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AT 106 > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Tandem Rotor Helicopters

A

aircraft with two main rotors and no tail rotor

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2
Q

on Tandem Rotor Helicopters the tandem rotors spin in the ______ direction

A

opposite

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3
Q

Tandem rotor eliminate the need for _____ and counteracts _______

A

a tail rotor
torque

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4
Q

on a tandem rotor the collective, cyclic, and anti-torque work the _____ as far as the pilot is concerned

A

same

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5
Q

Tandem Rotor collective stick

A

when using the collective all blades move up on both rotors. They all work together

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6
Q

Tandem Rotor cyclic stick

A

when using the cyclic stick the rotors also move together. the rotor disks will move together

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7
Q

Tandem Rotor yawing the helicopter

A

the pilot hits the foot pedals and the aircraft was. this happens by the rotors tilting in opposite directions. front disk and rotor will tilt in the direction that you want to turn.

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8
Q

Feathering

A

increasing and decreasing the pitch in the rotor blades

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9
Q

does the tip or the root of the rotor blade go faster

A

the tip.

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10
Q

three problems that come with flying helicopters

A

dissymmetry of lift and gyroscopic recession
coriolis effect
lead-lag movement caused massive vibration

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11
Q

dissymmetry of lift and gyroscopic precession fix

A

install flapping hinges

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12
Q

Coriolis effect fix

A

lead-lag hinges

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13
Q

lead-lag movement caused massive vibration fix

A

install lead-lag dampners

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14
Q

if you have flapping hinges and lead-lag hinges is called a

A

fully articulated rotor head

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15
Q

Flapping hinges

A

because the amount of lift was not the same on each side of the helicopter due to relative wind the rotors were allowed to move up and down and therefore could change how much lift is produced where.

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16
Q

Lead Lag hinges

A

allows the blade to move back and forth

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17
Q

Lead Lag dampners

A

the horizontal movement of rotor blades

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18
Q

Semi-Rigid Rotor

A

helicopter has lead-lag but no flapping hinge
works like a seesaw

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19
Q

Semi-Rigid Rotor limits the number of blades to

A

2, which limits the wing area of the aircraft

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20
Q

Rigid Rotors

A

no flapping and lead-lag but instead have flexible attach points

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21
Q

gyroscopic precession in helicopters

A

any force put into a spinning object takes effect 90 degrees later

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22
Q

Aluminum Alloys

A

commonly used all around the aircraft.
other elements added to pure aluminum
other elements make up 15%

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23
Q

AlClad Aluminum

A

cladding an aluminum alloy core with surface layers of pure aluminum

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24
Q

Grain in Sheetmetal

A

metal’s strength is related to its grain size
grains align themselves to the rolling process to become a sheet

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25
Q

Composite Materials

A

metal made with two or more materials
most non-critical structural material and aesthetic interiors are used with weak comosite

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26
Q

Material Safety and SDS

A

a requirement via OSHA for workplaces
documents for a chemical product

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27
Q

AC 43.13 1B

A

when there are no manufacturer repair or maintenance instructions only when they are not provided by the manufacturer

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28
Q

Sheetmetal

A

aluminum alloys and composites makeup
parts are joined with rivets or fasteners

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29
Q

the reliability of an aircraft depends on

A

quality of design

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30
Q

nuts, bolts, screws, and washers are different for aircraft. they are

A

rivets
safety wire
cotter pins

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31
Q

what is the wrench that we use

A

torque wrenches

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32
Q

specifications to which aircraft hardware adheres to including

A

National Aerospace Standard (NAS)
Army-Navy (AN)
Military standard (MS)

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33
Q

Solid shank rivets

A

preferred construction method for metal because they fill up the hole
good load transfer

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34
Q

yield strength is also known as

A

working load limit

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35
Q

yield strength

A

amount of stress a material can withstand without permanent deformation

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36
Q

tensile strength

A

maximum amount of axial stress that a material can take before breaking

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37
Q

information in the AC is

A

acceptable data
not approved data

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38
Q

Rivet Selection overall

A

size and type of rivet is determined by the loads imposed on the structure, the applications the parts will be in and the alloy of the material to be joined

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39
Q

who determines the rivet selection

A

determined by the manufacturer
will be found in the structural repair manual

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40
Q

drill bits are sized by

A

fractions, numbers and letters
we use numbered bits for installing rivets

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41
Q

we use ________ to size the drill bits

A

drill gages

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42
Q

Drill bits are sized by

A

fractions
numbers and letters
larger bits = smaller numbers

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43
Q

drill bits are selected based on the

A

rivet shank diameter

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44
Q

when drilling a hole it is drilled with the

A

hand drill held perpendicular to the work
apply medium pressure to prevent works

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45
Q

what is used to aid in drilling the hole in the work accurately

A

center punch

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46
Q

after the hole is drilled, the materail must be

A

deburred on both sides

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47
Q

countersinking

A

come in different angles
always use a simpler on sheet metal
do not countersink thin sheetmetal

