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BIO 202 > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

3 functions of the lymphatic system:

A

fluid recovery
immunity
lipid absorption

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2
Q

What percentage of tissue fluid is returned to the blood by way of lymphatic vessels?

A

85%

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3
Q

In the lymphatic system, where are white blood cells waiting to be activated located?

A

lymph nodes

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4
Q

What are lacteals?

A

lymphatic vessels in the small intestine that receive digested lipids

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5
Q

What type of biomolecule is absorbed directly into lacteals rather than cardiovascular system vessels?

A

lipids

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6
Q

What is lymph and why is it the color of milk?

A

recovered tissue fluid

contains a high concentration of fat

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7
Q

Where is the beginning of a lymph vessel located?

A

Lymphatic capillaries

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8
Q

Explain why lymph capillaries don’t collapse in the tissue.

A

anchoring filaments attach cells to surrounding tissues

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9
Q

Explain how tissue fluid enters lymph capillaries.

A

High tissue fluid pressure

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10
Q

What type of lymph vessels drain into the 11 lymphatic trunks?

A

collecting vessels

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11
Q

What type of lymph vessels drain into the 11 lymphatic trunks?

A

Collecting vessels

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12
Q

Which vein receives lymph drainage from the collecting ducts?

A

Subclavian veins

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13
Q

Using the names of the lymphatic trunks, list the major parts of the body drained of lymph by vessels emptying into the right lymphatic duct.

A

convergence of r jugular, r subclavian, & r bronchiomediastinal trunk

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14
Q

Using the names of the lymphatic trunks, list the major parts of the body drained of lymph by vessels emptying into the thoracic duct.

A

Two lumbar trunks & intestinal trunk → cisterna chyli

After diaphragm – l bronchiomediastinal, l subclavian and l jugular

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15
Q

Since there is no pump (like the heart) in the lymphatic system, explain how lymph can move from the tissue to the subclavian veins.

A 
fluid pressure
Valves – prevent backflow
Contraction of skeletal muscle
Arterial pulsation when large vessels are included in sheathes with arteries
Expansion of lungs
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16
Q

List the white blood cells that are phagocytic.

A

Neutrophils
Macrophages
Dendritic cells
Reticular cells

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17
Q

What is the main function of neutrophils?

A

Kill bacteria

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18
Q

List 2 main functions of T lymphocytes.

A

Regulate immune responses

Kill virally infected cells

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19
Q

What is the main function of mature and activated B lymphocytes?

A

Produce specific antibodies

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20
Q

What are the functions of macrophages?

A

Phagocytize specific bacteria

Antigen presenting cells to lymphocytes

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21
Q

How are dendritic cells similar to macrophages?

A

Phagocytic & antigen presenting

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22
Q

Where are dendritic cells located?

A

Connective tissue – mucous membranes & lymphatic membrane

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23
Q

How are reticular cells similar to macrophages?

A

Phagocytic & antigen presenting

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24
Q

Where are reticular cells located?

A

Stroma of lymphatic organs

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25
Q

What does MALT stand for and what type of lymphatic tissue is MALT?

A

mucosal-associated lymphatic tissue

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26
Q

Where is MALT located in the body?

A

connective tissue of the respiratory, digestive, urinary, & reproductive tracts

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27
Q

How is diffuse lymphatic tissue different from lymphatic nodules?

A

Diffuse – scattered out

Nodules – dense

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28
Q

Where are Peyer’s patches located and what type of lymphatic tissue are Peyer’s patches?

A

intestines

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29
Q

Which body structures are considered lymphatic organs?

A 
Red bone marrow
Thymus
Spleen
Tonsils 
Lymph nodes
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30
Q

What are the function of colony-stimulating factors?

A

induce stem cell differentiation

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31
Q

What is the name of the sheets extending from the fibrous capsule dividing the thymus into lobes?

A

trabeculae (septa)

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32
Q

How is the organization of cell types in the thymus important for ensuring that autoimmune diseases don’t occur?

A

T lymphocytes develop self-tolerance by interacting with epithelial cells

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33
Q

What immune system signaling molecules are released by cells in the thymus?

A 
thymosin
thymopoietin
thymulin
interleukins
interferon
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34
Q

About how many lymph nodes are there in the body?

A

450

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35
Q

Which type of lymph vessel brings lymph to a lymph node?

A

afferent

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36
Q

Which type of lymph vessel takes lymph away from a lymph node?

A

efferent

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37
Q

In a lymph node, what types of cells circulate in the subcapsular sinus?

