Exam 4 Flashcards
(314 cards)
1
Q
what are bacterial microbiota also known as
A
bacteriome
2
Q
what are fungal microbiota also known as
A
mycobiome
3
Q
what are heminths also known as
A
macrobiota
4
Q
what are viral microbiota also known as
A
virome
5
Q
what is the size of a bacteriome
A
10^-13/14
6
Q
what is the size of a mycobiome
A
10^-12/13
7
Q
what is the size of a macrobiome
A
0-10^4
8
Q
what is the size of a virome
A
10^14-15
9
Q
what are places that bacteria can be
A
skin
airways
oral cavities
gut
vagina
10
Q
why are bodies good for microbiomes
A
warm
stable
ample nutirents
constant pH
osmotic pressure
11
Q
what does it mean that our bodies are not uniform enviroments
A
each region of skin or organ differs
12
Q
what does it mean that animals possess great defense mechanisms
A
they are sucessful colonizers
13
Q
what does normal mean (regarding pathogenicy)
A
it doesn’t mean non-pathogenic, there are often pathogens in low numbers in and on us
14
Q
examples of pathogens that are harmless
A
S. pyogenes and S. aureus in outer ear (harmful for inner ear)
15
Q
Where does colonization and infection begin at
A
the mucous membrane
16
Q
where ware mucus membranes mostly found
A
in epithelial cells
17
Q
what are epithelial cells
A
tightly packed cells in direct contact with the external enviroment
18
Q
bacteria may associate _____or____
A
loosely or firmly
19
Q
where are microorganisms NOT found
A
organs
blood
lymph
20
Q
What makes the microbiota of the skin different
A
it is an unfavorable habitat
21
Q
what types of microbes are found on the skin
A
transient
22
Q
what exceptions are found on the skin (moister areas)
A
scalp, face, ears, underarms, genitalia, palms, toes
23
Q
what kind of microorganisms inhibit deeper layers of the skin
A
resident microorganisms
24
Q
what are deeper layers of the skin
A
epidermis
sweat glands
follicles
25
what are most skin microbe residents
gram-positive
26
what are the two most common residents on the skin
staphylococcus
Propionibacterium
27
what tissue in the skin is mostly sterile
dermis
subcutaneous tissue
28
what does not have resident microorgansims
a human fetus
29
where does initial colonization come from
birth itself (breaking of fetal membranes)
30
what is the main source of colonization
the enviroment
31
what does the intial microflora depend on
if the infant is breast fed or not
32
what is an important bacterium considering breastfeeding
Bifidobacterium
33
what is the largest effect seen on breastfed babies
bifidobacterium populations increase
34
what is the largest effect seen on bottle fed infants
a mixture of clostridum, staphlococcus, streptococcus, and lactobacillus (other coliforms as well)
35
what do bifidobacterium compete with
potential pathogens such as C.diff and other enterobacteria
36
bottle fed infants are 4x as likely to get what
c.diff
37
the major areas of the body have ____ and _____ bacterial communities
different and distinct
38
layers from top to bottom
epidermis
dermis
subcutaneous tissue
39
what does the epidermis have in it
dead layer
40
what does the dermis have in it
sebacous gland
hair follicle
sweat gland
41
what does the subcutaneous tissue hacve
capillaries
42
where are microbes found on/within the skin
surface and hair folicles/glands
43
Commensal fungi form what
hyphae
or exist as individual cells
44
where do virus particles live
freely and within bacterial cells
45
where do skin mites live
in or near hair folliciles
46
what are the 3 glands
eccrine glands
apocrine glands
sebacous glands
47
where are eccrine glands
they are widely distributed
48
what are eccrine glands known for
perspiration
49
where are apocrine glands found
underarms, genitals, etc.
