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Microbio > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

what are bacterial microbiota also known as

A

bacteriome

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2
Q

what are fungal microbiota also known as

A

mycobiome

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3
Q

what are heminths also known as

A

macrobiota

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4
Q

what are viral microbiota also known as

A

virome

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5
Q

what is the size of a bacteriome

A

10^-13/14

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6
Q

what is the size of a mycobiome

A

10^-12/13

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7
Q

what is the size of a macrobiome

A

0-10^4

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8
Q

what is the size of a virome

A

10^14-15

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9
Q

what are places that bacteria can be

A

skin
airways
oral cavities
gut
vagina

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10
Q

why are bodies good for microbiomes

A

warm
stable
ample nutirents
constant pH
osmotic pressure

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11
Q

what does it mean that our bodies are not uniform enviroments

A

each region of skin or organ differs

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12
Q

what does it mean that animals possess great defense mechanisms

A

they are sucessful colonizers

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13
Q

what does normal mean (regarding pathogenicy)

A

it doesn’t mean non-pathogenic, there are often pathogens in low numbers in and on us

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14
Q

examples of pathogens that are harmless

A

S. pyogenes and S. aureus in outer ear (harmful for inner ear)

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15
Q

Where does colonization and infection begin at

A

the mucous membrane

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16
Q

where ware mucus membranes mostly found

A

in epithelial cells

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17
Q

what are epithelial cells

A

tightly packed cells in direct contact with the external enviroment

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18
Q

bacteria may associate _____or____

A

loosely or firmly

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19
Q

where are microorganisms NOT found

A

organs
blood
lymph

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20
Q

What makes the microbiota of the skin different

A

it is an unfavorable habitat

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21
Q

what types of microbes are found on the skin

A

transient

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22
Q

what exceptions are found on the skin (moister areas)

A

scalp, face, ears, underarms, genitalia, palms, toes

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23
Q

what kind of microorganisms inhibit deeper layers of the skin

A

resident microorganisms

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24
Q

what are deeper layers of the skin

A

epidermis
sweat glands
follicles

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25
Q

what are most skin microbe residents

A

gram-positive

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26
Q

what are the two most common residents on the skin

A

staphylococcus
Propionibacterium

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27
Q

what tissue in the skin is mostly sterile

A

dermis
subcutaneous tissue

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28
Q

what does not have resident microorgansims

A

a human fetus

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29
Q

where does initial colonization come from

A

birth itself (breaking of fetal membranes)

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30
Q

what is the main source of colonization

A

the enviroment

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31
Q

what does the intial microflora depend on

A

if the infant is breast fed or not

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32
Q

what is an important bacterium considering breastfeeding

A

Bifidobacterium

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33
Q

what is the largest effect seen on breastfed babies

A

bifidobacterium populations increase

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34
Q

what is the largest effect seen on bottle fed infants

A

a mixture of clostridum, staphlococcus, streptococcus, and lactobacillus (other coliforms as well)

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35
Q

what do bifidobacterium compete with

A

potential pathogens such as C.diff and other enterobacteria

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36
Q

bottle fed infants are 4x as likely to get what

A

c.diff

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37
Q

the major areas of the body have ____ and _____ bacterial communities

A

different and distinct

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38
Q

layers from top to bottom

A

epidermis
dermis
subcutaneous tissue

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39
Q

what does the epidermis have in it

A

dead layer

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40
Q

what does the dermis have in it

A

sebacous gland
hair follicle
sweat gland

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41
Q

what does the subcutaneous tissue hacve

A

capillaries

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42
Q

where are microbes found on/within the skin

A

surface and hair folicles/glands

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43
Q

Commensal fungi form what

A

hyphae
or exist as individual cells

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44
Q

where do virus particles live

A

freely and within bacterial cells

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45
Q

where do skin mites live

A

in or near hair folliciles

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46
Q

what are the 3 glands

A

eccrine glands
apocrine glands
sebacous glands

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47
Q

where are eccrine glands

A

they are widely distributed

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48
Q

what are eccrine glands known for

A

perspiration

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49
Q

where are apocrine glands found

A

underarms, genitals, etc.

