Exam 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

What type of sugar is deoxyribose?

A

a pentose sugar

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2
Q

In 1950, Erwin Chargoff reported that DNA composition varies from one species to the next.
True or False

A

true

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3
Q

Nucleic acids are polymers specialized for what three things?

A
  • storage
  • transmission
  • use of genetic information
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4
Q

What is the monomer of nucleic acids?

A

nucleotides

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5
Q

Are pyrimidines single rings or double rings?

A

single rings

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6
Q

Which nitrogen bases are purines ?

A

adenine and guanine

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7
Q

Are Purines single rings or double rings?

A

double rings

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8
Q

What is the name of the rule that states that in any species there is an equal number of A and T bases, and an equal number of G and C bases?

A

Chargaff’s rule

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9
Q

Pairing a purine with a pyrimidine results in a uniform width.
true or false?

A

true

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10
Q

What three things together build a nucleotide?

A

pentose sugar+ N-containing base+ phosphate group

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11
Q

What two pyrimidines are used in DNA ?

A
  • Thymine

* Cytosine

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12
Q

What did James Watson and Francis Crick (the buttheads) do?

A

Introduced an elegant double-helical model

Stole the information from Rosalind Franklin

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13
Q

Who was responsible for taking DNA and crystalizing it to take an x-ray photograph?

A

Rosalind Franklin

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14
Q

How did Rosalind Franklin determine that DNA was a double helix?

A

By MEASURING the xray crystallography that she had taken of DNA

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15
Q

The Watson-Crick model helped explain Chargoff’s rule. true or false?

A

true

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16
Q

Why can A not pair with C and G not pair with T?

A

Because of the amount of hydrogen bonds needed

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17
Q

What does anti-paralell mean?

A

the two strands going in opposite directions, like two roads going in opposite directions

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18
Q

The two strands of DNA are _____________, so each strand acts as a template for building a new strand in replication.

A

complementary

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19
Q

In DNA replication, what does the enzyme helicase unwind?

A

the parent molecule

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20
Q

Once the parent molecule unwinds, the two new daughter strands are built based on what?

A

base pairing rules

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21
Q

What does a daughter DNA molecule consist of?

A

One parental strand and one new strand

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22
Q

The new cell that will be made needs a copy of what?

A

the entire DNA

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23
Q

What is a template?

A

An existing DNA strand that we can use to copy from or build off of

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24
Q

What type of bond holds the two strands together?

A

Hydrogen bonds

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25
Q

What Model predicts that when a double helix replicates, each daughter molecule will have one old strand “conserved” from the parent molecule and one newly made strand?

A

Semiconservative Model

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26
Q

Is DNA synthesis anabolic or catabolic?

A

anabolic

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27
Q

What four things will the cell need to do DNA replication?

A
  1. Energy
  2. Template
  3. Enzymes
  4. Nucleotides (4 Nitrogen bases)
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28
Q

How many strands of DNA are there that must be copied?

A

48 strands, 24 pairs

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29
Q

DNA is short and thick.

True or False?

A

Fasle, DNA is very thin and incredibly long

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30
Q

Does DNA synthesis require ATP (Energy)?

A

Yes, it’s anabolic, it needs energy to build

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31
Q

Name the 4 nitrogen bases used to construct DNA

A
  • Adenine
  • Thymine
  • Cytosine
  • Guanine
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32
Q

Of the 4 bases, which ones are double rings?

A

Adenine and Guanine

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33
Q

What monomer is used to build into polymers in DNA replication?

A

Nucleotides

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34
Q

What is copulation?

A

the act of intercourse to introduce an egg cell to a sperm cell

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35
Q

DNA replication takes one strand and makes it into ___ _______.

A

two strands

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36
Q

In cells produced by mitosis, are all chromosomes alone or in pairs?

A

all chromosomes are in pairs

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37
Q

How many PAIRS of chromosomes are found in humans?

A

23 pairs

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38
Q

Are egg and sperm cells functional without fertilization (without eachother)?

A

no, they are not functional alone

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39
Q

When DNA first replicates, the two inner strands are still what?

A

Still attached to eachother, stuck together

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40
Q

During DNA replication, they speak of a “narrow waist” where there is a pinching of the two sister chromatids together, what is this area called?

A

centromer(e)

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41
Q

Where does the new strand replicate, on the outside or inside?

A

on the inside

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42
Q

What is the function of mitosis?

A

to pull apart the chromatids and allow them to complete and become two chromosomes.

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43
Q

If in Mitosis all chromosomes are in pairs, (one from mom, one from dad), what happens with Meiosis?

A

Meiosis= 1/2 of each chromosome pair

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44
Q

Which helps you repair, mitosis or meiosis?

A

Mitosis

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45
Q

What is made up of DNA and histone proteins?

A

Chromatin

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46
Q

Where are eggs and sperm produced?

A

in the ovaries and testes

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47
Q

How is asexual reproduction in humans done efficiently?

A

mitosis

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48
Q

How is asexual reproduction in bacteria done efficiently?

A

binary fission

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49
Q

Asexual reproduction means to what?

A

clone

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50
Q

Sexual reproduction is done through _______.

A

meiosis

egg and sperm

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51
Q

Is DNA replication part of interphase or mitosis?

A

DNA replication is part of interphase

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52
Q

In which part of the stages of mitosis is most of the work done?

A

prophase/prometaphase

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53
Q

Once the chromosomes look like X’s , they have been replicated (s phase) and are ready (for G2) and are ready for mitosis.
true or false?

A

true

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54
Q

The centrioles grow microtubules and attach to the chromosome at what part?

A

the centromer

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55
Q

What protein by the centromer can the microtubules attach to?

A

kinetochore

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56
Q

In what part of Interphase does DNA replicate?

A

S phase

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57
Q

In prophase, prophase I, and prophase II, chromatin is condensing into ___________.

A

Chromosomes

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58
Q

In Prophase (during mitosis), the nuclear envelope and the nucleolus are doing what?