50
when do appocrine glands develop
after puberty
51
which sweat has a higher pH
apocrine sweat
52
where are sebacous glands found
near/with hair follicles
53
what do sebacious glands produce
sebum which is the cief component of skin lipids
54
what does sebum do for the skin
they have antimicrobial properties that help fight against gram-positive cocci
55
what are the bacterial communities like on the skin
they are very different on different skin sites
56
what is the skin microbiome dependent on
the microenvironment of the sampled site
57
what enzymes are found in the mouth that can harm the bacteria
lysozome and lactoperoxidase
58
what do bacteria in the mouth need to do
reattach to the mouth
59
what microbes are in the mouth at birth (before teeth)
aerotolerant anaerobes (lactobacillus and streptococcus)
60
as teeth erupt what types of bacteria are more common
anaerobes and bacteria used to living in crevices
61
where does plaque come from
biofilm production (film of glycoproteins)
62
what are glycoproteins colonized by
individual streptococcus cells
63
what does an extensive growth of this glycoprotein mean
a thick biofilm is created
64
what does an excess of plaque become
tartar
65
what is the chemical formula of tartar
Ca3(PO4)2
66
what resembles the alimentary canal
a donut
67
things inside the alimentary canal are____
not truly inside the body
68
where do the most bacteria live
the large intestine
69
what is the pH of the stomach
2 or less
70
what does the pH act as
a microbiological barrier
71
what are the bacterial counts like in the stomach
low but the walls can be heavily colonized
72
what bacteria is the cause of stomach ulcers
helicobacter pylori
73
what parts of the GI tract are acidic
small intestine and stomach
74
how many bacteria are found in the lower portions of the stomach
105-107 per/gram
75
what has a large amount of bacteria per gram
large intestine
76
what can the large intestine be compared to
a chemostat
77
what bacteria is mainly in the stomach and small intestine
lactobacilli
78
what is probiotic therapy
administering living bacterial cultures to benefit health
79
gut bacteria can influcence what in mice
behavior
80
the bladder is usally
sterile
81
what can the urethral epithelium be colonized by
gram-neg rods (e.coli, proteus
82
what can these urethral epithelium bacteria become
opportunistic urinary tract pathogens t
83
true pathogen
can cause infection or disease in a healthy host
84
opportunistic pathogens
only pathogenic to non-healthy individuals or when introduced into a normally sterile part of the body
85
virulence
degree of pathogenicity of a parasite (pathogen)
86
virulence factors
properties of a pathogen that allow it to successfully invade and cause disease
87
E.coli is what type of pathogen
both a true pathogen and an opportunistic pathogen
88
antibiotic displacement of native biota opens ___
niche for pathogenic Enterococcus
89
what does antibiotic use do to commensal flora
destabilizes commensal flora by killing susceptible strains
90
example of antibiotic resistant strains of enterococcal strains
E. fecalis
91
what is the most important physical barrier
the skin
92
what is a part of the defense of the respiratory defense
ciliary bodies
93
what do the cilia in the airway do
entrap and propel particles upwards and toward the pharynx
94
what are the 3 factors that relate tosusceptability of infectious disease
age
stress
diet
95
which 2 populations are more susceptible
infants and elderly
96
why are infants more susceptible
their immune systems are not fully developed
their flora is not fully developed either.
