Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Neisseria (genus)

A
Gram negative
non-motile
aerobic
bacteria
diplococcic arrangement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Neisseria gonorrhea

A
Capsule + Fimbriae
Antigens on surface frequently change shape
Persistent infection
Men experience: painful urination (inflammation),pus-filled discharge
Women Experience: vaginal discharge
50% asymptomatic
Can affect newborns (eye infection) 
can result in ectopic pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
Diplococci observed (discharge) 
oxidase test for cytochrome c oxidase (purple if +)
A

Neisseria gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

N. gonorrhea treatment

A

broad spectrum antibiotics

many resistant strains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Neisseria meningitides

A

humans are only natural carriers
can be nomral microbiota (upper respiratory)
transmitted by respiratory droplets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Meningitis (disease)

A

Inflammation of lining of the CNS
Meningococcal meningitis: bacteria invade cerebrospinal fluid, can result in death as early as 6 hours after symptoms
Meningococcal septicemia: bacteria in blood release toxins that damage blood vessels. formation of minute hemorrhagic lesions (petechiae)
Can produce blood coagulation and result in gangrene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Presence of gram negative diplococcic cells in the CNS

A

Meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Meningitis treatment

A

intravenous penicillin
Prophylactic treatment of exposed individuals
Eradication is unlikely due to too many asymptomatic carriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Enterobacteriaceae (family)

A
All are gram negative rods
oxidase negate
reduce nitrate to nitrite
look similar
Typically intestinal microbiota
ubiquitous
Not all have virulence factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Enterobacteriaceae coli

A
gram negative
rod
prefers anaerobic
Most are harmless and some are even mutualists (make Vitamin K)
Indicator organism (fecal contamination)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gastroenteritis (also cause UTI’s) is the most commonly caused disease of this organism
Exotoxins and cellular rearrangement produce signs and symptoms
virulent strains have virulence genes on the plasmids

A

E. Coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Entertoxigenic E. Coli

A

traveler’s diarrhea (Mexican water)
non-invasive
toxin causes watery diarrhea
best treated with rehydration and pepto (bismuth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Enterinvasive E. coli

A

Dysentery like disease
invades intestinal wall
results in inflammation and fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Enteropathogenic E. coli

A
infant diarrhea (watery)
fever, vomiting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli

A

Causes hemorrhagic colitis
associated with hemolytic uremic syndrome (severe kidney disorder) in children and elderly
toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Klebsiella pneumonia

A
gram negative
non-motile
rod
prefers anaerobic
capsule
normal member of skin, mouth, and the intestinal flora
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Klebsiella pnemonia pathogenicity

A

Produces a capsule that protects the bacteria from phagocytosis
gives the colonies a mucoid appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Serratia marsecans

A

produces a red pigment when grown at room temp
can grow on catheters, in saline and other hospital supplies
Opportunistic of immunocompromised patients in urinary and respiratory tracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Proteus mirabilis

A

gram negative
prefers anaerobic
gliding motility (forms rings on plate)
found on any dead and decaying matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Organism demonstrates gliding motility
Urease test (rapid)
contains urea and an acid / base indicator
turns pink at high pH

A

Proteus mirabilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Type III secretion systems inject proteins that inhibit phagocytosis, rearrange the cytoskeleton of eukaryotic cells, or induce apoptosis

A

Truly pathogenic enterobacteriaceae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Salmonella (genus)

A
gram negative
motile
rod
prefers anaerobic
found in intestines of birds, reptiles, and mammals
Truly Pathogenic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Salmonella typhimurium salmonellosis

A

typical salmonella
causes fever, cramps, diarrhea, and vomiting
Low mortality rate (infants and elderly)
Death is generally from sceptic shock
organism can actually punch through epithelial walls and into the bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Salmonella typhi

A

Cause of typhoid fever
Humans are only known host
Transmission via oral / fecal route
Reduced in first world, but still kills .5 million anually
Incubates for 2-3 weeks in body (causes fever, headaches, diarrhea)
Gastroenteritis: ulceration and perforation of intestinal wall are possible, bacteria can pass through the intestines into blood.
Can survive phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

S. Typhi treatment

A

re-hydration
250+ doses of chloramphenicol
remove gallbladder
vaccination is available (live attenuated Ty21a) taken orally and protects for up to 7 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Shigella (genus)

A

gram negative
non-motile
primarily a parasite of human gi tract
produces a diarrhea inducing enterotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Shigellosis clinically relevant species and treatment

A

sonnei
flexneria
dysenteriae: disease is more serious
treat with fluid and electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Yersinia species

A

Y. enterocolitica: fecal oral, causes intestinal inflamation

Y. pestis: bubonic plague

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Bubonic plague

Pneumonic Plague

A

Y. pestis is the cause
spreads person to person
characterized by high fever and swollen lymph nodes (buba)
Pneumonic is from a flea / parasite and is a rapidly developing lung infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Haemophilus (genus)