A

breaking down

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59
Q

Does a replication of centrioles happen during mitosis?

A

yes

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60
Q

What does Helicase do?

A

unwinds the parent double helix at replication forks

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61
Q

What does a single-strand binding protein do?

A

Binds to and stabilizes single-stranded DNA

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62
Q

Which enzyme relieves “overwinding” strain ahead of replication forks by breaking, swiveling, and rejoining DNA strands

A

Topoisomerase

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63
Q

What is primase for?

A

synthesizing RNA Primer at 5’ end of leading strand and of each Okazaki fragment of lagging strand

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64
Q

What makes new DNA strands by covalently adding nucleotides to the 3’ end of pre-existing DNA strand or RNA primer

A

DNA pol III

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65
Q

What enzyme removes RNA nucleotides of primer and replaces them with DNA nucleotides?

A

DNA polymerase I

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66
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for joining the 3’ end of DNA that replaces primer to the rest of the leading strand and joins Okazaki fragments of the lagging strand?

A
DNA ligase 
(hint: ligands join things together)
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67
Q

Which enzyme works first, DNA pol I or DNA pol III?

A

DNA polymerase III

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68
Q

Replication begins at particular sites called what?

A

Origins of replication

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69
Q

What happens to the two DNA strands at the origin of replication?

A

the two DNA strands are separated, opening up a replication “bubble”

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70
Q

Where do origins of replication usually begin?

A

Where there are multiple A-T sequences in a row together.

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71
Q

Why are A-T sequences a good place for an origin of replication?

A

Because they are easier to break apart since A-T only have 2 hydrogen bonds

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72
Q

Are there multiple origins of replication or just one?

A

multiple, this helps it to happen quicker

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73
Q

A eukaryotic chromosome may have hundreds or even thousands of origins of replication.
true or false?

A

true

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74
Q

Replication proceeds in which direction from each origin, until the entire molecule is copied?

A

in both directions

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75
Q

The Daughter strand is the ___ strand while the Parental Strand is the ___ strand

A

new, old

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76
Q

Which strand is the template?

A

The parental strand

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77
Q

RNA can complimentary base-pair with DNA.

true or false?

A

true

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78
Q

DNA polymerases can only ADD nucleotides to the 3’ end, they cannot do what?

A

initiate synthesis of a polynucleotide

they cannot start until a primer is added

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79
Q

We can only add new nucleotides to a 3’ end becuase of the _____ of the enzyme.

A

shape

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80
Q

Which enzyme can start an RNA chain from scratch and add RNA nucleotides one at a time to the parental DNA template?

A

primase

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81
Q

When they refer to the RNA primer as short, how many nucleotides long is it?

A

5-10 nucleotides long

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82
Q

5’ and 3’ has to do with the orientation of what?

A

the carbons

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83
Q

The 3’ end is continuous, while the bottom strand (lagging strand) has to wait for what?

A
  • for it to unwind
  • wait for a primer
  • then add nucleotides
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84
Q

At the end of each replication bubble is a replication ____. A y-shaped region where new DNA strands are __________.

A

fork

elongating

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85
Q

Does helicase untwist the double helix behind or ahead of the fork

A

ahead of the fork

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86
Q

Does topoisomerase correct “overwinding” behind or ahead of the fork?

A

ahead of the fork

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87
Q

What two things do most DNA polymerase require?

A

a primer

a DNA template strand

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88
Q

What is the rate of elongation in bacteria and the rate of elongation in human cells?

A
bacteria= 500 nucleotides per second
humans= 50 nucleotides per second
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89
Q

DNA polymerases add nucleotides only to the free 3’ end, therefore a new DNA strand can elongate only in the _’ to _’ direction

A

5’ to 3’

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90
Q

To elongate the lagging strand, DNA polymerase must work in what direction?

A

in the direction away from the replication fork

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91
Q

The lagging strand is synthesized as a series of segments called what?

A

Okazaki fragments

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92
Q

Okazaki fragments are joined together by what enzyme?

A

DNA Ligase

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93
Q

The lagging strand can’t add nucleotides continuously, it can only add to a 3’ end so it has to wait for what to happen before it can add a primer?

A

for helicase to unwind it

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94
Q

What does DNA Polymerase I do to the RNA Primer?

A

It cuts out the RNA primer and replaces the RNA with DNA nucleotides

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95
Q

Ligase comes in after DNA Polymerase I and does what?

A

Connects it together so that we have a continuous strand of DNA

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96
Q

What does a DNA Polymerase proofreader do?

A

Goes down the newly made DNA strand, finds mistakes, cuts them out and replaces any incorrect nucleotides

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97
Q

What happens if a proofreader misses a mistake?

A

a mutation occurs

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98
Q

What do SOS enzymes do?

A

repair

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99
Q

What is another name for a mutagenic agent?

A

a carcinogen

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100
Q

What happens in nucleotide excision repair?

A

a nuclease cuts out incorrect nucleotide and replaces damaged stretches of DNA

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101
Q

Base pairs code for amino acids.

true or false?

A

true

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102
Q

When is the only time that mutations can happen?

A

When DNA is replicating

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103
Q

What is Nuclease

A

an SOS repair enzyme

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104
Q

When is the only time that a mutation that occurs can effect your offspring?

A

If the mutation happens while making an Egg or a Sperm

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105
Q

Why do humans evolve so slowly?

A

they have a low reproduction rate

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106
Q

What are the chances that a mutation can occur?

A

10^6 or 1 in a million

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107
Q

Cancer is a mistake in DNA replication.

true or false?

A

true

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108
Q

How many errors occured for someone that gets sickle-cell anemia?

A

only one error

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109
Q

What does sickle-cell anemia protect from?

A

malaria

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110
Q

If there were no errors possible, we would never get cancer, but we would also never do what?

A

evolve

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111
Q

The chromosomes of prokaryotes are what shape?

