Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

what must happen for an aircraft to eb airworthy

A

conform to the TCDS
condition for safe operation

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2
Q

who makes the data plate

A

manufacturer

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3
Q

what is the fastest point along a rotor system

A

the tip of the advancing blade

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4
Q

what does CFR stand for

A

code of federal regulations

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5
Q

Mcrit

A

critical mach number
any part of your aircraft has an area that is faster than the speed of sound

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6
Q

best airfoil for transonic flight

A

super critical

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7
Q

what do leading edge devices do

A

change the camber
lowers the AOA

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8
Q

in the construction of aircraft structures, we do not use pure elemental aluminum. What do we use instead and why

A

aluminum alloy and it is stronger

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9
Q

2024

A

copper
we know because it starts with a 2

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10
Q

an aircraft lien is

A

a piece of paper claim filed by someone allowing the aircraft to be taken from the owner and sold at auction if the owner does not pay his or her bills

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11
Q

The FAA regulations are called

A

CFR’s

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12
Q

which of the following does not recieve a type certificate

A

anything but aircraft, engine, propeller

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13
Q

true or false brazing uses higher temperatures than soldering and is appropriate for copper, bronze, and other non-ferrous metals

A

true

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14
Q

true or false when possible, torque is applied to the bolt head, rather than the nut

A

False

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15
Q

true or false the data plate is produced by the FAA and must be located in the aircraft maintenance records

A

False

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16
Q

true or false The FAA document that records the type-certificate of a product is the material safety data sheet (MSDS or SDS)

A

False, it is the SDS

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17
Q

the image of the helicopter shown below depicts a helicopter in forward flight. At which of the points on the image would you find the highest airspeed

A

6
the tip of the advancing blade

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18
Q

which document proves ownership of an aircraft

A

bill of sale

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19
Q

what is required to be able to fly a damaged aircraft to place where it can be repaired

A

special flight permit

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20
Q

which of the following is the acronym of the european unions aviation regulation

A

EASA

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21
Q

type certificates are issued for which of the following design

A

aircraft
engines
propellers

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22
Q

what is the prupose of the TSDS and what information is provided on them

A

all airworthiness information
type of fuel
stall speed
vso
CG limits

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23
Q

where is flight test data found

A

POH

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24
Q

which document must be visibly displayed near the entrance to make the aircraft legal for flight

A

airworthiness certificate

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25
Q

what is special about the ATA code 100

A

it standardizes the chapters in all transport category maintenance manuals

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26
Q

which of the following would be correct format for an ATA code 100 number

A

27-20-00

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27
Q

True or False A TCDS is an FAA approved document

A

True

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28
Q

during riveting we talked about using clecos, briefly describe what they are used for

A

they hold the two pieces of aluminum together

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29
Q

know the steps to riveting

A

drill a hole
deburr
you either countersink or normal

countersink rivet use a dimpler where the tool is on top and bar underneath

normal- you just don’t use the dimpler

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30
Q

who issues an AD and are they mandatory

A

Airworthiness Directives - FAA - mandatory

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31
Q

who issues an Advisory Circular and are they mandatory

A

FAA- not Mandatory

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32
Q

who issues an Service Bulletin and are they mandatory

A

Manufacturer’s - Not Mandatory

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33
Q

who issues an Service Letter and are they mandatory

A

Manufacturer’s - Not Mandatory

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34
Q

who issues an Maintenance Manuals and are they mandatory

A

FAA - Mandatory

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35
Q

who issues an Minimum equipment List and are they mandatory

A

Manufacturer - Mandatory

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36
Q

who issues an Operations Specifications and are they mandatory

A

Airlines- Mandatory

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37
Q

who is required to make sure the aircraft is on the proper inspection program

A

the owner or operator

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38
Q

who may file liens against an aircraft

A

mechanics and banks (money lenders)

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39
Q

How do you know if your aircraft has a lien filed against it

A

the prospective buyer must ask the FAA to check for liens

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40
Q

looking at the image of a bolt shown here, what is the purpose of the feature called out with the red arrows

A

safety wire and cotter pins

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41
Q

which document is considered to be a piece of the aircraft

A

POH

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42
Q

When do any of the certificates under part 65 expire

A

never

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43
Q

you have ____ days in order to notify the FAA in the event of a permanent change of address, or change of name

