A

FtsK

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27
Q

Direction of synthesis in the replication bubble

A

5’ to 3’

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28
Q

How do bacteria and archaea terminate replication?

A

Circular chromosomes have Ter sites across from the origin of replication are recognized by Tus proteins that block the progress of the replication fork

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29
Q

sequences in the DNA where the Tus proteins bind

A

Ter sites

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30
Q

How do eukaryotes terminate replication?

A

Eukaryotes have telomerase to complete the ends of linear chromosomes to form the telomeres at each end

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31
Q

How does the MinE protein change as it moves through the cell

A

MinE proteins increase in concentration as it goes to the center of the cell

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32
Q

where does cell division take place

A

where the MinE protein concentration is at it’s highest

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33
Q

where does the FtsZ ring form

A

at high concentration of MinE protein

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34
Q

create small openings in existing cell wall

A

Autolysins

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35
Q

When may autolysis (spontaneous cell lysis) occur

A

if there is an error in inserting new cell wall material

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36
Q

steps of cell wall synthesis

A
  1. Formation of peptidoglycan precursors
  2. Transport of Pep. Precursors to expanding cell wall
  3. Insertion of peptidoglycan precursors into existing cell wall
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37
Q

hydrophobic lipid alcohol that binds the peptidoglycan precursor and facilitates transport through the cytoplasmic membrane

A

Bactoprenol

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38
Q

peptide bonds formation between pentapeptide of peptidoglycan precursor and tetra peptide of an existing peptidoglycan unit

A

Transpeptidation

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39
Q

what is growth?

A

increase in the number of cells

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40
Q

An example of an organism that grows through simple budding

A

sacharomyces

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41
Q

an example of a microbe that grows by budding from hyphae

A

hyphomicrobium

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42
Q

the end of the cell that begins to elongate in budding by hyphae

A

hypha

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43
Q

What are the steps in budding by hyphae?

A
  1. End of cell begins to elongate and hypha lengthens DNA replication.
  2. Copy of chromosomes enters bud.
  3. Formation of cross-septum
  4. Progeny that gets release has flagella
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44
Q

What happens when the progeny produced in budding by hyphae are ready to divide?

A

They will drop their flagella and follow the steps for budding by hyphae

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45
Q

example of a microbe that divides using the steps for cell division in stalked bacteria

A

caulobacter

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46
Q

Steps of cell division in stalked bacteria

A
  1. Loss of flagellum
  2. Initiation of DNA synthesis and stalk begins to grow
  3. Elongated stalked cell (synthesis of flagellum) and stalk attaches to a surface
  4. Previsional cell - cross band formation
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47
Q

How do eukaryotes grow?

A

Sexual and/or asexual reproduction

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48
Q

2 parents (meiosis from haploid cells (egg & sperm); fusion of haploid cells yields diploid zygote)

A

sexual reproduction

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49
Q

1 parents (mitosis keeps policy the same, so haploid yields haploid and diploid yields diploid)

A

asexual reproduction

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50
Q

What is the life cycle of Saccharomyces cerevisiae

A
  1. Budding - replication of genome
  2. Haploid (1n) form
  3. Diploid (2n) form
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51
Q

haploid form of saccaromyces that are germinated

A

ascospores

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52
Q

How do alpha and A strains (mating types) affect the haploid form of saccharomyces

A

A gives rise to more A cells
alpha gives rise to more alpha
via mitosis

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53
Q

When can cells of opposite mating types fuse?

A

Only under stress-like conditions

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54
Q

What is the life cycle of Chlamydomonas?

A

During sexual reproduction (stressful state), + and - type fuse at their flagella. Once they fully fuse together, they form a crusty outer layer (zygote, protects meiosis happening).

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55
Q

Why does meiosis occur in Chlamydomonas?

A

It occurs so that when conditions are favorable, the zygote breaks open to release the mature haploid cells

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56
Q

transition period to allow synthesis of enzymes for biosynthesis

A

lag phase

57
Q

period of regularly dividing cells, the culture is becoming more turbid

A

exponential phase

58
Q

period where the essential nutrients have been depleted, toxic products build up, and growth stops while cells wait for the environment to be conducive for growth

A

stationary phase

59
Q

What happens if conditions never look good in stationary phase?

A

Endospore forming microbes begin to form endospores

60
Q

period where cells die and viable count can be taken

A

death phase

61
Q

time required for one cell to form two cells

A

generation (doubling) time

62
Q

growth pattern where number of cells doubles over a regular time interval

A

exponential growth

63
Q

N=number of cells=

A

No2^n

64
Q

Generation time=G=

A

t/n

65
Q

counts the total number of cells by direct microscopic count (hemocytometer)

A

total cell count

66
Q

How does a hemocytometer work?

