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exam 4 Flashcards

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AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

is direct burning of sugar or stepwise oxidation of sugar better

A

stepwise oxidation because the energy that is released at each step can be stored whereas the direct burning is fully lost as heat

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2
Q

what stores the energy that is released during stepwise oxidation

A

activated carriers

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3
Q

what types of energy are typically released in stepwise oxidation

A

ATP and NADH

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4
Q

which releases more energy, the direct burning or the stepwise oxidation of sugar

A

neither, they release the same amount of energy

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5
Q

what uses the direct burning of sugar

A

nonliving systems

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6
Q

what uses the stepwise oxidation of sugar

A

living cells

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7
Q

what is the chemical reaction that occurs when burning/oxidating sugar

A

sugar + O2 –> CO2 + H2O

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8
Q

does direct burning or stepwise oxidation of sugar have more activation energy

A

the cumulative activation energy is the same, but direct burning needed to overcome the large hump all at once whereas stepwise has smaller activations each step that can be overcome by enzymes that work at body temperature

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9
Q

where is energy from food molecules harvested

A

in the mitochondria

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10
Q

draw and label the parts of mitochondria

A

should include:
- outer membrane
- inner membrane
- intermembrane space
- matrix

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11
Q

how many stages does it take to break down food molecules

A

3

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12
Q

what is the first stage of breaking down food molecules

A

breakdown of large food molecules to simple subunits

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13
Q

what are the subunits that large food molecules are broken down into

A

proteins to amino acids, polysacharrides to simple sugars, fats to fatty acids and glycerol

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14
Q

does step 1 of food breakdown release energy

A

yes, but it’s released as heat and so can’t be used to make ATP

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15
Q

what is the second step of food breakdown

A

GLYCOLYSIS - breakdown of simple subunits into acetyl CoA

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16
Q

does step 2 of food breakdown release energy

A

yes, very small amounts of ATP and NADH

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17
Q

what is the third step of food breakdown

A

THE CITRIC ACID CYCLE - the acetyl group in acetyl CoA is oxidized to H2O and CO2

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18
Q

does step 3 of food breakdown release energy

A

yes, large amounts of ATP are produced

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19
Q

where do the steps of food breakdown occur (1, 2, and 3)

A

1 - outside the cell
2- in the cell’s cytosol
3 - in the mitochondria of the cell

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20
Q

what are the products of the oxidation of food reaction

A

ATP, NADH, CO2, H2O

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21
Q

what is glycolysis

A

this is the process of extracting energy from splitting sugar into pyruvate

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22
Q

how much energy does glycolysis need to start

A

2 ATP

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23
Q

what are the products of glycolysis

A

the one glucose molecule and 2 ATP used will create 2 pyruvates and 4 ATP and 2 NADH
so net results of 2 pyruvate 2 atp 2 nadh

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24
Q

T/F glycolysis pyruvate is a 3-carbon made from a 6-carbon glucose

A

TRUE the molecule starts with 6 and is split into 3 and 3

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25
Q

what other process can produce ATP but at a much smaller amount that glycolysis

A

fermentation is fast but doesn’t produce as much per molecule of glucose so glycolysis is better

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26
Q

T/F glycolysis couples many processes to each other

A

true, this is mostly seen with oxidation steps coupled with energy storage steps

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27
Q

what has to happen to the pyruvate after glycolysis before the citric acid cycle

A

it has to be converted to acetyl CoA and CO2

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28
Q

where does the pyruvate get broken down before the citric acid cycle

A

the mitochondrial matrix

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29
Q

what enzyme helps break down the pyruvate into acetyl CoA and CO2 before the citric acid cycle

A

pyruvate dehydrogenase complex

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30
Q

what does the citric acid cycle do

A

oxidizes acetyl groups to CO2 which creates NADH

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31
Q

what process drives the synthesis of the majority of the ATP in most cells

A

electron transport!!

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32
Q

what is another name for the electron transport chain’s process

A

oxidative phosphorylation

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33
Q

what two energy molecules does the electron transport chain use and why

A

NADH and FADH2 from the citric acid cycle because they provide high energy electrons

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34
Q

how does H+ get to the other side of the inner membrane

A

this is coupled with the electron transfer so that the favorable transfer will pump the unfavorable H+ out of the membrane

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35
Q

why would animal cells store glucose

A

they would do this so that they can use the glycogen in times of need to convert that into energy

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36
Q

T/F fats are stored outside of cells

A

FALSE fats are stored inside cells in fat droplets

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37
Q

what do plant cells store in their chloroplasts

A

starch granules and fat droplets

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38
Q

what energy molecule donates high energy electrons to the electron transport chain

A

NADH

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39
Q

what is the purpose of the electron transport chain

A

to move electrons so that that favorable reaction can couple with pumping H+ ions across the membrane against their gradient

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40
Q

what are the two complexes that the electron in the electron transport chain go through

A

ubiquinone and cytochrome c

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41
Q

why is it so hard to push the H+ out of the membrane in the oxidative phosphorylation stage