97
why are elders more susceptible
immune system response declines
anatomical changes
98
what factor does stress play in susceptability
fatigue
exertion
poor diet
dehydration
climate change
99
what specific thing in stress plays an important role in our immune system
hormone imbalance
100
what are the 2 things that are correlated with diet
famine and infectious disease
101
what are the 4 steps of the infectious process
exposure
adherance
invasion
multiplication
102
what are the steps of the disease process
toxicity or invasiveness
(which results in)
tissue or systematic damage
103
what does a portals of entry mean
a characteristic route that a microbe follows to enter the tissues of the body
104
what are exogenous agents
they orginate from outside of the body
105
what are endogenous agents
they exist on or in the body (normal flora
106
what is tissue specifity
serious barrier to the entry of most microorganisms
(they can only attach/live in some areas)
107
what are the 2 exceptions to tissue specifity
Streptococcus pyogenes and staphlococcus aureus
108
what must happen for a tissue specific pathogen to live
they become established at site of infection
habitat must be compatible with microbe
109
an infecting microbe can't adhere to all ___
cells or hosts
110
acronym for pathogens that infect during pregnancy
STORCH
111
what does STORCH stand for
syphilis
toxoplasmosis
other (hepatitis B, HIV, chicken pox, chlymidia)
rubella
cytomegalovirus
herpes
112
how do microbes attatch to the host
by adhesion
113
types of adhesion
fibrae
flagella
glycocalyx
cilia
spikes
suckers
hooks
barbs
114
what facillitates pathogen attatchment
capsules
115
what is an example of a bacteria that uses capsules
bacillus anthacis
116
117
what do bacterial adherance use to attatch
receptors
118
the capsule can be considered a virulence factor in some pathogens t/f
true
119
some pathogens are much more _____ than others
virulent
120
what is the infectious dose
the minimum number of microbes that are required for infections to proceed
121
what does a lack of sufficent ID mean
no infection
122
microbes with small ID have greater
virulence
123
what do most pathogens need to do to cause disease
invade and grow
124
what is colonization
multiplication of a microbe after attatchment to host tissues or other surfaces
125
is the initial innoculation of cells enough to cause disease
no, it needs to grow
126
what is virulence factor
any charecteristic of a pathogen that enables it to establish itself and cause disease
127
what are examples of virulence factors
(extracellular enzymes)
Hemolysin, hyaluronidase, collagenase, coagulase
128
what does hemolysin do
breaks down/metabolizes red blood cells
129
which extracellular enzymes are used for spreading of the disease
hemolysin
hyaluronidase
collegenase
130
which extracellular enzyme is used to promote localization and protection
coagulase
131
what does hyaluronidase do
attatch to epithelia
produce the enzyme
allows pathogen to invade deeper into the tissue
132
what does coagulase do
produces a clot with the pathogen and blocks off the immune system cells (streptokinase then comes and breaks it down, releasing the bacteria)
133
what do cards of virulence allude to
the specific combinations that an organism ends up with for their virulence (poker reference, delt a random hand)
134
What is an example of a bacteria that has a lot of virulance factor
cholera
135
how many lineages cause cholera to be pandemic species
2 (like 2 sets of genes that made it viral)
136
what is the overall message of the "cards of virulence"
they are evolving
there are multiple gene variants
137
what is the initial response of the host defenses
phagocytes (wbc)
138
what are antiphagocytic factors
something like a capsule to avoid phagocytosis
139
what do staph and strep produce as antiphagocytic factors
leukocidins
140
what are 2 examples of antiphagocytic factors
slime layer
capsule
141
what are exotoxins
toxins secreted into the tissue
142
what is an extremly potent toxin that disrupts protien synthesis
diptheria toxin
143
how many diptheria toxin molecules will kill a cell
one molecule
144
what lysogenic bacteriophage comes from diptheria
corynebacterium diptheriae
145
what toxin has casual organisms tgat dont normally grow much in infected tissues but release a toxin
tetanus and botulism
146
what is the most toxic agent known to man
botulism
147
what is the irreversible muscle contraction called
lockjaw
148
what does tetanus block
glycine
149
what does the blocking of glycine do
prevents relaxation