A

macrophages & dendritic

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38
Q

What part of the lymph node is surrounded by the medulla?

A

cortex

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39
Q

In a lymph node, what occupies the germinal center?

A

lymphocytes

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40
Q

What is the location of pharyngeal tonsils, palatine tonsils, lingual tonsils?

A

Pharyngeal – medial & posterior to nasal cavity
Palatine – posterior margin of oral cavity
lingual – embedded in the root of the tongue

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41
Q

Describe the red pulp of the spleen.

A

sinuses filled with erythrocytes

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42
Q

Describe the white pulp of the spleen.

A

lymphocytes & macrophages organized around branches of the splenic artery

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43
Q

What are the 4 main functions of the spleen?

A

Removal of worn erythrocytes
Reservoir of monocytes (macrophages)
Reduce blood volume by transferring plasma to lymphatic vessels
Immune surveillance of blood

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44
Q

In general, what body structures are part of the body’s 1st line of defense?

A

External barrier

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45
Q

In general, what body structures, molecules, and processes are part of the body’s 2nd line of defense?

A 
leukocytes 
macrophages 
antimicrobial proteins
natural killer cells
fever
inflammation
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46
Q

In general, what part of the immune system makes up the body’s 3rd line of defense?

A

Adaptive immunity

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47
Q

What are the general characteristics of innate immunity?

A

Local
Non-specific
Non- lasting

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48
Q

What is dermicidin and where is it found?

A

Sweat

Skin

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49
Q

What are defensins and cathelicidins and which cell type produces them?

A

Peptides – keratinocytes & skin immune cells

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50
Q

What is the function of mucus?

A

Ensnare microorganism

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51
Q

What innate immune system enzyme is found in mucus, saliva, and tears?

A

lysozyme

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52
Q

How is hyaluronic acid antibacterial?

A

Difficult to penetrate

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53
Q

Which chemical released by basophils attracts neutrophils and eosinophils?

A

leukotrienes

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54
Q

Which chemical released by basophils causes vasodilation?

A

histamine

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55
Q

Which chemical released by basophils inhibits blood clotting?

A

heparin

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56
Q

Explain how cells of the macrophage system are able to bridge the innate and adaptive immune systems. Use MHC II and antigen presentation in your explanation.

A

Cells are phagocytic & present antigen on MHC II molecules to lymphocytes

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57
Q

Where are dendritic cells found? Microglia? Alveolar macrophages? Stellate macrophages?

A

Dendritic – skin
Microglia – CNS
Alveolar – lungs
Stellate – liver

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58
Q

Which type of infections result in the release of interferon from leukocytes?

A

Viral

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59
Q

What organ synthesizes the complement proteins in the plasma?

A

liver

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60
Q

Which complement proteins starts the alternative pathway of complement fixation?

A

C3

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61
Q

Explain the process of opsinization.

A

process of attracting macrophages to cells/pathogens

using antibody & complement

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62
Q

How do natural killer cells recognize bacterial and fungal organisms?

A

Bind with general associated patterns

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63
Q

What types of body cells are destroyed by natural killer cells?

A

Stressed body cells

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64
Q

Explain how natural killer cells destroy targeted cells. Use perforin and granzyme in your explanation.

A

Perforin – large opening in cell, cell fill with water and explodes
Granzymes – protein degrading cells

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65
Q

Is fever part of the innate immune system or the adaptive immune system?

A

innate

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66
Q

What is another term for fever?

A

pyrexia

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67
Q

What is the effect of pyrogens?

A

chemicals that result in fever

68
Q

Pieces of bacterial cell walls are not made by the body. What type of pyrogen is a piece of bacterial cell wall?

A

exogenous

69
Q

What type of pyrogen is Prostaglandin E2?

A

endogenous

70
Q

What is the effect of an anti-pyretic medication?

A

Inhibit the effect of endogenous pyrogens

71
Q

List 2 anti-pyretic medications.

A

Asprin & ibuprofen

72
Q

List 3 general purposes of inflammation.

A

limit spread of pathogens & destroy them
remove the debris of damaged tissue
initiate tissue repair

73
Q

What is the role of cytokines in inflammation?

A

signaling molecules released by cells to influence cells close by and/or secreting cell

74
Q

Which cytokines cause vasodilation?

A

Histamine

Leukotrienes

75
Q

Describe what happens when vascular permeability increases.

A

Vessels become leaky so plasma proteins can move into damaged/infected tissue

76
Q

What is the function of selectin?

A

Expression of adhesion molecules

77
Q

What cell type expresses selectin as part of the inflammatory response?