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48
Q

de-burring

A

to remove the rough edges of a hole or sheet after it has been drilled out
use a larger drill bit or a de-burring tool to remove the rough material
removes stress risers that cause incorrect riveting and stress cracking

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49
Q

clecos are used to

A

hold sheet metal together in preperation for fasteners
different colors denote size of cleco

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50
Q

Riveting tools

A

different types of riveting sets and bucking bars for different applications

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51
Q

common types of rivit=eting tools

A

hand squeezers
pneumatic air gun
bucking bar
pneumatic squeezers

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52
Q

solid rivets

A

oldest/ most reliable
used anywhere on aircraft
consists of straight body and different heads (countersunk heads-flat and universal head are most popular)
made in aluminum alloys and specialty metals

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53
Q

solid rivet installation

A

by driving (squeezing) the body with pneumatic or hand tools

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54
Q

Bolts

A

threaded fastneers used to assemble components, structures and assemblies
threaded body and heads that get tightened with the tool specifically designed for them

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55
Q

bolts are often used in aircraft that are made with

A

stainless steel or cadmium plated

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56
Q

Bolts and threading

A

some bolts are threaded the entire length of the shank while others are partially threaded and have a grip
the grip should be equal to the 2 pieces of metal being held together

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57
Q

bolts are always _______ to a specific value

A

torqued (tightened)

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58
Q

bolts are identified by

A

marks on the head of the bolt
marks denote alloy type, strength, and applicaiton

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59
Q

bolt length is measured form the

A

bottom of the head to the end of the shank

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60
Q

bolts are sized in

A

general sizes, not specifics

61
Q

grip length is the ____ portion of the bolt

A

un-threaded

62
Q

threads are measured using a

A

TPI gage

63
Q

Nuts

A

used to secure bolts and screws in assemblies
made for shear and tension applications

64
Q

different types of nuts

A

high temp and low temp
steel and nylon lock types
cap nuts
wing nuts
castle nuts

65
Q

Aircraft Washers

A

spread the load of a fastener
protects metal from galling
used under the heads and nuts of bolts
sized by inside diameter and thickness
cannot be interchanged

66
Q

many different types of washers

A

flat
lock
rubber
crush

67
Q

Screws

A

typically used a screwdriver to tighten and loosen
diameter sized by numbers
length measured from under the head to the end of the threads

68
Q

different types of screw drivers

A

Phillips
slotted
Torx
triwing

69
Q

Torque

A

a measure of how much a force acting on an object causes that object to rotate
technician utilizes a torque wrench to apply the torque

70
Q

what are the 3 types of torque wrenches

A

click type
dial type
beam type

71
Q

bolts and fasteners are ______ according to size

A

torqued

72
Q

you will find toque values in

A

torque charts
(must know the correct size of the fastener and correct threads)

73
Q

torque is applied to the nut when

A

possible

74
Q

when torque is applied to a bolt,

A

friction torque must be considered

75
Q

torque can be applied ___ or ___ but you must know before starting

A

wet
dry

76
Q

Safety Wire

A

in stainless steel and brass
can be twisted by hand, with duckbill pliers or most often with safety wire pliers

77
Q

what are safety wires used on

A

nuts
bolts
oil filters
cannon plugs
anything that must not loosen during normal operations

78
Q

Cotter pins

A

used to secure bolts, screw, nuts and pins
made of cadmium plated carbon steel
sometimes made of stainless-steel

79
Q

Hi-Lok fasteners

A

simple two-part, structural fastener designed to achieve consistent torque on each fastener
breakoff in collar provides uniform preload torque values by breaking when the correct torque level is reached
improves the fatigue life of the airfram significantly when compared to other fasteneing systems

80
Q

different kinds of Hi-Lok fasteners

A

shear and tension
protruding and flush moun

81
Q

Blind fasteners

A

the original solid fastener was removed
blind- only need access to one side of the fastener

82
Q

Welding

A

the process that joins metals by melting the work pieces until they are united together

83
Q

welding processes evolved to use lighter metals like

A

aluminum
magnesium
titanium

84
Q

4 types of welding

A

gas or oxy/ act welding
TIG welding
MIG welding
electric arc welding

85
Q

Gas Welding

A

done by heating the ends or edges of metal parts to a molten state with high temp flame
5700-6300 F
done off of aircraft