150
what does the botulism toxin result in
irreversible muscle relaxation
151
what is another name for irreversible muscle relaxation
flaccid paralysis
152
what is an endotoxin
a toxin releasaed within the cell that results in lysis
153
what are endotoxins (cell part)
lipopolysaccharides
154
what are endotoxins only found in
gram negative because of the lipopolysaccharides
155
endotoxins target ____
exotoxins target ____
cells
organs
156
what are the 3 types of exotoxins
superantigens
membrane-disrupting
intracellular-targeting
157
what are superantigens
excessive activation of immune system
158
what is an example of superantigens
toxic shock syndrome
159
what are membrane disrupting toxins
disrupt the membrane and example is streptolysin
160
what are intracellular targeting toxins
known as A-B toxins
cholera toxin
161
how do A-B endotoxins work
-B component binds to host
-toxin brought in by endocytosis
-A component is seperated from B component
-A component gains access to cytoplasm
162
what is an enterotoxin
acts specifically on the small intestine
163
where are examples of enterotoxins
S. aureus
E.coli
C.perfringens
samlonella
164
what is the most studied toxin
cholera
165
what does colera do at the cellular level
prevents sodium from moving into the cells which can cause dehydration (water is only outside of the cells/ in the lumen)
166
what physical symptoms does cholera cause
extreme diarrhea
167
example of a localized infection
boil/cut infection
Can become systematic)
168
what is an example of a systematic infection
influenza
169
what is an example of a focal infection
infection of a specific organ (heart)
170
what is an example of a mixed infection
various microbes found in the infection
171
what is an example of a secondary infection
primary (urinary) --> secondary (vaginal)
172
what is an acute infection
an infection that comes on fast and is short lived
173
what are chronic infections
infections that progress and persist over a long period of time
174
what are the two sources and transmissions of microbes
reservoir
source
175
what is a resivoir
the primary habitat of a pathogen in the natural world
176
what are sources
individual or object which an infection is actually required
177
what are vectors
a live animal that transmits an infection from one host to another
178
what are the majority of vectors
arthropods
179
what are mechanical vectors
does not participate in the pathogens Lifecycle, just a transporter
180
what is a biological vector
actively participates in the pathogens lifecycle
181
what is zoonosis
infection indigionous to animals but naturally transmissible to humans
182
do humans initally transmit the disease to others
no it comes from the animals
183
how many zoonosies exist worldwide
150
184
what makes up 70% emerging diseases
zoonosies
185
how to eradicate the zoonosis diseases
eradicate the animal resivoir
186
what are nosocomial infections
diseases that are developed during a hospital stay
187
how many cases per year. Deaths. fron nonsociomal infections
2-4 million case
90,000 deaths
188
what are universal precautions
measures to prevent spread of nosocomial infections
189
what can viruses not do
reproduce or metabolize independently so they get live cells to do it for them
190
all viruses are known as what
obligate intracellular parasites
191
what are viruses known as
infectious particles, not live or dead
192
what is the new exception of a virus
mimivirus
193
what sets the mimivirus apart
1.2 million bases in the genome and is about the size of a micron
194
comparing bacterial size to virus size
viruses are much smaller than bacteria for the most part
195
all viruses have what in their structure
nucleocapsid
196
what is the envelope on the virus made of
phospholipid bilayer
197
where is most vituses with an envelope found in
plants and animals
198
what is the viral envelope needed to do
it is required for infection
199
what are viral envelopes part of
the infected host cell, viruses do not form their own
200
what are the 2 most common shapes in nucleocapsids
helical and icosahedral
201
what do both viral shapes have in common
they are both regular, geometric shapes that are determined by the structure and orientation if the proteins
202
what is the TMV made of (what molecules)
single RNA molecule and one type of protein
203
what are icosahedral structures made up of
one or two different proteins and a nucleic acid
204
what are adenoviruses
non-enveloped icosahedral viruses which are mild pathogens (pink eye, respiratory illness, etc.)