A

small
pleomorphic (no set shape)
bacilli
Obligate parasite (require heme and NAD+ for growth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Flu

A

Haemophilus influenza
most common form of meningitis of infants prior to HIB vaccine use
Can also cause skin infections, sepsis, and more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Bordetella pertussis

A

Gram negative
non-motile
short rods
aerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Whooping Cough

A

Bordetella pertussis
attaches to ciliated epithelial cells in the lungs via filamentous hemagglutinin (type of adhesion)
pertussis toxin aids attachment and prevents phagocyte response
Tracheal cytotoxin inhibits cilia movement on respiratory cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Whooping cough diagnosis and treatment

A

Inspiratory “whoop” along with… vomiting after cough, subconjunctival hemorrhages, rib fractures, incontinence, hernias, facial hematomas.
symptoms are enough to diagnose
Treat by managing symptoms, anti-bacterials have little effect unless taken early
Immunize with DTaP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

gram negative, rod, motile, aerobic
can live in any moist environment
can grow in distilled water
nor part of normal microbiota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa disease

A

can colonize almost any organ
opportunistic off immune-compromised patients
Possesses a capsule, numerous fimbriae, and adhesins that allow for attachment to human cells
Numerous toxins inhibit protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa treatment

A

The organism is resistant to many antibiotics
Capable of gene transfer across the biofilm
Quinolone seems effective despite this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Legionella pneumophila

A

Ubiquitous inhabitant of water
can survive range of temps
will quickly die when heated to 60C for 30 minutes or exposure to chlorinated water
Disease travels via aerosols, no known human-human transfer
Predominantly colonize respiratory track, organism invades and proliferates in phagocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Legionellosis

A

Pontiac fever: mild respiratory disease

Legionnaire’s disease is more severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa diagnosis

A

catalase positive
beta-hemolytic on blood agar
produces pyocyanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Vibrio (genus)

A

gram negative, motile, oxidase positive, curved rods
all species are salt tolerant and some require at least .5% salt to grow
found in estuarine and marine environments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Vibrio cholera

A

Ingest contaminated water or food
Severe abrupt watery diarrhea (due to toxin) and vomiting
“rice water stool” (indicative with organisms in stool)
Causes severe fluid and electrolyte loss
01 E1 Tor is a very virulent and widespread strain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Cholera toxin

A

Two subunits A and B
B binds and A is cleaved off and enters the epithelial cell
A1 initiates enzyme cascade converting AMP to cAMP
cAMP stimulates secretion of electrolytes (Cl- and Na+) into the lumen. water follows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How is water cleaned of cholera on the cheap?

A

The bacteria is found on the plankton which is easily filtered out with silk over a bucket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Causes gastroenteritis and wound infections and can result from bad shellfish or washing wounds in sea water

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus and vulnificus

vulnificus wounds can take the form of blistering dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Chlamydia (genus)

A

No cell walls
two membranes with no peptidoglycan between them
Can only grow and multiply inside the phagosome of the cell (obligate intracellular parasite) (this is the only way to reproduce)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Chlamydia life cycle

A
Elementary body (EB) attaches to host cell receptor
enters via endocytosis
converts to Reticulate body (RB) in food vesicle
rapid division, some switch back to EB before cell ruptures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis

A

Only two known hosts; us and mice
Infects conjunctiva of the eye which scars and eyelashes turn backward which abrades the eyes
can infect newborns at birth or transmission by flies

49
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis treatment

A

500 million cases worldwide, 8 million cause blindness
Treat promptly with antibiotics and surgical correction
proper hygiene prevents re-infection

50
Q

Chlamydia LGV

A

STD form (and most common std)
Small, painless lesions around genitals
Painful urination / intercourse, discharges, inflammation
Lymphogranuloma Venereum: may cause buboes
90 million new cases anually (1-4 in US)
Antibiotics are effective

51
Q

General characteristics of a Eukaryote

A

Membrane bound organelles
80s ribosome
nucleus
undulating flagella

52
Q

Haploid and diploid refer to

A

the number of complete copes of the cell’s genome

1 and 2

53
Q

Interphase

A

Step 1

DNA replicates

54
Q

Mitosis

A

Step 2
an equal partitioning of replicated DNA between two nuclei
2n to 2n

55
Q

Cytokinesis

A

Step 3
cytoplasmic division
cleavage or in the case of yeast, budding

56
Q

Meiosis

A

An equal partitioning of replicated DNA between four nuclei

2n to 1n

57
Q

Schizogony

A

Multiple rounds of mitosis form a multinucleate cell called a schizont
Multiple rounds of (mitoses and) cytokinesis form several merozites
occurs mostly in parasitic protozoans