A

because both the voltage (membrane potential) and the concentration (pH) gradient are pushing into the cell, so there is no reason why the H+ would want to be outside the cell if their electrochemical gradient is so strongly pushing in

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42
Q

what acts as a turbine to generate energy when the H+ comes back into the cell

A

ATP synthase is the motor

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43
Q

what is the energy that the ATP synthase generates used for

A

to attach phosphate to ADP which creates ATP which is the end product of the metabolism process

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44
Q

where does oxidative phosphorylation occur

A

mitochondria

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45
Q

where does photosynthesis occur

A

chloroplast

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46
Q

T/F mitochondria can not divide

A

FALSE the mitochondria can divide like a bacteria (since it is thought to have evolved from bacteria)

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47
Q

what is similar about mitochondria and chloroplasts

A

both have DNA, both make RNA and proteins
both organelles have the membranes used for ATP production

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48
Q

T/F mitochondria are typically located closer to where ATP is needed

A

TRUE there is more mitochondria in muscle cells and sperm cells for contraction and movement

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49
Q

T/F mitochondria form spherical shapes when multiple are together

A

FALSE they form elongated, tubular networks that extend through the cytoplasm

50
Q

what are the four parts of the mitochondria

A

matrix (inside inside), inner membrane, outer membrane, intermembrane space (between membranes)

51
Q

what is a hydride ion and what molecule is it found on that we use in the electron transport chain

A

hydride ion has two extra electrons instead of just one, so it produced two electrons when it is removed from NADH

52
Q

T/F ATP synthase can be reversed

A

TRUE the atp synthase protein in the membrane can allow H+ ions to leave the membrane again if it’s along their gradient, and this would take ATP and turn it back into ADP and P

53
Q

what else is the H+ gradient used for

A

to couple with bringing the pyruvate into the matrix of the cell
to couple with bringing the phosphate into the matrix of the cell

54
Q

what can move freely into the outer membrane of the mitochondria

A

ADP, ATP, phosphate and pyruvate

55
Q

what percent of energy is captured from cellular respiration

A

about 50% is lost as heat, and the other 50% can be used

56
Q

how many total ATP are yielded per glucose at the end of all the processes

A

30

57
Q

what are uncoupling agents

A

these are H+ carriers that allow hydrogen ions back into the matrix without going through ATP synthase

58
Q

how was ATP synthase found to work

A

there were four experiments to see which produced energy:
- just H+ gradient (no energy)
- H+ gradient and ATP synthase (made energy)
- just ATP synthase (no energy)
- H+ gradient, ATP synthase, uncoupling agent (no energy)

59
Q

what is the redox potential

A

a measure of electron affinities
basically how badly a molecule wants to be given an electron
high means they want to receive an electron, low means they want to donate an electron

60
Q

does a high or low redox potential want to donate electrons

A

a low redox wants to donate electrons to a high redox

61
Q

does redox potential increase or decrease as the electron transport chain occurs

A

at the beginning, the redox potential is low, but by the end, the redox potential is very high

62
Q

what is the extra compartment that the chloroplast has that the mitochondria doesn’t have

A

thylakoids arranged in stacks called grana

63
Q

what are the parts of the chloroplast

A

outer membrane, inner membrane, stroma (between inner and thylakoid membranes), thylakoid membrane (containing chlorophyll)

64
Q

in photosynthesis, where is the light captured

A

in the chlorophyll in the thylakoid membrane

65
Q

what wavelengths (colors) of light do chlorophylls capture

A

blue and red are absorbed, leaving practically just green and yellow and teal which makes plants look green

66
Q

what is the structure of a chlorophyll molecule

A

ring at the top that absorbs light, hydrophobic tail that holds molecule in place

67
Q

T/F light will bounce randomly between chlorophylls

A

TRUE it wont stop until it hits the special pair dimer chlorophyll

68
Q

where is the special pair located

A

in the reaction center within the thylakoid

69
Q

where is the electron in the special pair given to after it gets to the reaction center

A

mobile electron carrier takes the electron

70
Q

where does the mobile electron carrier take the electron it picked up

A

it takes it to the electron transport chain

71
Q

T/F photosystem II comes before photosystem I

A

TRUE

72
Q

what do the two photosystems generate

A

ATP and NADPH

73
Q

what is the outside source of electrons that go into photosystem II

A

water

74
Q

are water electrons high or low energy state, and what turns it into the other one

A

starts low, but the light energy turns the energy of the electrons higher

75
Q

where do the electrons go after photosystem II

A

to an electron transport chain that makes ATP

76
Q

what is the terminal electron acceptor

A

the chlorophyll of photosystem I that collects the electron after the electron transport chain

77
Q

does photosystem I start at a higher or lower redox potential than photosystem II

A

I starts at a lower redox potential, but this is higher than where II ended

78
Q

what are the high energy electrons in photosystem I used to make

A

they are given more energy from the light electrons in the chlorophyll in photosystem I, and these are then used to make NADPH