205
what is the makeup of a bacteriophage
icohedral head
helical tail
and attatchment fibers
206
how many base pairs can a virus code for
3 to 4 proteins
207
what are they characterized by (when taking about gene placement
overlaping genes
208
what is significant about the viral genome
can be either DNA or RNA, but some can use both at each stages
209
what is a virus known as if it uses RNA
retrovirus
210
what is a virus known as if it uses DNA
hepadnavirus
211
what are the classifications of a virus
capsid structure
envelope
type of nucleic acids
212
what are the 4 types of viral infection
adsorption
entry
virion replication
exit from the cell
213
what does adhesion ential
specific interaction of virus to cell surface (only interacts with specific cell types
214
what do bacteriophages use to get their genetic info in the cell
bacteriophage receptors
215
what are the 3 types of entry
insertion of nucleic acid
entire neucleocapsid is put into the cell
membrane fusion
216
what are 3 things that viral replication involves
replication of neucleic acid
217
what are 2 ways of exit
budding
cell lysis
218
what are 3 examples of virion replication
-immediate replication (lytic phages)
-Integration of genome into host cell
-latent infection
219
how to count phages
mixture containing more liquid agar with cells and phages, then pour on top of original agar, then wherever there is holes, there are phages
220
what are holes in the agar caused by phages called
plaques
221
one step growth curve
for virus that contains latent period or eclipse phase
222
what are the 5 steps of lytic phage replication
1-attatchment (attatches to surface of the cell)
2- penetration (viral DNA enters cell)
3- biosynthesis (phage DNA replicates and phage proteins are made)
4- maturation (new phage particles assembled)
5-lysis (cell lyses which releases new phages)
223
what is temperate phage
process that a phage with both lytic and lysogenic cycles
224
what are the steps in the temperate phages before gets to lysogenic cycles
1-phage infects cell
2-phage DNA becomes incorporated to bacterial genome
3- cell divides and prophage DNA is passed to daughter cells
4- under stressful conditions, prophage DNA is excised from bacterial chromosomes.
5-lytic cycle starts
225
what can contribute to the pathogenicity of bacteria
226
what can rare viruses casue or do
make cells unto tumors because it cant stop multiplying
227
what happens with a persistent infection
the virus is slowly released without causing cell death
228
what does latent infection mean
the virus is present but its not replicating
229
what is the first line of defesne
physical and chemical barriers (skin, mucous, tears)
230
second line of defense
phagocytes and inflammation (non-specific)
231
third line of defense
specific immune reactions
232
what are phagocytes known as
eater cells
233
what are the 4 systems involved in immune defesne
blood stream
lymphatic system
reticuloendothelial
extracellular fluid
234
reticuloendothelial (mononuclear phagocyte)
support system of connective tissue fibers and endothelium
235
what are communicating systems
pulmonary circulation (lungs)
arteries (systematic circulation)
lymph nodes (lymphatic vessels)
236
what are stem cells
undiffrentiated cells which give rise to othersw
237
where are stem cells found
bone marroe
238
what does bone marroe produce
red blood cells (erythrocytes)
white blood cells
(leukocytes)
platelets
239
what are the two groups of leukocytes
granulocytes or agranulocyte
240
what is another name for granulocytes
polymorphonuclear leukocytes
241
what is another name for agranulocytes
mononuclear leukocytes
242
what is an example of granulocyes
neutrophils (microphages), basophils, eosinophils
243
what is an example of agranulocytes
monocytes (phagocyte) and lymphocytes
244
what is the humoral response main response
antibody mediated response that is fast
245
what is the cell mediated response
t-cell mediated response that is slow
246
t cells are associated with what
cell mediated response
come from thymus
247
b cells produce what kind of cells
plasma cells
248
what cells do tcells produce
killer cells or helper cells
249
b cells are associated with what
antibody mediated response
come from bone marrow
250
what are monocytes
a large, common, important in non-specific and specific immune functions, tissue associated
251
what are monocytes also known as
macrophages
252
what is the make up of a lymphocyte
unlobed nucleus, very little cytoplasm
253
what are mast cells
mainly found in tissues, similar to basophils (allergy response)
254
what are components of the non-specific immune response
inflamation
phagocytosis
complement
255
what are the symptoms of inflamation
injury
rubor (redness) and calor (heat)
tumor (swelling)
dolor (pain)
scab
256
what is the first step of inflamation at the cellular level
leukocytes in the blood respond to chemical attractants that are released by pathogens and send chemical signals from nearby injured cells
257
what is the second step of inflammation at the cellular level
leukocytes go between capillary walls and follow the chemical signals where they are most concentrated