A

30 days

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44
Q

true or false the owner of the aircraft and the operator are the same

A

false

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45
Q

Advisory Circular (AC) AC43.13-B lists FAA approved methods and techniques for repair when manufacturers structural repair manuals (SRM) are not available and (the AC) can be used interchangeable with the SRM

A

False

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46
Q

what is the main difference between TIG and MIG welding

A

TIG- used on common metals
MIG- is a continuous spool of wire. kind of like a hot glue gun

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47
Q

if you wish the helicopter to move to the right, the highest blade angle occurs where

A

12:00
90 degrees after

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48
Q

In the United States, aviation is governed by ____ CFR

A

14

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49
Q

what does CFR stand for

A

code of federal regulations

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50
Q

who is responsible to keep the maintenance records

A

owner and operator

51
Q

what is ICAO

A

International Civil Aviation Organization

52
Q

what is the atmosphere made up of

A

78%- nitrogen
21%- oxygen
1%- other

53
Q

what does temperature do to flying

A

air is less dense when it is hot making flying “harder”

54
Q

What does humidity do to flying

A

less humid air is denser making it easier to fly in

55
Q

what does altitude do to flying

A

the lower the altitude the denser making it easier to fly in

56
Q

What is a standard day

A

sea level
no humidity
15 degree C

57
Q

what are the four forces of flight

A

lift
drag
weight
thrust

58
Q

Bernoulli’s Principle

A

the pressure under the wing is greater than on top of the wing
the velocity on top of the wing is much faster than on the bottom of the wing
accounts for 90% of lift

59
Q

Newton’s 3rd law

A

every reaction has an opposite and equal reaction

60
Q

Coanda Effect

A

a moving stream of fluid in contact with a curved surface will tend to follow the curvature of the surface rather than continue traveling in a straight line

61
Q

center of pressure

A

greatest pressure different from the bottom and top of the wing
always behind the CG

62
Q

Center of gravity

A

where gravity is felt most on the wing

63
Q

Change in camber/lift

A

increase AOA will increase camber and lift

64
Q

dihedral

A

angle of wing from plane to wing tip
goes upward

65
Q

Anhedral

A

angle of wing from plane to wing tip
goes downward

66
Q

Mean Camber line

A

refers to any imaginary line, created mathematically, when you subtract the distance from the chord line to the lower camber from the distance from the chord line fo the upper camber

67
Q

what are the two types of drag

A

parasitic- air hitting the surface of something will cause drag
induced- newtons third law

68
Q

3 types of parasitic drag

A

form- 2 or more airfoils meeting will cause drag
induced- air hitting a 90 degree or more angle will cause drag
skin friction- anything causing an unsmooth surface will cause drag

69
Q

induced drag will make

A

wingtip vortices
square wingtips produce more than rounded wingtips

70
Q

Stalls- why does it happen

A

the critical angle of attack has been exceeded

71
Q

what is an airfoil

A

a shaped surface that produces lift and drag when moved through the air

72
Q

why were early airfoil designs ditched

A

they were deeply cambered which caused issues
Clark Y airfoil- had a flat lower surface that is not optimal for aerodynamics

73
Q

why are transonic airfoils in a unique design

A

they need a very little trailing and leading edge and a wider middle

74
Q

Ground effect

A

when an aircraft flies less than one-half its wingspan above the ground - increases AOA without increasing drag

75
Q

Boundary Layer

A

the airflow nearest to the airfoil - turbulence here - increases drag and usually leads to airflow seperation if turbulent enough (stall) - higher AOA = more turbulent

76
Q

wing fences

A

on leading and top of wing - obstructs span wise airflow - prevents entire wing from stalling at once

77
Q

Vortex Generators

A

found on upper beginning camber - they pull high energy air down to the surface preventing airflow seperation

78
Q

Elliptical wing

A

best for wingtip vortices but horrible in stalls - most efficient subsonic - whole wing stalls at once - expensive and complicated to make and fix

79
Q

Rectangular wing

A

great for stalls
stall from root to tip
easy to control
cheap to produce and fix

80
Q

Tapered Wings

A

much more lift
bad stalls characteristics
stalls tip to root
more expensive to produce and fix

81
Q

sweepback wing planform

A

efficient at high speeds
can dutch roll
need yaw dampner for dutch roll
can fly closer to speed of sound
very unproductive at slow speeds

82
Q

Measurement Station Datum

A

nose to tail
can be anywhere
is designated by designer
(CG)