58
Q

Protozoa

A

Unicellular
ubiquitous
motile (pseudopodia, cilia, flagellum)

59
Q

Protozoan nutrition

A
Most are chemo-organo-heterotrophs
Predators of bacteria and each other
Feed on decaying organic matter
Consume host tissues
Some are photosynthetic while others are mixotrophs (both)
60
Q

Trohpozoite

A

Free living motile feeding stage of a protozoan

61
Q

Cyst

A

resting stage that allows cells to survive unfavorable conditions
not a reproductive structure
pass from intestines of one host to another

62
Q

Dinoflagellates (phylum)

A

Two (unequal in length) flagella:

  • Transverse (spin)
  • Longitudinal (propulsion)
63
Q

Gonyaulax (genus)

A

Produce yessotoxin (kills fish at high concentrations)
If highly concentrated in shellfish then it can harm humans
Photosynthetic red pigments (cause of red tide)

64
Q

Pfiesteria (genus)

A

Possible estuary associated syndrome (PEAS)
produce potent neurotoxin
parasite of fish

65
Q

Chagas Disease

A

Trypanosoma Cruza = kinetoplastid: organism with a single large mitochondrion
Zoonotic reservoirs: opossums and armadillos
transmission by kissing bug

66
Q

T. Cruza life cycle

67
Q

Stages of Chagas disease

A

Acute: swellings (chagomas) occur at site of bite
Generalized: fever, swollen lymph nodes, heart inflammation
Chronic: asymptomatic (months to years)
Symptomatic: heart failiure

68
Q

Chagas disease diagnosis and treatment

A

xenodiagnosis: allow kissing bug feeding of patient, then disect for evidence of growth 4 weeks later
Treat early stages with antiparasitic: benznidazole, nifurtimox (60% cure rate)
Later stages require surgery and transplant

69
Q

Giardia intestinalis

A

lives in intestines of humans and animals
four pairs of flagella
Two equal sized nuclei
Form cysts and have an adhesive disk (organism resembles ToV boss)

70
Q

Giardia intestinalis life cycle

A

ingestion of cysts: fecal oral or water

Cysts release a trophozoite when activated by stomach acid which enters intestines

71
Q

Giardiasis

A

Often asymptomatic
can cause severe watery diarrhea, ab pain, nausea, vomiting, foul-smelling stool (rotten egg)
Usually 1-4 weeks, but can be reinfected (dog eating poop)
Beaver fever

72
Q

Amoebic Meningoencephalitits

A

Naegleria fowleri
swimmers infected when they inhale trophozoites from water
Infect nasal mucosa and travel up olfactory nerve to brain
Primary: loss of smell, headavhe, fever, vomiting, stiff neck (3-5 days)
Secondary: hallucinations, confusion, ataxia (loss of muscle control)
Death within 3-7 days or primary symptoms
Treat with antiparasitics

73
Q

Chitin in the cell wall?

A

Must be a fungi

74
Q

Yeast

A

small, globular, single cells

75
Q

Mold

A

Long branched tubular hyphae

76
Q

Mycelium

A

Intertwined mass of hyphae (can even become visible to unaided)

77
Q

Fungi reproductive structures

A

Yeasts: buds
Mushrooms and molds: spores (sporangia, conidia, basidia) easily dispersed
Chlamydospore: resting structure that survives unfavorable conditions

78
Q

Haustoria

A

structure that allows a fungi to obtain nutrients from a living organism (modified hyphae)

79
Q

Commonly found in moist soils with high N levels (bat caves)
Two strains / variants

A

Histoplasma Capsulatum:
- Var. capsulatum
- Var. dubiosii
True pathogen

80
Q

Histoplasmosis

A

H. capsulatum
Healthy folk develop immunity with minor symptoms
5% develop a clinical case: chronic pulmonary, severe coughing, bloody sputum
Often confused for tuberculosis, but antibiotics will do nothing

81
Q

Histoplasmosis Diagnosis and treatment

A
Diagnosis: culture and observe morphology
Hyphae seen at <30C and spiny spores
yeasts grow at 37C 
Treatment: 
ketoconazole 
amphotericin B
82
Q

Ketoconazole

A

prevents formation of fungal cell membrane (ergosterol)

83
Q

amphotericin B

A

punches holes in fungal cell membranes

84
Q

True pathogenic fungi

A

Blastomyces dermatidis
Coccidiodes immitis
Histoplasma capsulatum
Paracoccidiodes brasiliensis

85
Q

One of the few fungi to be transmitted from person to person

Normal microbiota of skin

A

Candida albicans

86
Q

Candidiasis

A

symptoms depend on infected area and type
white plaque in the mouth
cloudy vision and lesion within the eye
Yeast infections: prolific growth after normal bacterial microbiota are disrupted (change in vaginal pH)