A

circular

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112
Q

As DNA replicates, it gets _______.

A

shorter

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113
Q

Once you cut out the primer at the end, you cannot complete it. During the next round of replication, it will get ___ ___.

A

cut off

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114
Q

What are the ends of DNA that don’t code for anything called?

A

telomers

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115
Q

Define Biological age

A

how many times your cells have divided

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116
Q

Define Chronological age

A

Age you are in numbers

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117
Q

Telomeres do not prevent the shortening of DNA molecules, but what do they do?

A

postpone the erosion of genes near the ends of DNA

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118
Q

It has been proposed that the shortening of telomeres is connected to what?

A

aging

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119
Q

define apoptosis

A

cell death

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120
Q

Each time DNA replicates, _______ gets cut off

A

telomer

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121
Q

What is the name of the enzyme that catalyzes the lengthening of telomeres in germ cells?

A

telomerase

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122
Q

define gametes

A

egg and sperm cells when they come together

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123
Q

what is another name for germ cell?

A

stem cell

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124
Q

As we age, what happens to the stem cells ability to produce new cells?

A

it goes down

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125
Q

Without telomerase, you lose the telomer, and what happend to the cell?

A

it dies

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126
Q

There is evidence of telomerase activity in cancer cells, which makes the cancer cells somewhat ________.

A

immortal

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127
Q

What helps condense DNA during cell division?

A

histone protein

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128
Q

Do normal cells have telomerase? If so when?

A

yes, but it turns off after gestational period

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129
Q

What is Cancer?

A

uncontrolled cell division

cells get stuck in a part of the cell cycle

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130
Q

What does cigarette smoke do to the rates of mitosis?

A

speeds it up

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131
Q

Name some things that can speed up your biological time clock?

A
  • cigarette smoke
  • UV exposure
  • substance abuse
  • life style choices
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132
Q

What best distinguishes living things from non-living things?

A

the ability of organisms to reproduce

also metabolism

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133
Q

Mitosis is cell division that takes place in what type of cells?

A

somatic cells

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134
Q

Meiosis produces non-identical daughter cells.

true or false

A

true

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135
Q

What happens when unicellular organisms do cell division?

A

division of one cell reproduces the entire organism

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136
Q

What three things does cell division in multicellular organisms result in?

A
  • Production of gametes (egg and sperm)
  • Growth
  • Repair
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137
Q

Name the two types of cell division in eukaryotes

A

Mitosis and Meiosis

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138
Q

define genome

A

all the DNA in a cell

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139
Q

A genome can consist of a single DNA molecule or a number of DNA molecules. Which is common in prokaryotes and which is common in eukaryotes?

A

single=prokaryotes

multiple=eukaryotes

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140
Q

What are DNA molecules in a cell packaged into?

A

chromosomes

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141
Q

A Somatic cell is a non-reproductive cell.

true or false?

A

true (non-sexual)

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142
Q

Is a Gamete a reproductive cell or a non-reproductive cell?

A

a reproductive cell (sexual)

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143
Q

Gametes have half as many chromosomes as Somatic Cells.

true or false?

A

true

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144
Q

In Mitosis, Each duplicated Chromosome has __ sister chromatids, which separate during cell division.

A

2

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145
Q

What is the part of the duplicated chromosome where the two chromatids are most closely attached called

A

centromere (the waist)

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146
Q

Eukaryotic cell division consists of 2 parts, what are they?

A

Mitosis, and Cytokinesis

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147
Q

In cytokinesis when the contents of the cytoplasm are divided between the two new cells, is this an equal division?

A

No

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148
Q

The Mitotic (M) phase consists of what 2 things?

A

Mitosis and cytokinesis

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149
Q

Where does the cell “do it’s job”?

A

Interphase

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150
Q

Where does about 90% of the cell cycle take place?

A

Interphase

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151
Q

Interphase can be divided into 3 subphases, name them

A

G1
S Phase
G2

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152
Q

The cell grows in all three subphases of interphase, but in which phase are the chromosomes duplicated and DNA replicated

A

s phase

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153
Q

In which subphase of interphase does the cell grow into its adult characteristics?

A

G1

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154
Q

Name the phases of mitosis

A
  • prophase
  • prometaphase
  • metaphase
  • anaphase
  • telophase
  • cytokinesis
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155
Q

In which phase do the microtubules pull apart the sister chromatids?

A

Anaphase and Anaphase II

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156
Q

Once sister chromatids are pulled apart they are no longer chromatids they are ___________.

A

chromosomes

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157
Q

In animal cells, cytokinesis occurs by a process known as ________.

A

cleavage, forming a cleavage furrow

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158
Q

What is the cleavage furrow made of?

A

microfilaments

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159
Q

A cell plate will eventually modify into what?

A

a cell wall

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160
Q

What major thing happens in metaphase?

A

microtubules attach at kinetochore and move the chromosomes to the middle (metaphase plate)

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161
Q

What is the name of the complex of DNA and protein, that eukaryotic cells have, that condenses during cell division?

A

chromatin

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162
Q

How many sets of chromosomes do somatic cells have?

A

2 sets

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163
Q

In comparison to somatic cells, how many chromosomes do gametes have?

A

1/2 as many

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164
Q

Each duplicated chromosome in eukaryotic cells, have 2 ______ __________, which separate during cell division

A

2 sister chromatids

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165
Q

define cytokinesis

A

the division of the cytoplasm

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166
Q

What type of cell division are gametes produced in?

A

meiosis

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167
Q

Meiosis yields nonidentical daughter cells. How many sets of chromosomes do these cells have?

A

only one set, half as many as the parent cell

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168
Q

What Phase of mitosis does cytokinesis take place during?

A

Telophase

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169
Q

What is the acronym that Mary used to help us remember the stages of mitosis?

A

PMAT

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170
Q

Can plant cells have more than one nucleolus?

A

yes

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171
Q

How big are the two new cells that have just been divided in telophase/cytokinesis?