A

Endothelial cells

78
Q

What is margination?

A

occurs when leukocytes in the blood bind selectin

79
Q

What is diapedesis?

A

leukocytes move out of the vessel into the tissue

80
Q

Redness is a sign of inflammation. Why does redness occur?

A

Vasodilation

81
Q

An increase in tissue temperature is a sign of inflammation. Why does this occur?

A

Increased blood flow

82
Q

Swelling is a sign of inflammation. Why does swelling occur?

A

increased tissue protein → increased tissue colloid osmotic pressure → increased tissue fluid content

83
Q

Pain is a sign of inflammation. Why does pain occur?

A

injury to nerve receptors & stimulation from toxins & cytokines

84
Q

What signaling molecule ensures that immune cells are not trapped in blood clots?

A

heparin

85
Q

What innate immune cells are attracted to the site of inflammation by chemotactic factors?

A

leukocytes

86
Q

Which cells arrive at the site of inflammation first, neutrophils or macrophages?

A

neutrophils

87
Q

What is the function of colony-stimulating factor?

A

increases leukocyte production in the bone marrow

88
Q

What are the 3 general characteristics of adaptive immunity?

A

Effects are systemic (body wide)
Exhibits specificity: only one antigen
Produces lasting memory of the antigen

89
Q

What is the difference between cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity?

A

Cell – individual lymphocytes directly contact & release substances to destroy targeted cells
Humoral – antibodies produced to specifically target exposed antigens

90
Q

Which type of infections are addressed best by cell-mediated immunity?

A 
cancer cells 
virally infected cells
parasitic worms
intracellular bacteria
protozoa
fungi
91
Q

Which type of infections are addressed best by humoral immunity?

A

Extracellular insults

92
Q

What types of adaptive immune cells are activated during a natural immune response?

A

lymphocytes

93
Q

What is an artificial immune response?

A

vaccines

94
Q

Give examples of natural passive immunity.

A

Breastmilk antibodies to infant

95
Q

Give examples of artificial passive immunity.

A

Commercial products

96
Q

What is the difference between an antigen and an epitope?

A

Antigen – small, non-self

Epitopes – smaller regions on an antigen in response to specific immune response

97
Q

What are haptens?

A

Small & not antigenic alone

98
Q

Give examples of haptens that can result in an adaptive immune response.

A

Poison ivy & detergent

99
Q

What type of globulin are antibodies?

A

Immunoglobulins (IgG)

100
Q

What is the relationship between a B cell receptor and an antibody?

A

B cell binds to one antibody

101
Q

Which antibody isotype is the most abundant in the plasma?

A

IgG

102
Q

What antibody isotype is important in the initial activation of a B cell?

A

IgD

103
Q

What antibody isotype binds to mast cell receptors?

A

IgE

104
Q

What happens when an allergic antigen binds to the variable region of IgE bound to mast cell receptors?

A

Degranulation and cause local inflammation

105
Q

Where are IgA antibodies found protecting the body?

A

Mucous covering tissues

106
Q

Which antibody is the first isotype to be produced by an activated B cell?

A

IgM

107
Q

Which 2 antibody isotypes are the most important for complement fixation?

A

IgG & IgM

108
Q

Describe the process of somatic hypermutation.

A

occurs to create random areas of completely new DNA sequence

109
Q

What structures of the adaptive immune system undergo somatic hypermutation?

A

germinal centers

110
Q

What is the difference between positive and negative lymphocyte selection?

A

positive – selected for the ability to mount an immune response
negative – selected for self-tolerance

111
Q

Where does positive and negative selection occur for T lymphocytes?

A

thymus

112
Q

Where does positive and negative selection occur for B lymphocytes?

A

Bone marrow

113
Q

What is the cell surface marker used to identify cytotoxic T lymphocytes?

A

CD8+

114
Q

What is the cell surface marker used to identify helper T lymphocytes?

A

CD4+

115
Q

Where are mature B lymphocytes and mature T lymphocytes found in the body?

A

Lymph system

116
Q

MHC II loaded with antigen will stimulate which type of T lymphocyte?

A

helper T cells

117
Q

How does a Helper T lymphocyte communicate with a B lymphocyte?

A

Release cytokines

118
Q

How do body cells normally use MHC I?

A

incorporated on the surface of a cell’s membrane

119
Q

How does the function of MHC I change after a cell is infected with a virus?

A

bind to non-self viral epitopes on MHC I molecules & destroy the infected cells

120
Q

What is the relationship between MHC I, a viral infection, and Cytotoxic T lymphocytes?

