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Pathology II > Exam 3 - urinary and reproductive > Flashcards

Exam 3 - urinary and reproductive Flashcards

1
Q

Inflammation fo kidney

A

Nephritis

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2
Q

Inflammatory renal disease the arises in glomerulus

A

Glomerulonephritis

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3
Q

Inflammation of renal pelvis and kidney, most common in ascending urinary tract infections

A

Pyelonephritis

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4
Q

“Disease of kidney” refers to degenerative conditions of renal tubules

A

Nephrosis

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5
Q

An elevation in blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine related largely to reduced glomerular filtration rates (GFR).

A

Azotemia

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6
Q

Causes of azotemia

A

Glomerular disease, urinary obstruction or decreased renal perfusion

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7
Q

a clinical syndrome complex of renal failure

A

Uremia

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8
Q

Virtually complete reduction of urinary output; (<50ml urine/day)

A

Anuria

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9
Q

partial reduction of urinary output; <400ml urine/day

A

Oliguria

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10
Q

Blood in the urine “smoky” or “dusky” color

A

Hematuria

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11
Q

What is it called when you see packed “red cell casts” in urinary sediment?

A

Hematuria

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12
Q

Which one of these is associated with red cell casts in urinary sediment?

Azotemia
Uremia
Hematuria
Nephritis
Nephrosis
A

Hematuria

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13
Q

What is a symptom complex associated with ACUTE glomerular injury (glomerulonephritis, etc)

A

Nephritic syndrome

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14
Q

What is the symptom complex that makes up nephritic syndrome?

A

a) Hematuria (with red cell casts)
b) Azotemia and oliguria
c) Some degree of hypertension is common, etc.

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15
Q

In what case does the renal glomerulus become more permeable to plasma proteins

A

Nephrotic syndrome

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16
Q

What are features of Nephrotic syndrome

A

Renal glomerulus becomes more permeable to plasma proteins.

  • Proteinuria > 3.5gm/day
  • Hypoalbuminemia <3gm/dl
  • Generalized edema
  • Hyperlipidemia and lipiduria
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17
Q

Rapidly progressive oliguria or anuria of sudden onset

A

Acute renal failure

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18
Q

Causes of acute renal failure

A
  • severe pyelonephritis (inflammation of renal pelvis and kidney)
  • acute tubular necrosis
  • urinary obstruction
  • renal artery thrombosis
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19
Q

“End stage” of chronic renal disease and a common cause for morbidity and mortality

A

Chronic renal failure

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20
Q

Progressive stages of reduced functional activity in Chronic renal failure includes

A
  • Progressive diminished renal reserve
  • Renal insufficiency
  • Azotemia
  • Total renal failure
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21
Q

Most common causes of Chronic renal failure include

A
  • Chronic glomerulonephritis

- Chronic pyelonephritis

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22
Q

Manifestations of Chronic renal failure

A
  • early stages symptoms are vague

- long term effects: HTN, polyuria, anemia, bone loss

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23
Q

Inflammation of glomerulus

A

Glomerulonephritis (GN)

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24
Q

Goodpasture’s syndrome is associated with what condition

A

Glomerulonephritis

Goodpasture’s syndrome is associated with auto-reactive antibodies directed against glomerular basement membranes

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25
Q

Name the (5) types of glomerulonephritis (GN) and the prognosis or significant feature

A
  • post streptococcal GN, “acute” | good in children & fair in adults
  • rapidly progressive GN | poor prognosis
  • membranous GN | thickened glomerular basement membrane, nephrotic syndrome
  • lipoid nephrosis “minimal change” | good in children, less good in adults
  • chronic GN | end stage, leads to chronic renal failure
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26
Q

Infection of kidney (renal pelvis and parenchyma)

A

Pyelonephritis

Acute and chronic patterns are differentiated by clinical course, symptoms and prognosis.

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27
Q

Acute pyelonephritis vs chronic pyelonephritis

A

Acute: sudden onset of fever, malaise, pain in costal-vertebral region
Chronic: major cause of chronic renal failure, affected kidneys become strophic and deformed by scarring

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28
Q

Pyelonephritis

A

Kidney infection

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29
Q

What are two malformations of the kidney?

A 
Horseshoe kidney
Ectopic kidney (lies inferior to normal position)
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30
Q

What happens during development in congenital polycystic diseases?

A

Cystic structures appear and contribute to obstruction. Multiple cysts appear and may resemble tumors

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31
Q

What are “simple” or acquired cysts?

A

In the process of aging, people may end up with single or multiple cysts that may look like tumors.

Contributing conditions include scaring, abscesses, or infarcts.

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32
Q

What contributes to hydronephrosis?

A

Total obstruction of urinary tract

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33
Q

hydronephrosis

A

Dilation of renal pelvis and calyces with pressure atrophy of parenchyma

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34
Q

What causes obstruction of the ureters?

A

Kidney stones
Scars and strictures
Tumors and hyperplastic lesions
Pregnancy

35
Q

What is a calculi / urolithiasis

A

Kidney stone

36
Q

4 types of calculi. What is the most common composition? Which one is most commonly associated with gout?

A
  • Calcium oxalate ** in US
  • Urates **50% are associated with gout
  • Triple
  • Cystine

Usually urolithiasis are mixed

37
Q

Causes of urolithiasis?

A

Altered urinary pH
Dehydration
Hypercalcemia and hypercalcuria

38
Q

What causes renal vascular disease?

A

HTN

Nephrosclerosis (due to HTN)

39
Q

What is the most common renal cancer in adults?

A

Renal cell carcinoma (hypernephroma)

40
Q

Triad features typical with renal cell carcinoma?

A

Hematuria
Costovertebral pain
Palpable mass

41
Q

What is the embryonic “mixed” malignant renal tumor of children?