A

half the size of the original cell

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172
Q

Where do the two new cells that have just been separated in telophase/cytokinesis need to go next?

A

Back into interphase to grow up

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173
Q

What happens to the chromatin in Prophase, Prophase I, and Prophase II ?

A

It begins condensing into chromosomes

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174
Q

During which phase of mitosis have the centrioles /centrosome replicated and gone to separate sides of the cell?

A

prophase/prometaphase

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175
Q

What do the microtubules of the mitotic spindle do?

A

They pull and push sister chromatids apart toward opposite spindle poles

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176
Q

What are aster, where are they found?

A

aster are microtubules emanating (sticking out of) the centrosomes

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177
Q

During which phase do the microtubules attach to the kinetochore and move the chromosomes to the middle?

A

Metaphase

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178
Q

What builds the mitotic spindle?

A

centrosomes

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179
Q

In anaphase, what do the microtubules attached to the kinetochore do to pull the sister chromatids apart and toward the opposite poles of the cell?

A

contract and shorten

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180
Q

In animal cells, cytokinesis occurs by the forming of a cleavage furrow that divides the cell into two parts, what is formed in plant cells that has a similar job?

A

cell plate

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181
Q

What is a homologous pair?

A

Both chromosomes of each pair carry genes controlling the same inherited characteristics

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182
Q

A genes specific location along the length of a chromosome is called what?

A

locus

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183
Q

When you say a cell is 2n it means it’s what?

A

diploid, it has only 2 sets of information

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184
Q

Of the 23 pairs of chromosomes, the 23rd pair are sex chromosomes, what are the other 22 pairs called?

A

autosomes

185
Q

In which one, meiosis or mitosis, do the Homologous Chromosomes pair up in the middle in a line?

A

meiosis

186
Q

There are 2 cell divisions.

during which one, mitosis or meiosis?

A

meiosis

187
Q

During which phase in Meiosis are there four daughter cells produced?

A

Telophase II/ cytokinesis

188
Q

An allele can be dominant or recessive.

true or false?

A

true

189
Q

If you have 12 chromosomes total, how many chromatids would you have?

A

24

190
Q

Does DNA replication happen during meiosis?

A

no, its part of interphase and happens before

191
Q

Do prokaryotes make a mitotic spindle?

A

no

192
Q

How many chromosomes does a prokaryote have and what is their shape?

A

prokaryotes have 1 chromosome and it’s circular

193
Q

How many origins of replication does a prokaryote have?

A

only one

194
Q

Right before a prokaryote splits into two during binary fission, it adds what to the other side before dividing?

A

another origin of replication (makes a copy)

195
Q

Is binary fission simple or complex and why?

A

simple, there is so little DNA in prokaryotes

196
Q

Mitosis probably evolved from binary fission since there were prokaryotes before eukaryotes.
true or false?

A

true

197
Q

Different types of cells divide at different rates.

true or false?

A

true

198
Q

Bone marrow cells replicate _______.

A

quickly

199
Q

Skin cells replicate _______.

A

quickly

200
Q

The eukaryotic cell cycle is regulated by a molecular control system.
true or false?

A

true

201
Q

Where are the chemical signals that drive the cell cycle located?

A

cytoplasm

202
Q

Hormones are an example of a chemical molecule that does what?

A

tells cells what to do

203
Q

In an experiment, what type of cells at different phases of the cell cycle, were fused to form a single cell with two nuclei?

A

mammalian cells

204
Q

The sequential events of the cell cycle are directed by what?

A

cell cycle control system

205
Q

The cell cycle control system is regulated by both ________ and ________ controls.

A

internal and external

206
Q

What directs the cell cycle that is similar to a clock?

A

cell cycle control system

207
Q

What is a checkpoint?

A

where the cell cycle stops until a go-ahead signal is received

208
Q

A “go-ahead” signal is a chemical release signal.

true or false?

A

true

209
Q

Which checkpoint is the most important?

A

G1

210
Q

If a cell receives a go-ahead signal at the G1 checkpoint, it will usually do what?

A

go on to complete the rest of the phases and divide

211
Q

If a cell does not receive the go-ahead signal at the G1 checkpoint, it will exit the cell and switch into what?

A

a nondividing state called the G0 phase

212
Q

Can neurons divide? yes or no and why?

A

no, because they do not have centrioles and can’t do mitosis

213
Q

Do you receive more neurons as an adult than you had when you were born?

A

no, what you have when you are born is what you’ve got

214
Q

There are two types of regulatory proteins involved in cell cycle control, name them.

A
  • cyclins

* cyclin-dependent kinases (cdks)

215
Q

What is a cyclin-dependent kinase?

A

a regulatory protein that’s an enzyme

216
Q

What is a cell guaranteed to be able to do if it gets past the G2 checkpoint?

A

mitosis

217
Q

What does MPF stand for?

A

a maturation promoting factor

218
Q

If spindle microtubules have not yet attached to the kinetochore, the kinetochore sends a molecular signal that delays anaphase. What is this an example of?

A

an internal signal

219
Q

Some external signals are ______ _______.

A

growth factors

220
Q

What are growth factors?

A

proteins released by certain cells that stimulate other cells to divide (do mitosis)

221
Q

What are human fibroblast cells responsible for?

A

making your fibers

222
Q

What does PDGF stand for?

A

Platelet-derived growth factor

223
Q

What is PDGF used to stimulate?

A

the division of human fibroblast cells

224
Q

Density-dependent inhibition is an external signal that does what?

A

stops crowded cells from dividing

225
Q

In which phase of meiosis do the homologs move toward opposite poles, guided by the spindle apparatus?

A

Anaphase I

226
Q

Which phase ends with two identical diploid cells being produced?

A

Telophase

227
Q

In which phase do spindle fibers attach to ONE side of the kinetochore?

A

Metaphase I

228
Q

What is a substratum?