258
what is the third step of inflammation
neutrophils release chemicals that breaks apart pathogens, monocytes then differentiate into macrophages. all these cells then phagocytize pathogens and cellular debris
259
what is phagocytosis mainly carried out
primarily by neutrophils and monocytes/macrophages (collectively called phagocytes)
260
pathogens have what on them to recognize toxins
receptors
261
once a cell engulfs something where does it go
to the phagosome
262
what happens after engulfment within a cell
phagocytes will shift from aerobic to anerobic (fermentative) metabolism because the drop of pH activates the lysosomal enzymes
263
what does staph aureous produce
carotenoids as a antioxidant
264
what does mycobacterium do
use glycolipids in cell wall to scavenge toxic oxygen
265
what distroys phagocytes
266
what is the compliment system
additional mechanism that is brought into play are several levels in cell killing
267
what does the compliment system cause
cascade of proteins which results in cell death
268
what is an antigen
a macromolecule that reacts with comonents of the immune system
269
what is an epitope
projections off of the antigen that can allow for coagulation
270
what is better for antigens
large and more complex molecules are better
271
what are examples are large and complex molecules
whole cells
viruses
proteins
polypeptides
lipoproteins or glycoprotein
272
What is an example of a poor antigen
small unattached molecules
simple molecules
large but repetitive molecules
273
what are corresponding factors/molecules to antigens
antibodies
274
what is the FC region
the bottom part of the antibody
275
what is the Fab region
the top of the Y , has light chain bound to heavy chain
276
what does it mean when antibodies tag bacteria
it creates an "ID" tag for the bacterial cells
277
what is opsonization
the bacterial cells that are tagged become engulfed more easily
278
what is neutralization
the antibodies block the binding of viruses
279
what is agglutination
these antibodies connect these bacterial cells together to form a clump
280
what is compliment fixation
helps with the compliment system and cascade of proteins
281
what is precipitation of antibodies
antibodies agregate antigen molecules
282
what is the most common antibody
IgG antibody
283
how much does IgG make up in the blood
80%
284
what is special about the IgG
it can cross the placeta
285
what is the second most common antibody
IgM
286
what percent does it make up
6%
287
what is special about IgA
it comes from breast feeding
288
what is special about IgD
it is a beta cell receptor
289
what does MHC stand for
major histocompatibility complex
290
what does MHC l stand for
preotines are found on all nucleoid cells, necessary for cell recognition
291
what are MHC ll cells
proteins are found only on the antigen-presenting cells like macrophages and B cells
292
what is MHC ll impotant for
T helper cell activations
293
what are the steps in engulfment using dendritic cells
1- bacterium engulfed by phagocytosis into a dendritic cell and encased a phagosome
2-lysosomes fuse with the phagosome and digests the bacterium
3-immunodominant epitopes are associated with MHC ll and presented on cell surface
294
what do monocytes do to help activate t helper cells
present antigens
295
what do t helper cells do
activate specific B cells to produce antibodies
296
what do activated B cells diffrentiate into
memory B cells and Plasma B cells
297
what do plasma B cells go on to do
produce specific antibodies
298
what are niave t cells activated to do
form more t-helper, cytotoxic (killer) t cells and memory t cells
299
what are cytokines
molecules that regulate immune system
300
what happens as lymphocytes develop
genes involved in antigen binding are rearranged so that each clone only produces a single receptor
301
what happens to the cells that target the same cells (themselves)
they get eliminated
302
if the cell does not get distroyed if attacking itself, what happnes
autoimmune disease
303
what happens in an immune response
when a specific antigen selects a clone that matches it
304
what are the 2 region on the light chains
variable region and constant region
305
because of the possibility of different proteins on the antibody what does that mean
infinate number of possible antibodies and proteins
306
what does the high variability of antibodies mean
they can fight off any and all viruses becuase of the different comonation
307
what are the 2 regions on the T cells
variable regions and constant regions
308
what are APCs
antigen presenting cells
309
what do APCs do
helps attach MHCll protein to the antigen on the Tcell receptor
310
what are cyotkine storms activated by
superantigens
311
what heppens with a cytokine storm
causes intense inflamation
312
what happens to a first exposure to s disease
there is a latent period, this is for the cells to initally respond to the disease before symptoms starts
313
what antibody is produced first in the primary response
IgM antibody
314
what can aslo cause a secondary response
vaccines