A

Wilm’s tumor - nephroblastoma

42
Q

What is nephroblastoma and hypernephroma?

A

Nephroblastoma is associated with “mixed” tumor cancer in children
Hypernephroma is renal cell carcinoma, the most common renal center in adults

43
Q

What systemic diseases do renal diseases affect the most?

A

Diabetes

Systemic lupus erythematosus

44
Q

How does renal disease affect Diabetes?

A

Renal failure is 2nd to MI as cause of death.

Vascular problems, glomeruli sclerosis, pyelonephritis is more common

45
Q

What nodular sclerosis lesions of the glomeruli do you see in diabetics with renal problems?

A

Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions

46
Q

How does renal disease affect SLE?

A

Deposition of DNA-anti-DNA immune complexes within glomeruli

Glomerulonephritis is common

47
Q

What kind of reproductive cancer is most common in young males and cause about 10% of cancer-associated deaths?

A

Testicular cancer

15-34 years old

48
Q

What is varicocele

A

Enlarged pampiniform plexus

*swelling, pain, infertility

49
Q

What is hematocele

A

Blood in tunica vaginalis

*uncommon, likely caused by trauma, neoplasm, torsion of spermatic cord

50
Q

What is hyrocele

A

Fluid in tunica vaginalis

Contributing causes: infection, neoplasm, incomplete closure of canals

51
Q

What is chylocele

A

Accumulation of lymph in tunica vaginalis associated with lymph obstruction

52
Q

What kind of disease contributes to enlargement and increased incidence for urinary obstruction in males?

A

Prostate diseases

53
Q

What is more common: acute or chronic bacterial prostatitis?

A

Chronic bacterial prostatitis

54
Q

What is the most common form of prostatitis reported by clinicians?

A

Chronic abacterial prostatitis (idiopathic)

55
Q

What is nodular hyperplasia?

A

Benign prostatic hypertrophy “BPH”

*hyperplasia is increased # of cells, not increased cell size

56
Q

What region of the prostate is most affected?

A

Central / median

57
Q

Where does prostate carcinoma typically arise?

A

Posterior location: outer subcapsular zone

58
Q

Where does prostate cancer metastasize?

A

Skeleton — osteoplastic lesions are nearly diagnostic for prostate cancer

59
Q

Inflammatory reactions (cervicitis) contribute to scarring and obstruction of cervical glands which give rise to what kind of cyst?

A

Nabothian cysts

60
Q

What are some risk factors that may cause tumors of the cervix?

A

HPV is the major cause for squamous cell carcinoma
Multiple sex partners
Cervical dysplasia can cause “frank” invasive carcinoma

61
Q

Where does frank/invasive carcinoma spread?

A

Regional lymph and adjacent organs

62
Q

What is endometriosis?

A

Mass of endometrial tissue that appears outside the body of the uterus

63
Q

What is adenomyosis

A

Endometrial glands extend deep into myometrium

64
Q

What is a common problem of the endometrium that specifically affects multiparous (more than 1 child)

A

adenomyosis

65
Q

What is endometritis? Contributing causes?

A

Inflammation of endometrium

  • chronic pelvic inflammatory disease
  • retained placental fragments
  • IUD
  • TB
  • idiopathic
66
Q

What is a myometrium fibroid called?

A

Leiomyoma

67
Q

What are cysts of the ovaries that are less than 6 cm in diameter?

A

Non-neoplastic or “physiologic” cysts

68
Q

What are 3 types of Non-neoplastic or “physiologic” cysts of the ovaries?

A

Follicular - follicles that fail to rupture or seal up after ovulation
Luteal - focal masses of hyperplastic corpus luteum
Polycystic ovary - anovulatory

69
Q

Polycystic ovary is also what syndrome

A

Stein-Leventhal syndrome

70
Q

4 kinds/origin of tumors in the ovaries

A

Surface epithelium
Germ cell origin
Ovarian stroma and “sex-cord” tumors
Kruckenberg tumor

71
Q

What is the most common tumor of the ovaries?

A

Surface epithelium

72
Q

In the ovaries, what type of tumor is associated with teratomas?

A

Germ cell origin

73
Q

Kruckenberg tumor in the ovaries is characterized by mucus secreting adenocarcinoma cells that come chiefly from what origin?

A

Stomach

Seen in 10% women with gastric cancer

74
Q

What is infection of uterine tube with risk for mucosal adhesions and scars that contribute to infertility and increased incidence of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Salpingitis

75
Q

What is an abscess of uterine tube?

A

Pyosalpinx

76
Q

What is watery fluid, usually occurs when fallopian tubal lumen has been obstructed by inflammation in women

A

Hydrosalpinx

77
Q

What is hemorrhage of ovarian/Fallopian tubes called

A

Hematosalpinx

78
Q

90% of ectopic pregnancies are _____

A

Tubal

79
Q

What is pre-eclampsia (characterized by 3 things)

A

HTN
Albuminuria
Edema
24th week of gestation or later

80
Q

What is eclampsia

A

Endstage pre-eclampsia. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) with risk for organ infarcts, convulsions, coma

fatal if left untreated

81
Q

What is a disorder of pregnancy where there is torphoblast but no fetus/fetal heart sounds

A

Hydatidiform mole
Mole = “shapeless mass”

Basically, its a non-cancerous tumor that forms after a non-viable implantation.

82
Q

What is choriocarcinoma

A

Fast growing cancerous mass that forms from (50% of cases) complete hydatidiform mole

83
Q

What is hydrops fetalis

A

Sever fetal edema, congestive heart failure, hepatosplenomegaly, etc. Fetal edema because of decreased synthesis of plasma proteins.

E.g. Rh factor incompatibility

Pathology II (7 decks)

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