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50
Q

when do appocrine glands develop

A

after puberty

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51
Q

which sweat has a higher pH

A

apocrine sweat

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52
Q

where are sebacous glands found

A

near/with hair follicles

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53
Q

what do sebacious glands produce

A

sebum which is the cief component of skin lipids

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54
Q

what does sebum do for the skin

A

they have antimicrobial properties that help fight against gram-positive cocci

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55
Q

what are the bacterial communities like on the skin

A

they are very different on different skin sites

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56
Q

what is the skin microbiome dependent on

A

the microenvironment of the sampled site

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57
Q

what enzymes are found in the mouth that can harm the bacteria

A

lysozome and lactoperoxidase

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58
Q

what do bacteria in the mouth need to do

A

reattach to the mouth

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59
Q

what microbes are in the mouth at birth (before teeth)

A

aerotolerant anaerobes (lactobacillus and streptococcus)

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60
Q

as teeth erupt what types of bacteria are more common

A

anaerobes and bacteria used to living in crevices

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61
Q

where does plaque come from

A

biofilm production (film of glycoproteins)

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62
Q

what are glycoproteins colonized by

A

individual streptococcus cells

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63
Q

what does an extensive growth of this glycoprotein mean

A

a thick biofilm is created

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64
Q

what does an excess of plaque become

A

tartar

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65
Q

what is the chemical formula of tartar

A

Ca3(PO4)2

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66
Q

what resembles the alimentary canal

A

a donut

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67
Q

things inside the alimentary canal are____

A

not truly inside the body

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68
Q

where do the most bacteria live

A

the large intestine

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69
Q

what is the pH of the stomach

A

2 or less

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70
Q

what does the pH act as

A

a microbiological barrier

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71
Q

what are the bacterial counts like in the stomach

A

low but the walls can be heavily colonized

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72
Q

what bacteria is the cause of stomach ulcers

A

helicobacter pylori

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73
Q

what parts of the GI tract are acidic

A

small intestine and stomach

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74
Q

how many bacteria are found in the lower portions of the stomach

A

105-107 per/gram

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75
Q

what has a large amount of bacteria per gram

A

large intestine

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76
Q

what can the large intestine be compared to

A

a chemostat

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77
Q

what bacteria is mainly in the stomach and small intestine

A

lactobacilli

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78
Q

what is probiotic therapy

A

administering living bacterial cultures to benefit health

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79
Q

gut bacteria can influcence what in mice

A

behavior

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80
Q

the bladder is usally

A

sterile

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81
Q

what can the urethral epithelium be colonized by

A

gram-neg rods (e.coli, proteus

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82
Q

what can these urethral epithelium bacteria become

A

opportunistic urinary tract pathogens t

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83
Q

true pathogen

A

can cause infection or disease in a healthy host

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84
Q

opportunistic pathogens

A

only pathogenic to non-healthy individuals or when introduced into a normally sterile part of the body

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85
Q

virulence

A

degree of pathogenicity of a parasite (pathogen)

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86
Q

virulence factors

A

properties of a pathogen that allow it to successfully invade and cause disease

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87
Q

E.coli is what type of pathogen

A

both a true pathogen and an opportunistic pathogen

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88
Q

antibiotic displacement of native biota opens ___

A

niche for pathogenic Enterococcus

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89
Q

what does antibiotic use do to commensal flora

A

destabilizes commensal flora by killing susceptible strains

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90
Q

example of antibiotic resistant strains of enterococcal strains

A

E. fecalis

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91
Q

what is the most important physical barrier

A

the skin

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92
Q

what is a part of the defense of the respiratory defense

A

ciliary bodies

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93
Q

what do the cilia in the airway do

A

entrap and propel particles upwards and toward the pharynx

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94
Q

what are the 3 factors that relate tosusceptability of infectious disease

A

age
stress
diet

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95
Q

which 2 populations are more susceptible

A

infants and elderly

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96
Q

why are infants more susceptible

A

their immune systems are not fully developed
their flora is not fully developed either.