A

Has grid to count cells. In five of the 25 squares, you count n cells in each. The grid of 25 squares has 0.1 microliters.

67
Q

How do you count viable cells?

A

plate or colony count

68
Q

continuous culture devices that maintain cell populations in exponential growth for long periods

A

chemostats

69
Q

What must be controlled in a chemostat to keep the culture alive, and how is it controlled?

A

Dilution rate & concentration of limiting nutrients.

OverFlow (containing microbial cells) & Flow-Rate Regulator (introduces fresh medium)

70
Q

What do the colors indicate in viability staining?

A 
Green = Living
Red = Dead
71
Q

What does FISH stand for

A

fluorescent in situ hybridization

72
Q

How is fluorescence microscopy used to distinguish between organisms? What does it distinguish between?

A

Fluorescing ogligonucéeotides complementary in base sequence to sequences in rRNA. It can distinguish between prokaryotes and eukaryotes. It can go further to distinguish between bacteria and archaea. It can go even further to distinguish certain groups in bacteria or archaea

73
Q

What does FISH-MAR stand for?

A

FISH-microautoradiography

74
Q

How can FISH-Mar determine an organism’s ability to use CO2?

A

Feed radioactive substance (CO2) and the ones that can metabolize it become radioactive and fluoresce

75
Q

What property of a culture is being measured by turbidity measurements?

A

It measures how many cells are present, but not necessarily living cells

76
Q

What measurement is used for a turbidity measurement?

A

spectrophotometer

77
Q

What units is turbidity measured in?

A

optical density (OD)

78
Q

What is the spectrophotometer measuring?

A

absorbency: an increase in cell numbers decreases the unscattered light measured and increases the OD

79
Q

What does a standard curve represent?

A

Correlated turbidity measurements with actual cell number or mass to estimate cell number of future cultures

80
Q

What is the difference between pasteurization and sterilization?

A

Pasteurization - reduces microbial load by killing most pathogens and inhibiting the growth of spoilage microbes
Sterilization - killing of all organisms

81
Q

What is flash pasteurization?

A

Heat above which most microbes can survive for a brief period of time. 71 degrees celsius for 15 seconds

82
Q

Four methods of physical sterilization

A

Heat (most common), Radiation, Filtration, and Cold/Gas

83
Q

decimal reduction time

A

time it takes to kill 90% of the population. achieved better at higher temperatures

84
Q

The temperature needed for heat sterilization depends on the ___ temp of growth for an organism

A

maximum

85
Q

What equipment is used to heat sterilize?

A

Autoclave at 121 degrees celsius, using steam heat under pressure

86
Q

What factors determine the amount of autoclave time needed for sterilization?

A

number, size, density

87
Q

List 4 factors that increase heat resistance

A

high pH, high solute concentration, thermophiles, endospores (low water content)

88
Q

What are the different types of radiation used for sterilization?

A

UV and Ionizing Radiation (more lethal)

89
Q

What does UV Radiation do?

A

Sterilizes surfaces because it cannot penetrate solids. Causes thymine dimers in DNA.

90
Q

What does Ionizing radiation (x rays, electrons, and gamma rays) do?

A

Causes breaks in the DNA strands. Breads hydrogen bonds and disulfide bridges in proteins. Can penetrate solids.

91
Q

a device that has pores too small for microbes to git through but large enough for the liquid or gas to pass

A

filter

92
Q

How do depth filters work?

A

Fibrous sheets or mats that trap filter particles from liquids and the air

93
Q

What is commonly sterilized by depth filters?

A

liquids and gases

94
Q

How do membrane filters work?

A

Thin sheets with 0.2 micrometer pores needed to filter our major pathogens. Act like sieves

95
Q

What is commonly sterilized by membrane filters

A

antibiotics & other pharmaceuticals

96
Q

freeze drying

A

lyophilization

97
Q

chemicals that kill organisms

A

cidal agents

98
Q

chemicals that inhibit (limit) the growth of microbes

A

static agents

99
Q

antimicrobial growth agents that bind tightly to their cellular targets, lysis does not occur
Ex: triclosan blocks fatty acid synthesis in may bacteria

A

bactericidal agents

100
Q

antimicrobial growth agents that kill cells by lysis

Ex: penicillin inhibits cell wall synthesis

A

bacteriolytic agents

101
Q

antibiotic inhibitors of protein synthesis by binding to ribosomes

A

bacteriostatic agents

102
Q

azoles prevent formation of normal fungal cell membrane

A

fungistatic agents

103
Q

digests paper

A

cytophaga

104
Q

Antimicrobial chemicals used in the petroleum industry

A

mercurics, phenols, cationic detergents, methylisothiazolinone prevent growth

105
Q

antimicrobial chemicals used in the air conditioning industry

A

chlorine, phenols, methylisothiazolione to prevent growth of bacteria in cooling towers