83
Q

Wing Stations

A

distance in inches from the centerline to wingtips
left or right from pilots perspective

84
Q

Butt Line

A

vertical distance in inches from centerlines of the fuselage
all distances up are positive and all distances down are negative

85
Q

Winglets

A

Located at the end of the wing
a vertical wing for the wing tips
purpose is to reduce drag

86
Q

Conventional Landing gear

A

tail wheel
light aircraft
hard to land
strong
poor taxi visibility
hard to land

87
Q

Tricycle landing Gear

A

has a nose wheel and then main landing gear
nose wheel easily broken
adds weight
adds drag
easy to land
good visibility while taxiing

88
Q

Control surface

A

a movable airfoil
any surface used to control the aircraft in flight

89
Q

Primary Flight Controls

A

elevator
rudder
ailerons

90
Q

Secondary flight controls

A

modify the effects of the primary flight controls or air flows

91
Q

Primary Controls

A

Aileron- roll- longitudinal axis- lateral stability
Elevator- pitch- lateral axis- longitudinal stability
Rudder- yaw- vertical axis- directional stability

92
Q

Ailerons- how they work

A

one up vs down
move in opposite direction of each other
connected by cables
aileron on the side you are turning up

93
Q

Slipping turn

A

slipping sideways towards the turn opposite way you want to go - need to add rudder

94
Q

skidding turn

A

skidding sideways from the turn too much in the way you want to go - need to take out some rudder

95
Q

adverse yaw

A

the aircraft may roll one way directionally but turn the opposite
we fix this with differential ailerons

96
Q

differential ailerons

A

the up aileron goes up more than the down aileron so there is no differential ailerons

97
Q

two major types of engines

A

reciprocating and turbo powered

98
Q

which are heat engines

A

reciprocating and turbo powered

99
Q

potential and kinetic energy

A

potential energy (energy stored) converts to kinetic energy (energy in motion) to make things happen

100
Q

positive G’s

A

acting in the same direction of weight
you will feel very heavy

101
Q

Negative G’s

A

acting in the opposite direction of weight
you will feel very light

102
Q

Static stability

A

what happens right after the aircraft is disrupted

103
Q

dynamic stability

A

what happens over time after the aircraft is disrupted

104
Q

Dihedral

A

the wings are angled up from root to tip
contributes to the stability in the roll axis and to the restoring of wings level

105
Q

Anhedral

A

the opposite of dihedral, angled down from root to tip. Helps with roll stability. Mainly used with low CG

106
Q

sweptback wings

A

increase yaw stability
produces less lift but also less drag

107
Q

what makes negative lift

A

the tail

108
Q

what is the best flap

A

slotted fowler

109
Q

what do leading edge devices do

A

help by increasing the AOA

110
Q

effective aspect ratio

A

gives the wings characteristics of a higher aspect ratio

111
Q

what makes a higher aspect ratio

A

longer wing with thinner width

112
Q

High wing configuration

A

better lift/drag ratio
shorter landing distance

113
Q

low Wing

A

easier to build
stronger landing gear
better roll manueverability
shorter take off distance

114
Q

Ground effect

A

more prominent on low wing because the closer to the ground the more pronounced

115
Q

Tee Tail

A

a high tee tail allows the flow of air over the rudder at high AOA
keeps horizontal stabilizer out of the main wing downwash

116
Q

Vee Tail

A

they are typically lighter and have a less wetted surface
hugely reduces drag
tail is called ruddervators

117
Q

for horizontal stabilizers what does the fuselage tend to block

A

the airflow to a normal single vertical stabilizer and rudder

118
Q

Interplane interference

A

airfoils flying in proximity reduce the differential in pressures in between the wings

119
Q

the gap is

A

the distance between the shord of the top wing and the chord of the bottom wing - needs to be one chord length to be effective

120
Q

Decalage

A

when one of the wings is set to a higher angle of incidence than the other wing

121
Q

Tandem Wing

A

both wings produce lift normaly to ‘tail’

122
Q

Canard wing

A

a 2nd wing that should not carry more than 25% of the total lift, more lift efficient, no tail pulling down all the time so no extra weight

123
Q

Flying wing

A

drag is reduced
stability is hard
split rudders are outer
elevons are inner
2 of each

124
Q

why is bernoulli’s principal no longer valid

A

because his principal takes into account that air is not compressable. when in supersonic speeds we need to undertand that it is.