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97
Q

why are elders more susceptible

A

immune system response declines
anatomical changes

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98
Q

what factor does stress play in susceptability

A

fatigue
exertion
poor diet
dehydration
climate change

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99
Q

what specific thing in stress plays an important role in our immune system

A

hormone imbalance

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100
Q

what are the 2 things that are correlated with diet

A

famine and infectious disease

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101
Q

what are the 4 steps of the infectious process

A

exposure
adherance
invasion
multiplication

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102
Q

what are the steps of the disease process

A

toxicity or invasiveness
(which results in)
tissue or systematic damage

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103
Q

what does a portals of entry mean

A

a characteristic route that a microbe follows to enter the tissues of the body

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104
Q

what are exogenous agents

A

they orginate from outside of the body

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105
Q

what are endogenous agents

A

they exist on or in the body (normal flora

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106
Q

what is tissue specifity

A

serious barrier to the entry of most microorganisms
(they can only attach/live in some areas)

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107
Q

what are the 2 exceptions to tissue specifity

A

Streptococcus pyogenes and staphlococcus aureus

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108
Q

what must happen for a tissue specific pathogen to live

A

they become established at site of infection
habitat must be compatible with microbe

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109
Q

an infecting microbe can’t adhere to all ___

A

cells or hosts

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110
Q

acronym for pathogens that infect during pregnancy

A

STORCH

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111
Q

what does STORCH stand for

A

syphilis
toxoplasmosis
other (hepatitis B, HIV, chicken pox, chlymidia)
rubella
cytomegalovirus
herpes

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112
Q

how do microbes attatch to the host

A

by adhesion

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113
Q

types of adhesion

A

fibrae
flagella
glycocalyx
cilia
spikes
suckers
hooks
barbs

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114
Q

what facillitates pathogen attatchment

A

capsules

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115
Q

what is an example of a bacteria that uses capsules

A

bacillus anthacis

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116
Q
A
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117
Q

what do bacterial adherance use to attatch

A

receptors

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118
Q

the capsule can be considered a virulence factor in some pathogens t/f

A

true

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119
Q

some pathogens are much more _____ than others

A

virulent

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120
Q

what is the infectious dose

A

the minimum number of microbes that are required for infections to proceed

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121
Q

what does a lack of sufficent ID mean

A

no infection

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122
Q

microbes with small ID have greater

A

virulence

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123
Q

what do most pathogens need to do to cause disease

A

invade and grow

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124
Q

what is colonization

A

multiplication of a microbe after attatchment to host tissues or other surfaces

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125
Q

is the initial innoculation of cells enough to cause disease

A

no, it needs to grow

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126
Q

what is virulence factor

A

any charecteristic of a pathogen that enables it to establish itself and cause disease

127
Q

what are examples of virulence factors

A

(extracellular enzymes)
Hemolysin, hyaluronidase, collagenase, coagulase

128
Q

what does hemolysin do

A

breaks down/metabolizes red blood cells

129
Q

which extracellular enzymes are used for spreading of the disease

A

hemolysin
hyaluronidase
collegenase

130
Q

which extracellular enzyme is used to promote localization and protection

A

coagulase

131
Q

what does hyaluronidase do

A

attatch to epithelia
produce the enzyme
allows pathogen to invade deeper into the tissue

132
Q

what does coagulase do

A

produces a clot with the pathogen and blocks off the immune system cells (streptokinase then comes and breaks it down, releasing the bacteria)

133
Q

what do cards of virulence allude to

A

the specific combinations that an organism ends up with for their virulence (poker reference, delt a random hand)

134
Q

What is an example of a bacteria that has a lot of virulance factor

A

cholera

135
Q

how many lineages cause cholera to be pandemic species

A

2 (like 2 sets of genes that made it viral)

136
Q

what is the overall message of the “cards of virulence”

A

they are evolving
there are multiple gene variants

137
Q

what is the initial response of the host defenses

A

phagocytes (wbc)