A

another cell/something to attach to

229
Q

What is it called when an animal cell must be attached to another cell in order to divide?

A

anchorage dependence

230
Q

What must cells do to make a tissue?

A

anchor to another cell

231
Q

Name the two things that control mitosis

A
  • Anchorage dependence

* Density-dependent inhibition

232
Q

define metastasis

A

move to another location

233
Q

Do cancer cells have anchorage dependence and density-dependent inhibition (controls)?

A

No, cancer cells take away controls

234
Q

Do cancer cells make it through the G1 phase?

A

No, they don’t grow up

235
Q

Can cancer cells break off a tumor and become metastatic?

A

yes

236
Q

Does cancer frequently start in Epithelial tissue? Why or why not?

A

yes, because Epithelial tissues have lots of replication and mitosis so more opportunity for mutations

237
Q

Cancer cells have a normal cell cycle control system.

true or false?

A

false, they have an abnormal cell cycle control system

238
Q

What is it called when a normal cell is converted to a cancerous cell?

A

transformation

239
Q

When is a lump called a benign tumor?

A

If abnormal cells stay at the original site and don’t metastasize

240
Q

What can malignant tumors do?

A
  • invade surrounding tissues

* metastasize

241
Q

If the lymph node is sore and you have a fever, is it most likely cancer or an infection?

A

an infection

242
Q

What happens during crossing over and what phase does it happen in?

A

DNA molecules of non-sister chromatids are broken by proteins and are rejoined to eachother.
Prophase I

243
Q

Does any chromosome replication occur between meiosis I and meiosis II?

A

no

244
Q

When chromosomes are still attached at the centromere, DNA replication is complete or not complete?

A

not complete

245
Q

Genes are instructions to make proteins.

true or false?

A

true

246
Q

What is the information content of DNA in the form of?

A

sequences of nucleotides (ATCG)

247
Q

Define genotype

A

what your genes say you are

example: mary was born a blonde

248
Q

Define phenotype

A

what you see, interaction between genes and the environment

example: marys hair colored dark

249
Q

What are the two stages of gene expression?

A
  • transcription

* translation

250
Q

What is gene expression?

A

Making a protein and expressing it

251
Q

During translation, what is the DNA nucleotide information changed into?

A

amino acids

252
Q

Dominant traits and recessive traits are part of which one, your genotype or your phenotype?

A

genotype and phenotype, although recessive traits cannot be seen with regards to your phenotype

253
Q

During transcription the DNA is ______ in it’s nucleotide form

A

copied

254
Q

During translation, the DNA nucleotides are changed or translated into _____ _____.

A

amino acids

255
Q

RNA is the intermediate between genes and the proteins for which they code.
true or false?

A

true

256
Q

Transcription produces which type of RNA?

A

messenger RNA (mRNA)

257
Q

Translation is the synthesis of a ___________, which occurs under the direction of mRNA

A

polypeptide

258
Q

What are considered the sites of translation?

A

Ribosomes

259
Q

How does mRNA exit the nucleus to go find a ribosome so that it can do translation

A

through nuclear pores

260
Q

In a eukaryotic cell, what separates transcription from translation?

A

the nuclear envelope

261
Q

The cellular chain of command is

DNA——-> RNA———–> ________.

A

Proteins

262
Q

In transcription, how many sides of the DNA are copied?

A

one side

263
Q

In eukaryotes,Pre-mRNA is a single strand. For it to become mRNA what do you have to add to it to help protect it while it’s being transported out of the nucleus?

A

a cap and poly-A tail

cap to the 5’ end, tail to the 3’ end

264
Q

_________ attach to the mRNA and translate, tells which amino acids it needs to build a specific protein.

A

Ribosomes

265
Q

In bacterial cells, Transcription and translation are done very quickly. The single DNA strand is copied and the ribosomes attach immediately and translate.
true or false?

A

true

266
Q

Ribosomes provide the translation for the mRNA transcript.

true or false?

A

true

267
Q

How many amino acids are there total?

How many nucleotide bases are there total used in DNA?

A

20 amino acids

4 nucleotide DNA bases

268
Q

Ribosomes translate the mRNA transcript in order to build what?

A

polypeptides (proteins)

269
Q

How many nucleotide bases does it take to represent an amino acid?

A

3

270
Q

DNA is in the code of a nucleotide, mRNA needs to change it into an _____ ____ ____.

A

amino acid code

271
Q

What is a Codon?

A

the triplet code of nucleotide bases

272
Q

What comes first in the process, transcription or translation?

A

transcription

273
Q

In which direction are codons read?

A

5’ to 3’ direction

274
Q

Each codon specifies which _____ ____ needs to be placed at a corresponding position along a polypeptide.

A

amino acid

275
Q

Which side is the anti-parallel side?

A

the strand opposite the DNA Template strand

276
Q

The Primary Transcript is done by mRNA, so what will you see that tells you it’s RNA and not DNA ?

A

Uracil along the Primary Transcript strand

277
Q

After mRNA gets the primary transcript from the one side of the DNA, what does the DNA then do?

A

reseals

278
Q

One codon can tell us one amino acid, but one amino acid can have many codons.
true or false?

A

true

279
Q

How many codons are there total?

A

64 triplets

280
Q

How many of the codon triplets, are “stop” signals to end translation?

A

3 triplets

281
Q

No codon specifies more than ___ amino acid.

A

one

282
Q

How many different “start” codons are there?

A

1 triplet

283
Q

What is the name of the “start” codon from our chart?

A

Methylamine

284
Q

Which base of the three in a codon, holds the most importance? (if this base is changed, it changes the amino acid used entirely)

A

first base

285
Q

Which base out of the three in a codon, is the least important? It is said to have wobble.

A

Third base

286
Q

What is the first stage of gene expression?

A

Transcription

287
Q

What is RNA synthesis catalyzed by?

an enzyme that pries the DNA apart and hooks together the RNA nucleotides

A

RNA Polymerase

288
Q

The DNA sequence where RNA Polymerase attaches is called the ________.