86
Q

Gas Welding fusion process

A

heat is suppled by burning a mixture of oxygen and gas such as acetylene

87
Q

Gas Metal Arc Welding (MIG)

A

uses speel of wire as filler material for welding steel
uses a feed wire that constantly moves through the gun to create the spark, then melts to form the weld
shielding gas dispersed by gun shields weld from air to prevent oxidation

88
Q

Gas metal arc welding materials (MIG)

A

argon
helium
carbon dioxide

89
Q

Tungsten Inert Gas Welding (TIG)

A

weld produced by an electric arc
gas shileds the electrode to prevent contamination
electrode doesn’t touch the work
foot pedal starts the arc and the gas
uses long rods to fuse two metals directly together

90
Q

TIG welding welds ____ materials

A

aluminum
copper
stainless
magnesium
titanium

91
Q

Brazing

A

uses higher temps than soldering
over 842F
The filler metal is deposited in the joint other than capillary attraction

92
Q

brazing is useful for joining

A

copper
bronze
nickel
nonferrous metals
all to stainless steel

93
Q

Soldering

A

temps between 600-700F
relatively weak
must have flux

94
Q

three types of solder

A

lead alloy-tin/ lead-60/40
lead free- for soldering water pipes in homes
silver solder stronger than lead alloy-using in high pressure situations

95
Q

International Air transport association

A

supports aviation with global standards for airline safety, security, efficiency and sustainability

96
Q

international civil aviation organization

A

achieve the sustainable growth of the global civil aviation system

97
Q

air commerce act

A

aeronautics branch in the department of commerce assumed primary responsibility for aviation oversight

98
Q

what was the department of commerce renamed

A

the aeronautics brand the bureau of air commerce

99
Q

what was the first act of the bureau of air commerce

A

encourage a group of airlines to establish the first air traffic control centers to provide en-route air traffic control

100
Q

when is an aircraft issued a type certificate

A

when the design of an aircraft meets the FAA’s standards

101
Q

must the manufacturer of the aircraft, engine, or propeller display the type certificate for view ot the public at the manufacturer’s facility

A

yes the type certificate must always be displayed

102
Q

type certificate data sheet

A

TCDS
faa document that records the type certification data of a product

103
Q

what is the purpose of a type certificate data sheet

A

configuration control

104
Q

what has TCDS

A

aircraft
engines
propellors

105
Q

all TCDS must be _____ or if not they must be ________

A

recorded
explained why

106
Q

The TCDS must be submit it and then the FAA must agree for it to be

A

approved data

107
Q

what happens if we want to change the design of an aircraft, engine, or propeller

A

may apply for a supplimental type certificate or stc to modify the design
the FAA will look at it and decide if you can change it
after it is approved anyone can use that STC

108
Q

what are the two standard airworthiness classifications

A

standard- certificates issued for aircraft type certificated in the following categories
special

109
Q

what are some standard airworthiness certificates

A

normal
utility
acrobatic
commuter
transport category
manned free balloons

110
Q

what are some special airworthiness certificates

A

primary
restricted
limited
light-sport
provisional airworthiness certificates
special flight permits
experimental certificates

111
Q

Airworthiness certificate

A

must be displayed at all times so it is visible to passengers or crew
issued by the FAA when aircraft is built
good for the life of the aircraft as long as it is maintained

112
Q

Special Airworthiness Certificate

A

The FAA special airworthiness certificate is an FAA authorization to operate an aircraft in the US airspace in one or more of the following categories

113
Q

primary airworhtiness certificate

A

in un-powered or powered by a single, naturally aspirated engine

114
Q

restricted airworthiness certificate

A

a surplus aircraft of the armed forces or aircraft previously type certificated in another category then modified

115
Q

limited airworthiness certificate

A

to operate surplus military aircraft that have been converted to civilian

116
Q

light sport airworthiness certificate

A

an aircraft that: has not been previously issued an airworthiness certificate, is in a condition for safe operation, was built and tested to teh applicable consensus standards by the aircraft’s manufacturer

117
Q

Provisional airworthiness certificate

A

a provisional category special airworthiness certificate is issued to conduct special purpose operations

118
Q

Experimental airworthiness certificate

A

an aircraft that does not have a type certificate, is in a condition for safe operation, was assembled without the supervision and quality control of the manufacturer

119
Q

Technical standard order

A

first way parts are certified
faa approval of the design and manufacture of commonly interchangeable parts on an aircraft

120
Q

parts manufacturer approval

A

faa approcal of the manufacture only of non-commonly interchangeable parts on an aircraft