138
Q

what are antiphagocytic factors

A

something like a capsule to avoid phagocytosis

139
Q

what do staph and strep produce as antiphagocytic factors

A

leukocidins

140
Q

what are 2 examples of antiphagocytic factors

A

slime layer
capsule

141
Q

what are exotoxins

A

toxins secreted into the tissue

142
Q

what is an extremly potent toxin that disrupts protien synthesis

A

diptheria toxin

143
Q

how many diptheria toxin molecules will kill a cell

A

one molecule

144
Q

what lysogenic bacteriophage comes from diptheria

A

corynebacterium diptheriae

145
Q

what toxin has casual organisms tgat dont normally grow much in infected tissues but release a toxin

A

tetanus and botulism

146
Q

what is the most toxic agent known to man

A

botulism

147
Q

what is the irreversible muscle contraction called

A

lockjaw

148
Q

what does tetanus block

A

glycine

149
Q

what does the blocking of glycine do

A

prevents relaxation

150
Q

what does the botulism toxin result in

A

irreversible muscle relaxation

151
Q

what is another name for irreversible muscle relaxation

A

flaccid paralysis

152
Q

what is an endotoxin

A

a toxin releasaed within the cell that results in lysis

153
Q

what are endotoxins (cell part)

A

lipopolysaccharides

154
Q

what are endotoxins only found in

A

gram negative because of the lipopolysaccharides

155
Q

endotoxins target ____
exotoxins target ____

A

cells
organs

156
Q

what are the 3 types of exotoxins

A

superantigens
membrane-disrupting
intracellular-targeting

157
Q

what are superantigens

A

excessive activation of immune system

158
Q

what is an example of superantigens

A

toxic shock syndrome

159
Q

what are membrane disrupting toxins

A

disrupt the membrane and example is streptolysin

160
Q

what are intracellular targeting toxins

A

known as A-B toxins
cholera toxin

161
Q

how do A-B endotoxins work

A

-B component binds to host
-toxin brought in by endocytosis
-A component is seperated from B component
-A component gains access to cytoplasm

162
Q

what is an enterotoxin

A

acts specifically on the small intestine

163
Q

where are examples of enterotoxins

A

S. aureus
E.coli
C.perfringens
samlonella

164
Q

what is the most studied toxin

A

cholera

165
Q

what does colera do at the cellular level

A

prevents sodium from moving into the cells which can cause dehydration (water is only outside of the cells/ in the lumen)

166
Q

what physical symptoms does cholera cause

A

extreme diarrhea

167
Q

example of a localized infection

A

boil/cut infection
Can become systematic)

168
Q

what is an example of a systematic infection

A

influenza

169
Q

what is an example of a focal infection

A

infection of a specific organ (heart)

170
Q

what is an example of a mixed infection

A

various microbes found in the infection

171
Q

what is an example of a secondary infection

A

primary (urinary) –> secondary (vaginal)