A

promoter

289
Q

What is the promoter?

A

the start of the sequence

290
Q

The stretch of DNA that is transcribed is called what?

A

the transcription unit

291
Q

What is the sequence signaling the end of transcription (end of sequence) called?

A

terminator

292
Q

Does RNA polymerase bind to a promoter?

A

yes

293
Q

Once the RNA transcript is made, the copy _____ ___ and the DNA reseals (is rewound)

A

comes off

294
Q

When does the terminator come into play?

A

Once the RNA transcript is completed

295
Q

Name the three stages of transcription.

A
  1. ) Initiation
  2. ) Elongation
  3. ) Termination
296
Q

What happens during initiation?

A

Promoter initiates to start

297
Q

What happens during elongation?

A

the addition of RNA nucleotides/ base pairing

298
Q

What happens during termination?

A

Signal to stop

299
Q

What’s another work for the direction of transcription?

A

“downstream”

300
Q

What is a complex composed of?

A

proteins and enzymes

301
Q

What is the name of the promoter that is crucial in forming the initiation complex in eukaryotes?

A
TATA Box
(hint: start with the tatas)
302
Q

The promoter binds to a site that has T-A-T-A, why is this a good place to open the strand?

A

It’s easy to open because there are only 2 hydrogen bonds to break

303
Q

What do transcription factors do?

A

mediate the binding of RNA Polymerase and the initiation of transcription

304
Q

As RNA Polymerase moves along the DNA, it untwists the double helix __ to __ bases at a time.

A

10-20

305
Q

Transcription progresses at a rate of __ nucleotides per second in eukaryotes.

A

40

306
Q

Can more than one RNA Polymerase attach to the same promoter so that more than one of that specific type of protein can be made at the same time?

A

yes

307
Q

Are the mechanisms of termination different in bacteria than they are in eukaryotes?

A

yes

308
Q

Is it in bacteria, or eukaryotes, that the polymerase stops transcription at the end of the terminator and immediately falls off?

A

bacteria

309
Q

In termination in eukaryotes, the polymerase continues transcription for a while after it’s done being used and eventually falls off.
true or false?

A

true

310
Q

Enzymes in the eukaryotic nucleus, modify pre-mRNA (edit the script, take out what’s not needed) before the genetic messages are dispatched to the _________.

A

cytoplasm

311
Q

Do Eukaryotic cells modify RNA after transcription?

A

yes

312
Q

If I say during RNA processing, both ends of the primary transcript are altered, what am I referring to?

A

cap and poly-A tail being added

313
Q

Another alteration that occurs to the RNA transcript after transcription is that usually some parts interior parts of the molecule are cut out and other parts spliced together.
true or false?

A

true

314
Q

What is a poly-A tail composed of?

A

a bunch of adenine

315
Q

Name the three things the cap and tail do for the mRNA

A
  • help export out of nucleus
  • protect it from hydrolytic enzymes (enzymes that will break it down before it’s read)
  • help ribosomes attach to the 5’ end
316
Q

What does the polyadenylation signal do?

A

signals that it’s time to add the Poly-A Tail

317
Q

Split genes and RNA Splicing does NOT happen in ___________.

A

prokaryotes

318
Q

What are introns?

A

non-coding stretches of nucleotides, also known as intervening sequences

319
Q

The part we dont want and need to get rid of, the intruders?

A

introns

320
Q

If we want to get rid of the introns, what do we want to keep? The part that will eventually be EXpressed and translated into amino acids

A

Exons

321
Q

What does RNA Splicing do?

A

Removes introns and joins exons creating a continuous coding sequence

322
Q

What does Intron and Exon shuffling give you?

A

Different versions of the script

323
Q

What do Spliceosomes do?

A

splicing, cutting out introns (intruders), sealing exons together, recognizing splice sites

324
Q

Does the spliceosome bend the pre-mRNA transcript to cut the introns out?

A

yes

325
Q

Enzymes are not the only catalytic molecule. Name the catalytic RNA molecule that functions like enzymes and can splice RNA.

A

ribozymes

326
Q

What is it called when some genes can code for more than one kind of polypeptide (protein), depending on which segments are treated as exons during RNA splicing?

A

alternative RNA splicing

327
Q

Because of alternative RNA splicing, the number of different proteins an organism can produce is much greater than it’s number of _____.

A

genes

328
Q

Exon shuffling may result in the evolution of new protiens.

true or false?

A

true

329
Q

A cell translates an mRNA message into protein with the help of what?

A

transfer RNA (tRNA)

330
Q

What does tRNA transfer?

A

amino acid we need to make polypeptide (protein)

331
Q

Each molecule or tRNA carries a specific amino acid on one end and an _________ on the other end.

A

anticodon

332
Q

The anticodon on one end of the tRNA, base pairs with a complementary codon on ____.

A

mRNA

333
Q

If each tRNA has to carry a different amino acid, what is the least amount of different tRNA we need

A

20 at least

334
Q

Once the primary structure is complete, where does it go next?

A

to secondary -(beta pleated sheets, alpha helix)
tertiary- (folding, functional, disulfide bridges present)
some go to quaternary

335
Q

What is the P site ?

A

peptide binding site, where the polypeptide is built

336
Q

What is the E site?

A

the exit site

337
Q

What is the A site?

A

The amino acid site, where the amino acid enters

338
Q

What are spliceosomes made of?

A

proteins and small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNP’s)

339
Q

What is the shape of tRNA?

A

L- shaped

340
Q

When tRNA is flattened to reveal it’s base pairing, it looks like what?

A

a cloverleaf

341
Q

tRNA molecules consist of a single RNA strand and are only about __ nucleotides long

A

80

342
Q

Name the two required steps in accurate translation

A

First: a correct match between tRNA and an amino acid, done by the enzyme
Second: a correct match between tRNA anticodon and an mRNA codon

343
Q

What is it called when there is flexible pairing at the third base of a codon. This also allows some tRNA to bind to more than one codon?