79
Q

where are the photosystems located

A

in the thylakoid membrane

80
Q

what are the ATP and NADPH generated from the photosystems used to make

A

they make sugar from CO2

81
Q

how is O2 a byproduct from photosystemII

A

when the water is giving it’s electrons, the O2 is being released as a byproduct

82
Q

what is carbon fixation

A

this is converting carbon dioxide into sugar molecules

83
Q

what is the enzyme that catalyzes carbon fixation and what is it’s speed

A

rubisco works at 3 reactions per second which is super slow

84
Q

what are the things needed to make the carbon fixation cycle happen

A

3 CO2 go in
9 ATP and 6 NADPH are used
1 sugar produced

85
Q

what does the plant cell do with the sugar that was generated

A

it can either be stored as a starch or immediately used to make ATP in the mitochondria

86
Q

what is cell signaling used for

A

for cells to respond to stimuli in the environment and from other cells

87
Q

what is signal transduction

A

one type of signal is converted into another

88
Q

what is endocrine signaling

A

hormones secreted from endocrine glands go into the bloodstream and are widely distributed throughout the body to other cells to be received

89
Q

what is paracrine signaling

A

a signaling cell releases signals and their local neighboring cells will receive them

90
Q

what is neuronal signaling

A

a specialized form of paracrine signaling where the signal travels down the axon and reaches the nerve terminal where the neurotransmitters are released onto other target cells to be received

91
Q

what is contact-dependent signaling

A

membrane-bound signal molecule binds to the receptor protein on another cell

92
Q

what is the different between cell-surface receptors and intracellular receptors

A

cell-surface:
- bind to signal molecules outside of the cell and generate signals inside the cell
intracellular:
- when signal molecules can pass through the membrane and bind to receptor inside the cell and typically will send signals inside a different organelle like the nucleus

93
Q

T/F a signal molecule always makes all cells do the same thing

A

FALSE a signal molecule can induce different responses within different cells

94
Q

what does acetylcholine do in a heart pacemaker cell

A

decrease heart rate

95
Q

what does acetylcholine do in a salivary gland cell

A

secrete more saliva

96
Q

what does acetylcholine do in a skeletal muscle cell

A

contract the muscle

97
Q

T/F animal cells depend on multiple signals to create a response

A

TRUE the signals being received tell the cell what process to do

98
Q

when does a cell want to do apoptosis

A

when it’s deprived of the necessary survival signals

99
Q

T/F cell responses to signals are always the same speed

A

FALSE there are some that take less than a second and some that can take hours

100
Q

what is positive feedback

A

where the signal turns on the response which activates more of the signal and this keeps the loop going

101
Q

what is negative feedback

A

where the signal turns on the response which then inhibits the signal so the process stops
- like a thermostat

102
Q

what are switch proteins

A

proteins that activate or inactivate when something happens to the signal molecule on it
- phosphate binds
- GTP turns to GDP

103
Q

how are monomeric GTPases controlled

A

by two regulatory proteins
- GEF
- GAP

104
Q

what is GEF

A

guanine exchange factor exchanges GDP for GTP and turns the monomeric GTPase on

105
Q

what is GAP

A

GTPase activating protein hydrolyses GTP to GDP and switches the monomeric GTPase off

106
Q

what are the three types of cell surface receptors

A

ion-channel-coupled
g-protein-coupled
enzyme-coupled

107
Q

what are ion-channel-coupled cell-surface receptor proteins

A

a signal molecule binds to the ion channel letting the ions in along their gradient

108
Q

what are g-protein-coupled cell-surface receptor proteins

A

a signal molecule binds to the receptor which activates the g-protein nearby which activates the enzyme which can carry out a process

109
Q

what are enzyme-coupled cell-surface receptor proteins

A

a signal molecule in the form of a dimer binds to the protein to activate it or activate a nearby enzyme (usually a kinase)

110
Q

what is the g-protein-coupled receptor proteins structure across the membrane

A

7 alpha helices

111
Q

how is the g protein activated once the signal activates the receptor protein

A

this promotes the alpha subunit to release GDP and pick up GTP which activates all three parts of the g protein

112
Q

T/F the activated receptor protein in g-protein-coupled responses can only work once

A

FALSE this receptor protein can cause many g-proteins to activate

113
Q

how does a g-protein become inactivated

A

when it binds to its target protein, it can then hydrolyze the GTP into GDP and this inactivates it, which makes it then reattach to a beta gamma complex (if it disattached)

114
Q

T/F g-proteins can activate ion channels

A

TRUE the activated beta gamma complex can open an ion channel

115
Q

what are second messengers

A

these are small messenger molecules that are released from enzymes that the g-proteins activated

116
Q

what is a common second messenger

A

cyclic AMP

117
Q

what synthesizes cyclic AMP

A

adenylyl cyclase

118
Q

what degrades cyclic AMP

A

cyclic AMP phosphodiesterase

119
Q

T/F the concentration of cyclic AMP can rise rapidly in response to an extracellular signal

A

TRUE something like serotonin can trigger the release of a lot of these second messengers

120
Q
A

biology (4 decks)

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