172
Q

what is an acute infection

A

an infection that comes on fast and is short lived

173
Q

what are chronic infections

A

infections that progress and persist over a long period of time

174
Q

what are the two sources and transmissions of microbes

A

reservoir
source

175
Q

what is a resivoir

A

the primary habitat of a pathogen in the natural world

176
Q

what are sources

A

individual or object which an infection is actually required

177
Q

what are vectors

A

a live animal that transmits an infection from one host to another

178
Q

what are the majority of vectors

A

arthropods

179
Q

what are mechanical vectors

A

does not participate in the pathogens Lifecycle, just a transporter

180
Q

what is a biological vector

A

actively participates in the pathogens lifecycle

181
Q

what is zoonosis

A

infection indigionous to animals but naturally transmissible to humans

182
Q

do humans initally transmit the disease to others

A

no it comes from the animals

183
Q

how many zoonosies exist worldwide

A

150

184
Q

what makes up 70% emerging diseases

A

zoonosies

185
Q

how to eradicate the zoonosis diseases

A

eradicate the animal resivoir

186
Q

what are nosocomial infections

A

diseases that are developed during a hospital stay

187
Q

how many cases per year. Deaths. fron nonsociomal infections

A

2-4 million case
90,000 deaths

188
Q

what are universal precautions

A

measures to prevent spread of nosocomial infections

189
Q

what can viruses not do

A

reproduce or metabolize independently so they get live cells to do it for them

190
Q

all viruses are known as what

A

obligate intracellular parasites

191
Q

what are viruses known as

A

infectious particles, not live or dead

192
Q

what is the new exception of a virus

A

mimivirus

193
Q

what sets the mimivirus apart

A

1.2 million bases in the genome and is about the size of a micron

194
Q

comparing bacterial size to virus size

A

viruses are much smaller than bacteria for the most part

195
Q

all viruses have what in their structure

A

nucleocapsid

196
Q

what is the envelope on the virus made of

A

phospholipid bilayer

197
Q

where is most vituses with an envelope found in

A

plants and animals

198
Q

what is the viral envelope needed to do

A

it is required for infection

199
Q

what are viral envelopes part of

A

the infected host cell, viruses do not form their own

200
Q

what are the 2 most common shapes in nucleocapsids

A

helical and icosahedral

201
Q

what do both viral shapes have in common

A

they are both regular, geometric shapes that are determined by the structure and orientation if the proteins

202
Q

what is the TMV made of (what molecules)

A

single RNA molecule and one type of protein

203
Q

what are icosahedral structures made up of

A

one or two different proteins and a nucleic acid

204
Q

what are adenoviruses

A

non-enveloped icosahedral viruses which are mild pathogens (pink eye, respiratory illness, etc.)

205
Q

what is the makeup of a bacteriophage

A

icohedral head
helical tail
and attatchment fibers

206
Q

how many base pairs can a virus code for

A

3 to 4 proteins

207
Q

what are they characterized by (when taking about gene placement

A

overlaping genes

208
Q

what is significant about the viral genome

A

can be either DNA or RNA, but some can use both at each stages

209
Q

what is a virus known as if it uses RNA

A

retrovirus

210
Q

what is a virus known as if it uses DNA

A

hepadnavirus

211
Q

what are the classifications of a virus

A

capsid structure
envelope
type of nucleic acids

212
Q

what are the 4 types of viral infection

A

adsorption
entry
virion replication
exit from the cell

213
Q

what does adhesion ential

A

specific interaction of virus to cell surface (only interacts with specific cell types

214
Q

what do bacteriophages use to get their genetic info in the cell

A

bacteriophage receptors

215
Q

what are the 3 types of entry

A

insertion of nucleic acid
entire neucleocapsid is put into the cell
membrane fusion

216
Q

what are 3 things that viral replication involves

A

replication of neucleic acid

217
Q

what are 2 ways of exit

A

budding
cell lysis

218
Q

what are 3 examples of virion replication

A

-immediate replication (lytic phages)
-Integration of genome into host cell
-latent infection

219
Q

how to count phages

A

mixture containing more liquid agar with cells and phages, then pour on top of original agar, then wherever there is holes, there are phages

220
Q

what are holes in the agar caused by phages called

A

plaques

221
Q

one step growth curve

A

for virus that contains latent period or eclipse phase

222
Q

what are the 5 steps of lytic phage replication

A

1-attatchment (attatches to surface of the cell)
2- penetration (viral DNA enters cell)
3- biosynthesis (phage DNA replicates and phage proteins are made)
4- maturation (new phage particles assembled)
5-lysis (cell lyses which releases new phages)

223
Q

what is temperate phage

A

process that a phage with both lytic and lysogenic cycles

224
Q

what are the steps in the temperate phages before gets to lysogenic cycles

A

1-phage infects cell
2-phage DNA becomes incorporated to bacterial genome
3- cell divides and prophage DNA is passed to daughter cells
4- under stressful conditions, prophage DNA is excised from bacterial chromosomes.
5-lytic cycle starts