A

wobble

344
Q

What does ribosomal RNA (rRNA) do?

A

make up the structure of the ribosomes

345
Q

Ribosomes facilitate specific coupling between ____ anticodon and ____ codons in protein synthesis

A

tRNA

mRNA

346
Q

Where are the A site, P site, and E site located?

A

in the ribosome (large unit)

347
Q

Where is the mRNA binding site located at on the ribosome?

A

the small unit

348
Q

Name the three binding sites for tRNA

A
  • A site
  • P site
  • E site
349
Q

The 3 stages of translation are the same as the 3 stages of transcription.
true or false?

A

true

350
Q

Which provides less energy, ATP or GTP?

A

GTP

351
Q

When elongating the polypeptide chain, _____ _____ are added one by one to the preceding _____ ____.

A

amino acids

amino acid

352
Q

Each addition of an amino acid to the elongation chain in translation, involves proteins called __________ _______ and occur in three steps.

A

elongation factors

353
Q

During the elongation stage, amino acids are added one by one. Each addition of an amino acid occurs in 3 steps. Name the steps

A
  1. codon recognition
  2. peptide bond formation
  3. translocation
354
Q

What is the P sites job?

A

to hold onto the growing polypeptide chain

355
Q

When adding the amino acids from the A site to the polypeptide chain in the P site, what type of bond is formed?

A

peptide bond

356
Q

Once the amino acid from the A site joins onto the polypeptide chain in the P site, what does the ribosome need to do?

A

it needs to move/shift

357
Q

Is energy needed to move the amino acid from the A site to the polypeptide chain in the P site?

A

yes

358
Q

When do you know to stop doing the protein synthesis in the ribosome?

A

you’ll come across the stop codon

359
Q

Termination of translation occurs when a stop codon in the mRNA, reaches the __ ____ of the ribosome.

A

A site

360
Q

When the A site accepts a protein called a release factor, what happens?

A

the release factor causes the addition of a water molecule instead of an amino acid. This releases the polypeptide

361
Q

What carries release factors?

A

stop codon

362
Q

What enables a cell to make many copies of a polypeptide very quickly?

A

polyribosomes

363
Q

When there’s a change in DNA, what is this called?

A

a mutation

364
Q

Define point mutations

A

a chemical change in just one base pair of a gene

365
Q

mRNA reads in the direction of 3’ to 5’ so that it can produce _’ to _’

A

5’ to 3’

366
Q

What are the 2 types of point mutations that can occur within a gene?

A
  • base-pair substitutions

* base-pair insertions or deletions

367
Q

What type of point mutation would produce a frameshift mutation?

A

one base pair insertion or one base pair deletion (insertions or deletions)

368
Q

If there were a 3 base pair deletion, what would be missing?

A

one amino acid

369
Q

What kind of mutation has no effect on the amino acid produced by a codon because of redundancy in the genetic code?

A

silent mutation (usually when the 3rd base has error)

370
Q

What type of mutation almost always leads to a nonfunctional protein?

A

nonsense mutations

371
Q

What happens in a nonsense mutation?

A

an amino acid codon is changed to a stop codon

372
Q

Which type of mutation still codes for an amino acid, but not the right amino acid?

A

missense mutations

373
Q

Which has a more disastrous effect on the resulting protein, substitutions or insertions and deletions?

A

insertions and deletions

374
Q

A physical or chemical agent that can cause mutations is known as what?

A

a mutagen

375
Q

Spontaneous mutations can occur during DNA replication, recombination, or repair.
true or false?

A

true

376
Q

When an amino acid hooks up with a tRNA, this is called _____ ____ __________.

A

Amino acid activation

377
Q

A gene can be defined as a region of DNA that can be expressed to produce a final functional product, either a ___________ or an ___ molecule.

A

polypeptide

RNA molecule

378
Q

What is nondisjunction?

A

If chromosomes don’t separate correctly/ something goes wrong to cause the end cells to not be right. (Extra chromosomes X,Y)

379
Q

What does trisomy 21 mean and represent?

A

They got three of the 21st chromosome.

It is Down syndrome

380
Q

Are there a high amount of genes in the 21 chromosome or a low amount?

A

Low

381
Q

The 23rd set of chromosomes determines what?

A

The sex

382
Q

Do people that have trisomy 21 often times have heart defects?

A

Yes

383
Q

If the micro tubules don’t all connect to the kinetochore completely, what could occur?

A

Nondisjunction

384
Q

2n + 1 means what?

A

You have one too many chromosomes

385
Q

Nondisjunction can happen at any age in egg or sperm.

True or false?

A

True

386
Q

Women are born with all the eggs they’ll ever have.

True or false?

A

True

387
Q

Men produce new sperm every day from puberty until death, they continually do meiosis
True or false

A

True

388
Q

Prices of your DNA in your cells can actually break off and attach to another chromosome.
True or false

A

True

389
Q

What is someone that has XXX?

A

Super female

390
Q

What is someone that has XYY

A

Super male

391
Q

What does someone with Klines Felters syndrome have?

A

XXY, male with an extra X

392
Q

A YO will never _____.

A

Grow

393
Q

XO represents someone with what disease?

A

Turner’s syndrome

394
Q

Males are much more likely to be colorblind because they need only one _________ _____.

A

Recessive trait

395
Q

Both men and females have estrogen and testosterone, what is the only difference?

A

The levels of each hormone in their bodies

396
Q

Which has less genetics in it, a Y chromosome or an X?

A

A Y chromosome has less genes

397
Q

Who is the father of genetics?

A

Mendel

398
Q

Mendel discovered the basic principles of heredity by breeding what?

A

garden peas

399
Q

Most genetic traits in humans are _________.

A

polygenic

400
Q

Which trisomy has the most severe impact on the health of an individual human?
Trisomy 21
or Trisomy 4

A

Trisomy 4

401
Q

What is the main factor that makes it difficult to study a humans genetics?