A

virus binds to MHC I then cytotoxic T cells bind to virus

121
Q

Explain the role of perforin, granzymes, interferon, and tumor necrosis factor in the function of Cytotoxic T lymphocytes.

A

Perforin – opens membrane hole
granzymes – destructive enzymes
interferon – anti-viral cytokine
tumor necrosis factor – increase macrophage activity

122
Q

What is the relationship between the clonal expansion of B lymphocytes and lymphadenopathy?

A

Increased B cells cause lymph nodes to swell

123
Q

When does a primary immune response occur?

A

First exposure

124
Q

What antibody isotype is produced during the primary immune response?

A

IgM

125
Q

How can a secondary immune response happen more quickly than a primary immune response?

A

Antibodies already present

126
Q

Which antibody isotype to IgM producing plasma cells switch to during the primary immune response?

A

IgG

127
Q

What is the basis of a Type I hypersensitivity response?

A

Mast cells & basophils will bind the stalk of the IgE

128
Q

What is anaphylaxis?

A

strong inflammatory response to large scale mast cell degranulation

129
Q

What is the basis of a Type II hypersensitivity response?

A

Antigen binding portions of IgG or IgM bind directly to body tissue

130
Q

What is the basis of a Type III hypersensitivity response?

A

IgG or IgM binds to soluble antigen forming large complexes

131
Q

What is the basis of a Type IV hypersensitivity response?

A

Cytotoxic T cells attack tissue bound to haptens

132
Q

Which cell type is infected and destroyed by HIV infection?

A

CD4+ helper T cells

133
Q

kidneys are responsible for what 4 regulatory processes?

A

blood volume and pressure
osmolarity
electrolyte & acid-base balance

134
Q

Kidneys are responsible for excretion of:

A

exogenous & endogenous wastes

135
Q

In starvation, kidneys do:

A

gluconeogenesis

136
Q

Nirtogenous wastes are nitrogen containing compounds that are considered what type of waste?

A

endogenous

137
Q

Urea is a byproduct of what process?

A

protein metabolism

138
Q

What organ converts ammonia to the less toxic form called urea?

A

liver

139
Q

4 types of nitrogenous wastes:

A

ammonia
urea
uric acid
creatine

140
Q

BUN stands for:

A

blood urea nitrogen

141
Q

azotemia:

A

elevated BUN

142
Q

urmeia:

A

consequence of kidney failure

-wastes not removed

143
Q

4 organ systems involved in excretion of wastes from body fluids:

A

respiratory
integumentary
digestive
urinary

144
Q

What pushes the right kidney lower than the left?

A

the liver

145
Q

What 3 layers of connective tissue are surrounding the kidney?
(deep to superficial)

A

renal fascia
peritrenal fat capsule
fibrous capsule

146
Q

To which structure is the fibrous capsule of the kidney anchored to?

A

hilum

147
Q

The term for the glandular tissue that forms urine:

A

renal parenchyma

148
Q

the urine collecting cavity occupied by blood, lymphatic vessels, & nerves:

A

renal sinus

149
Q

2 zones of the renal sinus:

A

cortex & medulla

150
Q

What structures divide the renal medulla?

A

renal pyramids

151
Q

area of the renal pyramid facing the renal sinus:

A

renal papilla

152
Q

Describe the difference between the minor and major calyces:

A

minor - surrounding renal papilla

major - draining minor calyx, collect urine

153
Q

Major calyces join to form the:

A

renal pelvis

154
Q

Urine moves from the renal pelvis to the:

A

ureter

155
Q

Kidneys recieve ___% of cardiac output

A

21

156
Q

main arterial supply to kidney:

A

renal artery

157
Q

renal artery branches into:

A

segmental arteries

158
Q

segmental arteries branch into:

A

interlobar arteries

159
Q

interlobar arteries branch into:

A

arcuate arteries

160
Q

arcuate arteries give rise to:

A

cortical radiate arteries

161
Q

cortical radiate arteries give rise to:

A

afferent arterioles

162
Q

describe the difference between afferent & efferent arterioles:

A

afferent - enter glomerulus

efferent - exit glomerulus

163
Q

the capillaries wrapping the nephron are called:

A

peritublular capillaries

164
Q

after leaving the peritubular capillaries, blood travels through which veins the reach the renal vein?

A

cortical radiate veins
arcuate veins
interlobar veins
renal veins

165
Q

Term to describe blood flow to the renal medulla:

A

vasa recta

166
Q

Structure within the kidney the forms urine:

A

nephron

BIO 202 (4 decks)

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