225
Q

what can contribute to the pathogenicity of bacteria

A
226
Q

what can rare viruses casue or do

A

make cells unto tumors because it cant stop multiplying

227
Q

what happens with a persistent infection

A

the virus is slowly released without causing cell death

228
Q

what does latent infection mean

A

the virus is present but its not replicating

229
Q

what is the first line of defesne

A

physical and chemical barriers (skin, mucous, tears)

230
Q

second line of defense

A

phagocytes and inflammation (non-specific)

231
Q

third line of defense

A

specific immune reactions

232
Q

what are phagocytes known as

A

eater cells

233
Q

what are the 4 systems involved in immune defesne

A

blood stream
lymphatic system
reticuloendothelial
extracellular fluid

234
Q

reticuloendothelial (mononuclear phagocyte)

A

support system of connective tissue fibers and endothelium

235
Q

what are communicating systems

A

pulmonary circulation (lungs)
arteries (systematic circulation)
lymph nodes (lymphatic vessels)

236
Q

what are stem cells

A

undiffrentiated cells which give rise to othersw

237
Q

where are stem cells found

A

bone marroe

238
Q

what does bone marroe produce

A

red blood cells (erythrocytes)
white blood cells
(leukocytes)
platelets

239
Q

what are the two groups of leukocytes

A

granulocytes or agranulocyte

240
Q

what is another name for granulocytes

A

polymorphonuclear leukocytes

241
Q

what is another name for agranulocytes

A

mononuclear leukocytes

242
Q

what is an example of granulocyes

A

neutrophils (microphages), basophils, eosinophils

243
Q

what is an example of agranulocytes

A

monocytes (phagocyte) and lymphocytes

244
Q

what is the humoral response main response

A

antibody mediated response that is fast

245
Q

what is the cell mediated response

A

t-cell mediated response that is slow

246
Q

t cells are associated with what

A

cell mediated response
come from thymus

247
Q

b cells produce what kind of cells

A

plasma cells

248
Q

what cells do tcells produce

A

killer cells or helper cells

249
Q

b cells are associated with what

A

antibody mediated response
come from bone marrow

250
Q

what are monocytes

A

a large, common, important in non-specific and specific immune functions, tissue associated

251
Q

what are monocytes also known as

A

macrophages

252
Q

what is the make up of a lymphocyte

A

unlobed nucleus, very little cytoplasm

253
Q

what are mast cells

A

mainly found in tissues, similar to basophils (allergy response)

254
Q

what are components of the non-specific immune response

A

inflamation
phagocytosis
complement

255
Q

what are the symptoms of inflamation

A

injury
rubor (redness) and calor (heat)
tumor (swelling)
dolor (pain)
scab

256
Q

what is the first step of inflamation at the cellular level

A

leukocytes in the blood respond to chemical attractants that are released by pathogens and send chemical signals from nearby injured cells

257
Q

what is the second step of inflammation at the cellular level

A

leukocytes go between capillary walls and follow the chemical signals where they are most concentrated

258
Q

what is the third step of inflammation

A

neutrophils release chemicals that breaks apart pathogens, monocytes then differentiate into macrophages. all these cells then phagocytize pathogens and cellular debris

259
Q

what is phagocytosis mainly carried out

A

primarily by neutrophils and monocytes/macrophages (collectively called phagocytes)

260
Q

pathogens have what on them to recognize toxins

A

receptors

261
Q

once a cell engulfs something where does it go

A

to the phagosome

262
Q

what happens after engulfment within a cell

A

phagocytes will shift from aerobic to anerobic (fermentative) metabolism because the drop of pH activates the lysosomal enzymes

263
Q

what does staph aureous produce

A

carotenoids as a antioxidant

264
Q

what does mycobacterium do

A

use glycolipids in cell wall to scavenge toxic oxygen

265
Q

what distroys phagocytes

A
266
Q

what is the compliment system

A

additional mechanism that is brought into play are several levels in cell killing