106
Q

British surgeon found that survival rate of surgical patients increased if he sterilized instruments and used disinfectants during surgery

A

Lister

107
Q

4 Categories of chemical antimicrobial agents used to control microbes considered to be harmful to humans

A
  1. Sterilants
  2. Disinfectants
  3. Sanitizers
  4. Antiseptics and Germicides
108
Q

destroy all forms of life (ex. ethylene oxide gas, formaldehyde 3% or 37%, glutaraldehyde 2%, hydrogen peroxide, and peroxyacetic acid)

A

sterilant

109
Q

kill microbes, but endospores are typically resistant (ex. ethylene oxide gas, formaldehyde 3%, glutaraldehyde, hydrogen peroxide, and peroxyacetic acid)

A

disinfectant

110
Q

reduce the microbial load but may not eliminate all microbes

A

sanitizers

111
Q

kill or inhibit growth of microbes on living tissue (Ex. triclosan)

A

antiseptics & germicides

112
Q

Who was the first to coin the term chemotherapy

A

Ehrlich

113
Q

the ability to kill or inhibit a pathogen without harming the host

A

selective toxicity

114
Q

The first chemotherapeutic antimicrobial drug (created by Ehrlich and used to cure syphilis)

A

Salvarsan - it did not meet the criteria of selective toxicity

115
Q

How do synthetic agents differ from antibiotics?

A

Synthetic agents are manmade and antibiotics are organic

116
Q

highest concentration the drugs that will eliminate microbe

A

toxic dose

117
Q

lowest concentration of the drug that will eliminate microbe

A

therapeutic dose

118
Q

How does the sulfa drug, sulfanilamide, disrupt folic acid synthesis in bacteria?

A

Folic acid comes from p-Aminobenzoic acid. The bacteria will try to use sulfanilamide to make folic acid but it won’t work. It confuses the cell.

119
Q

How does ionizing disrupt mycelia acid synthesis in Mycobacterium?

A

inhibits mycelia acid synthesis and helps treat TB by making mycobacterial cells to look like any other gram positive cell

120
Q

compounds that interact with bacterial DNA gyrate preventing the gyrase from supercoiling DNA

A

quinolones

121
Q

What is the origin of all antibiotics?

A

Bacteria and Fungi

122
Q

What term is used to describe the range of effectiveness for an antibiotic?

A

Antimicrobial Spectrum of Activity

123
Q

effective against a wide variety of bacteria

A

broad spectrum antibiotics

124
Q

effective on a subject of bacteria

A

narrow spectrum antibiotics

125
Q

discovered by Alexander fleming because it was formed on Staphylococcus by chance

A

Penicillin made by Penicillium

126
Q

What class of antimicrobial is penicillin?

A

Beta Lactan

127
Q

bacteriolytic antimicrobial chemicals that are the most important and have low host toxicity

A

Beta Lactan

128
Q

mode of action of beta lactan antibiotics

A

inhibit cell wall synthesis in bacteria by binding to transpeptidases

129
Q

Made by fungus Cephalosporium. Same mode of action as penicillin but broader spectrum of activity and highly resistant to beta lactamases

A

cephalosporins

130
Q

What do Carbapenems and Monobactams have in common?

A

They are derived from fungi

131
Q

Derived from from Streptomycin cattle. Resistant to beta lactamase but degraded by kidneys. Must be given with a drug to prevent degradation. Broad spectrum

A

Carbapenems

132
Q

Produced by Chromobacter violaceum. Beta-lactamase resistant. Helpful against Pseudomonas infections in CF patients.

A

Monobactams

133
Q

Mutation rate of E. coli

A

1/100k - 1/1 billion progeny

134
Q

genome replication and cell division that produces 2 identical cells

A

vertical gene transfer

135
Q

steps of transformation

A

binding DNA from donor cell
update of ssDNA
Rica mediated homologous recombination
previously susceptible cell is now resistant to antibiotics

136
Q

transfer of any gene from one bacterium to another via a virus

A

generalized transduction

137
Q

transfer of a specific region of bacterial chromosome to another bacterium via a virus; requires a lysogen to be removed incorrectly, a rare event

A

specialized transduction

138
Q

Describe how resistance plasmids can make a bacterium resistant to an antibiotic.

A

The contain genes encoding enzymes that actively pump antibiotic out of cell and inactivate antibiotic. Plasmid and chromosomes can be transferred by conjugation

Biology 2051 (7 decks)

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