87
Q

Candidiasis diagnosis and treatment

A

look for budding yeasts
treatment depends on location
topical for skin
oral nystatin (works like amphtericin b)
vaginal use of azole creams and suppositories or oral fluconazole

88
Q

Aspergillus niger

A

ubiquitous and opportunistic pathogen of potentially anywhere on the body
Typically molds fruits

89
Q

Aspergillosis pulmonary

A

hypersensitivity:
asthma or allergic reactions to inhaled spores
non-invasive: ball like masses of hyphae in lungs (aspergillomas) [asymptomatic]
acute-invasive: severe lung damage (surgical action necessary)

90
Q

Aspergillosis non-pulmonary

A

Growth in sinuses, ear canals, conjunctivas

91
Q

acellular infectious agent

92
Q

bacteriophage

A

insert genetic material directly into host cell
dsDNA
d20 on a pillar with legs

93
Q

Lytic Cycle

94
Q

Lysogenic

A

Happens between steps two and three of lytic cycle

xxx

95
Q

Animal viruses

A

Entire virus is taken in by cell, often have an envelope

glycoprotein spikes instead of tails

96
Q

direct entry

A

a pore is created for the viral genome

97
Q

membrane fusion

A

two membranes come together and fuse (like liquid drops). A hole is created for the capsid to insert

98
Q

endocytosis

A

entire virus is endocytized

99
Q

DNA viruses use the (___) to replicate while RNA viruses use the (___)

A

nucleus

cytoplasm

100
Q

Poxviridae (family)

A
dsDNA
pleomorphic capsule and envelope
infection via close contact and inhalation (droplets or crusts) 
envelope is unstable outside of host
species immunity for many strains
101
Q

Degrees of Lesions

A

Macule: flat red
Papule: raised
Vesicle: clear fluid
Pustule: opaque pus

102
Q

Orthopoxvirus variola

A

smallpox virus
initially infects the internal organs then moves out to skin
1978 last natural case, Janet Parker was last death

103
Q

Herpesviridae (family)
HHV 1 - casual contact (often children)
HHV 2 - STD

A

enveloped, polyhedral capsids, dsDNA
most prevalent DNA viruses
remains inactive inside infected cells until ready for a reoccurence
HHV 1 - casual contact (often children)
HHV 2 - STD
latent infections hang out in the ganglia

104
Q

Syncytia

A

cells with the virus fuse with adjacent cells and spread the virus

105
Q

Varicella-Zoster virus

A

HHV 3

causes chicken pox and shingles

106
Q

Papillomaviridae

A

dsDNA, naked, icosahedral capsid

papillomas: benign growths (warts) on epithelium

107
Q

seed warts

A

fingers and toes

cauliflower appearance

108
Q

planar warts

A

soles of the feet

109
Q

flat warts

A

trunk, face, knees

cauliflower appearance with a bed of red surrounding

110
Q

Rhinovirus (genus)

A

naked, +ssRNA
It’s a cold
meds can relieve symptoms, but the symptoms are how your body fights back. you might as well just ride it out

111
Q

Orthomyxovirus

A

enveloped, -ssRNA, segmented

flu virus

112
Q

Influenza

A

orthomyxovirus

113
Q

Morbilivirus (genus)

A

enveloped, unsegmented, -ssRNA

114
Q

Measles

A
Caused by morbilivirus which infects respiratory track then spreads
Characteristic lesions (Koplik's spots) in mouth
115
Q

Retroviridae (family)

A

most studied virus group
genome contains two identical molecules of +ssRNA
polyhedral capsule with spiked envelope
Virus transcribes dsDNA from ssRNA (which is backwards to every organism on earth) [possible with reverse transcriptase]

116
Q

HIV

A

replicates in our immune cells and destroys them

Immunity prevented because of antigenic variability with gp120 (facilitates attachment) and gp41 (fusion)

117
Q

AIDS

A

not a disease
AIDS is any of a certain opportunistic or rare infection that:
- occurs in presence of antibodies against HIV
- a CD4 white blood cell count below 200 cells / micro-liter of blood
Treat with reverse transcirptase inhibitors and fusion inhibitors

118
Q

Lytic Cycle

A
  • Virus attaches
  • Entry (injection of viral DNA)
  • Virus starts to take over
  • Virus chops up host chromosome and enzymes injected with DNA. Phage DNA is replicated, transcribed to RNA, and translated
  • Viral proteins are made
  • Assembly of viral proteins
  • cell is ruptured via lysis, and the new viruses released
119
Q

Lysogenic Cycle

A

Lysogeny happens between entry and virus take over (2 and 3)

  • Host chromosome is left in tact an the viral DNA is inserted
  • the bacteria grows and divides, replicating virus with it
  • When virus feels threatened it chops up genome and resumes Lytic cycle