A

humans traits are polygenic

402
Q

What does polygenic mean?

A

multiple sets of alleles at many different loci (locus)

more than one set of alleles

403
Q

define true breeding

A

when the parent organisms only produce offspring with the same traits (same phenotype) as them

404
Q

When Mendel was doing his research, was this before or after we knew about replication, cell division, mitosis/meiosis, chromosomes, genes?

A

before

405
Q

Humans are called diploid organisms because they have ___ _______ at each genetic locus, one inherited from each parent.

A

two alleles

406
Q

How many locus and how many sets of alleles does a pea plant have?

A

1 locus

1 set of alleles

407
Q

Character varients are called ______.

A

traits

408
Q

Each flower has sperm-producing organs called what?

A

stamens

409
Q

Each flower has an egg-producing organ called what?

A

carpel (ovary)

410
Q

define cross-pollination

A

fertilization between two plants

411
Q

In the results from Mendel’s study of pea plants, F1 represents the first set of children. What does F1 stand for?

A

first filial generation

412
Q

Is a recessive gene still a gene, and does it still make a protein, even when being masked by a dominant gene?

A

yes

413
Q

A recessive gene is still expressed while the dominant overrides it.
true or false

A

true

414
Q

How can a pea plant do true breeding on it’s own?

A

it has both male and female parts (they can self-pollinate)

415
Q

When Mendel mated two contrasting, true breeding varieties? What was this process called?

A

hybridization

416
Q

Who are the true breeding parents of the hybrid offspring?

A

P generation

417
Q

What are the hybrid offspring of the P generation called?

A

F1 generation

418
Q

When F1 individuals self-pollinate or cross-pollinate with other F1 hybrids, what is produced?

A

F2 generation

419
Q

What is Mendel’s ratio in purple to white flowers in the F2 generation?

A

3 to 1

420
Q

What Mendel called a “heritable factor” is what we now call a ____.

A

gene

421
Q

What is the name for an alternative version of a gene?

A

alleles

422
Q

A pair of homologous chromosomes has 2 alleles, one from mom and one from dad, located where?

A

on the same locus

423
Q

If two alleles at a locus differ, then out of dominant and recessive, which one determines the organisms appearance and which one has no noticeable effect.

A

dominant determines appearance

recessive has no noticeable effect

424
Q

during the production of gametes the two copies of each hereditary factor segregate so that offspring acquire one factor from each parent. What law is this?

A

Law of Segregation

425
Q

A diagram for predicting the results of a genetic cross between individuals of known genetic makeup is called what?

A

a Punnett square

426
Q

A capital letter represents what kind of allele?

A

dominant

427
Q

An organism with two identical alleles for a character is said to be what?

A

homozygous

for the gene controlling that character

428
Q

An organism that has two different alleles for a gene is said to be what?

A

heterozygous

for the gene controlling that character

429
Q

Unlike homozygotes, _____________ are not true breeding.

A

heterozygotes

430
Q

If a genotype is pp, what is it?

A

homozygous recessive

431
Q

If a genotype is Pp, what is it?

A

heterozygous

432
Q

How can we tell the genotype of an individual when we only know the dominant phenotype?

A

carry out a testcross

433
Q

Breeding the mystery individual with a homozygous recessive individual, if any offspring display the recessive phenotype , then the mystery parent must be heterozygous. What is being done here?

A

a testcross

434
Q

define monohybrid

A

heterozygous for one character

435
Q

What is the law of assortment?

A

each pair of alleles segregates independently of each other pair of alleles during gamete formation.

436
Q

What is another word for gamete formation?

A

meiosis

437
Q

Alleles/genetic traits on the same chromosome travel together and dont independently assort.
true or false

A

true

438
Q

Being somewhere between the phenotypes of the two parental varieties (blended equally) is referred to as __________ _________.

A

incomplete dominance

439
Q

When two dominant alleles are both expressed, this is called ___________.

A

codominance

440
Q

What occurs when phenotypes of the heterozygote and dominant homozygote are identical?

A

complete dominance

441
Q

List the 3 degrees of dominance

A
  • Complete dominance
  • Incomplete dominance
  • Codominance
442
Q

Alleles are simply variations in a gene’s nucleotide sequence.
true or false?

A

true

443
Q

A dysfunctional enzyme causes an accumulation of lipids in the brain. What disease is this and is it dangerous?

A

Tay-Sachs disease

yes it is fatal

444
Q

define polydactyl

A

extra digits

445
Q

Are Dominant alleles always more common in populations than recessive alleles?

A

no.

446
Q

Is having 5 digits a dominant trait or a recessive trait?

A

recessive (homozygous recessive)

447
Q

How many different alleles express bloodtype. What are they?

A

3 different alleles

  • IA
  • IB
  • i
448
Q

Why is O- the universal donor?

A

it has no RH antigens, so it won’t react with other blood types

449
Q

The enzyme encoded by the IA allele, adds which carbohydrate?

A

the A Carbohydrate

450
Q

The enzyme encoded by the i allele adds which carbohydrate?

A

it doesn’t add a carbohydrate

451
Q

IAi is the genotype for which blood group?

A

A

452
Q

IBIB is the genotype for which blood group?

A

B

453
Q

ii is the genotype for which blood group?

A

O

454
Q

Most genes have multiple phenotypic effects? This is called what?

A

pleiotropy

455
Q

What are responsible for the multiple symptoms of certain hereditary diseases, such as cystic fibrosis and sickle-cell?

A

pleiotropic alleles

456
Q

Skin color in humans is a good example of _________ ___________.

A

polygenic inheritance

457
Q

What is Polygenic Inheritance?

A

Many genes that control the same trait

example: eye color, skin color

458
Q

Hydrangea flowers of the same genotype range from blue-violet to pink, depending on soil acidity. What is this an example of?

A

Environment controlling/effecting genes