267
Q

what does the compliment system cause

A

cascade of proteins which results in cell death

268
Q

what is an antigen

A

a macromolecule that reacts with comonents of the immune system

269
Q

what is an epitope

A

projections off of the antigen that can allow for coagulation

270
Q

what is better for antigens

A

large and more complex molecules are better

271
Q

what are examples are large and complex molecules

A

whole cells
viruses
proteins
polypeptides
lipoproteins or glycoprotein

272
Q

What is an example of a poor antigen

A

small unattached molecules
simple molecules
large but repetitive molecules

273
Q

what are corresponding factors/molecules to antigens

A

antibodies

274
Q

what is the FC region

A

the bottom part of the antibody

275
Q

what is the Fab region

A

the top of the Y , has light chain bound to heavy chain

276
Q

what does it mean when antibodies tag bacteria

A

it creates an “ID” tag for the bacterial cells

277
Q

what is opsonization

A

the bacterial cells that are tagged become engulfed more easily

278
Q

what is neutralization

A

the antibodies block the binding of viruses

279
Q

what is agglutination

A

these antibodies connect these bacterial cells together to form a clump

280
Q

what is compliment fixation

A

helps with the compliment system and cascade of proteins

281
Q

what is precipitation of antibodies

A

antibodies agregate antigen molecules

282
Q

what is the most common antibody

A

IgG antibody

283
Q

how much does IgG make up in the blood

A

80%

284
Q

what is special about the IgG

A

it can cross the placeta

285
Q

what is the second most common antibody

A

IgM

286
Q

what percent does it make up

A

6%

287
Q

what is special about IgA

A

it comes from breast feeding

288
Q

what is special about IgD

A

it is a beta cell receptor

289
Q

what does MHC stand for

A

major histocompatibility complex

290
Q

what does MHC l stand for

A

preotines are found on all nucleoid cells, necessary for cell recognition

291
Q

what are MHC ll cells

A

proteins are found only on the antigen-presenting cells like macrophages and B cells

292
Q

what is MHC ll impotant for

A

T helper cell activations

293
Q

what are the steps in engulfment using dendritic cells

A

1- bacterium engulfed by phagocytosis into a dendritic cell and encased a phagosome
2-lysosomes fuse with the phagosome and digests the bacterium
3-immunodominant epitopes are associated with MHC ll and presented on cell surface

294
Q

what do monocytes do to help activate t helper cells

A

present antigens

295
Q

what do t helper cells do

A

activate specific B cells to produce antibodies

296
Q

what do activated B cells diffrentiate into

A

memory B cells and Plasma B cells

297
Q

what do plasma B cells go on to do

A

produce specific antibodies

298
Q

what are niave t cells activated to do

A

form more t-helper, cytotoxic (killer) t cells and memory t cells

299
Q

what are cytokines

A

molecules that regulate immune system

300
Q

what happens as lymphocytes develop

A

genes involved in antigen binding are rearranged so that each clone only produces a single receptor

301
Q

what happens to the cells that target the same cells (themselves)

A

they get eliminated

302
Q

if the cell does not get distroyed if attacking itself, what happnes

A

autoimmune disease

303
Q

what happens in an immune response

A

when a specific antigen selects a clone that matches it

304
Q

what are the 2 region on the light chains

A

variable region and constant region

305
Q

because of the possibility of different proteins on the antibody what does that mean

A

infinate number of possible antibodies and proteins

306
Q

what does the high variability of antibodies mean

A

they can fight off any and all viruses becuase of the different comonation

307
Q

what are the 2 regions on the T cells

A

variable regions and constant regions

308
Q

what are APCs

A

antigen presenting cells

309
Q

what do APCs do

A

helps attach MHCll protein to the antigen on the Tcell receptor

310
Q

what are cyotkine storms activated by

A

superantigens

311
Q

what heppens with a cytokine storm

A

causes intense inflamation

312
Q

what happens to a first exposure to s disease

A

there is a latent period, this is for the cells to initally respond to the disease before symptoms starts

313
Q

what antibody is produced first in the primary response

A

IgM antibody

314
Q

what can aslo cause a secondary response

A

vaccines

Microbio (4 decks)

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