121
Q

certification of parts and products

A

Technical standard order
parts manufacture approval

122
Q

special flight permits

A

ferry permits
to get the aircraft to a repair or inspection station if damaged our out of inspection timeframe

123
Q

what do you need to do to get a special flight permit

A

tell the FAA in writing
purpose of flight
proposed itinerary- exact route and times
crew required
how the aircraft does not meet airworthiness standards
any restriction the applicant considers necessary for safe flight
any other info necessary for the administrator to know for the purpose of granting the special permit

124
Q

if we need to modify an individual aircraft, teh FAA must approve a

A

From 337 major alteration or repair form

125
Q

what is a form 337 major alteration or repair form

A

a request for engineering approval for the modification to an individual aircraft
FAA engineers will look it over and decide
there will be 2 copies, owners and FAA’s

126
Q

documents produced by or approved by the FAA

A

AD’s
advisory circulars
service bulletins
service letters
ATA codes
maintenance manuals
minimum equipment lists
operation specifications

127
Q

Airworthiness Directives

A

issued by the FAA and must be complied with
owner or operator is responsible for knowing and complying with airworthiness directives

128
Q

For AD what does a notice for proposed rule making

A

allows the public 60 days to comment after publication of intent by the FAA int eh federal register
after 60-days considering the publics comments the AD will be adopted, revised, or rejected

129
Q

AD immediatly adopted rule

A

30 day comment period after publication of intent by the FAA and let’s the public prepare for the change

130
Q

AD emergency airworthiness directive

A

immediately adopted and private owners notified via USPS and airlines via direct

131
Q

Advisory Circular

A

to provide guidance on how to conform to specific regulations
produced by FAA and compliance is voluntary
the number on the AC corresponds to teh 14 CFR regulation it is designed to help you comply with
can be found online through FAA

132
Q

service bulletin

A

issued by aircraft and comonent manufactures to inform the owners about potential problems with the aircraft
not required

133
Q

mandatory service bulletin

A

manufacturer insurance companies or the faa wnat to try to force the aircraft owner to comply

134
Q

how does a mandatory service bulletin happen

A

any authorized repair/ service center must perform MSB
many insurance companies require that all MSB be performed when aircraft are being flown for hire
for airlines, compliance with MSB is required by the airline OP SPEC
The FAA may refer to a MSB in an AD which are required

135
Q

Service Letter

A

sent by manufacturers as means of providing non-critical information or for clarifying maintenance manuals or pilot handbooks

136
Q

compliance with service letters and bulletins

A

compliance is not required
however ignoring the bulletins ignores warning of things that may fail

137
Q

manufacturer’s manuals

A

maintenance manuals are written by the manufacturer and approved by the FAA
compliance is required

138
Q

manufacturer’s manuals that are approved

A

aircraft maintenance manual (AMM)
overhaul manual
structural repair manual (SRM)
wiring diagrams

139
Q

manufacturer’s manual that are not approved

A

illustrated parts catalog
tool and equipment catalog

140
Q

what data supersedes any other source of information except airworthiness directives

A

Manufacturer’s data

141
Q

maintenance manuals for aircraft, engines, propellers, appliances, and other compnents are _____ for what may be done to an aircraft

A

the ultimate authority

142
Q

the approved _____ or ___________ is an approved document

A

flight manual- also a piece of aircraft equipment
pilot operation handbook

143
Q

operational specification

A

commercial arilines create their own OP SPEC
OP CPES contains rules for operation and maintenance where not specifically covered by Federal regulations
they must follow these rules

144
Q

MEL

A

the master minimum equipment list is developed by the aircraft manufacturer and approved by the FAA
tells what equipment or systems must be onboard the aircraft and functional

145
Q

ATA

A

air transport association
standardizes the order of maintenance manuals
that way everything is in the same order everywhere

146
Q

aircraft registration

A

does not prove ownership
purpose is to match up the aircraft serial numbner, with teh aircraft tail number, with the legal owner
lets FAA find you if they need to send you an AD or manufacturer in case they need to send you a service letters

147
Q

Registration is good forever unless

A

suspended or revoked by the FAA
the registration is cancelled at the request of the owner to the FAA
the aircraft is destroyed or scrapped
the owner loses US citizenship
the owner has been dead for 30 days
the aircraft is shipped outside the US to a foreign country
the aircraft is sold to a new owner

148
Q

Data plate

A

contains the serial number of the aircraft
considered to theoretically be the aircraft
if an airplane is scrapped unless the data plate is scrapped the aircraft theoretically still exists

149
Q

maintenance records

A

each owner is required to keep all maintenance records in the planes logbook

AT 106 (4 decks)

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