Exam 3 Topic 8 Flashcards

1
Q

American Cancer Society guidelines state that for people of average risk, beginning at the age of 50, what tests are recommended?

A

an annual fecal accult blood test is recommended. Flexible sigmoidoscopy and colonoscopy are recommended every 5 years in this population. A computed tomography (CT) colonoscopy is used every 5 years if recommended by the health care provider.

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2
Q

A wheal is an?

A

irregularly shaped, elevated area or superficial localized edema. A wheal varies in size (e.g hive

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3
Q

A 1-cm firm, solid mass describes a?

A

Nodule

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4
Q

A flat, brown area measuring 0.5 cm is a?

A

Macule

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5
Q

A pus-filled circumscribed elevation of the skin is a?

A

Pustule

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6
Q

CPOE allows the provider to?

A

enter the order directly, thus eliminating the need to transcribe orders

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7
Q

While reviewing the pulmonary assessment entered by a nurse in a patient’s electronic medical record (EMR), a physician notices that the only information documented in that section is “WDL” (within defined limits). The physician also is not able to find a narrative description of the patient’s respiratory status in the nurse’s progress notes. What is the most likely reason for this?
The nurse caring for the patient forgot to document on the pulmonary system. Incorrect
The EMR uses a charting-by-exception format. Correct
The computer shut down unexpectedly when the nurse was documenting the assessment.

A

The EMR uses a charting-by-exception format.

Because of HIPAA regulations, physicians are not authorized to view the nursing assessment.
Given that the initial assessment indicated that the pulmonary system was within normal limits, the facility is most likely documenting by exception. There is no need for further documentation unless the pulmonary assessment changes and is no longer within normal limits.

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8
Q

A flow sheet is utilized when?

A

repeated observations are to be recorded in a quick and accurate manner. The information from a flow sheet is retrieved quickly, too. An admission sheet is used to record the detailed initial assessment at the time of admission. An operative report records the summary of the patient’s surgery, complications, and preoperative and postoperative diagnoses. The physician’s order sheet contains the information of the physician’s orders for treatment and medications with date, time, and signature.

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9
Q

A clinical decision support system is based on?

A

rules that are triggered by data entry. When certain rules are not met, alerts, warnings, or other information may be provided to the user.

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10
Q

The exchange of information amongst the healthcare team members is done through?

A

written reports and oral communication. Pictures of patients are not used in routine communication, but they may be used by specialists like dermatologists and plastic surgeons. The patient’s health information is not exchanged through a thesis or electronic cards.

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11
Q

The patient’s admission sheet contains?

A

The patient’s demographic data such as name, address, contact numbers, age, date of birth, insurance, employment, and information about the guardian. The nurse accesses this to obtain the contact number of the patient’s guardian. The discharge summary is the summary of the patient’s hospital stay, condition, and treatment plan at the time of discharge. The nurse’s admission assessment consists of the patient’s health-related information. It contains the patient’s history and notes from the physical examination conducted by the nurse when the patient was admitted. The nurse’s notes record the nursing process throughout the course of treatment.

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12
Q

Coarse crackles are?

A

loud, bubbly sounds heard during inspiration that are not cleared with coughing. This is because of random, sudden reinflation of groups of alveoli and the disruption of the passage of air through the small airways. Crackles are most common in the dependent lobes such as the right and left lung bases.

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13
Q

An irregularly shaped, elevated area or superficial localized edema. varies in size (e.g., hive, mosquito bite).

A

A wheal

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14
Q

A 1-cm firm, solid mass describes a?

A

nodule.

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15
Q

A flat, brown area measuring 0.5 cm is a?

A

A macule.

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16
Q

A pus-filled circumscribed elevation of the skin is a?

A

pustule.

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17
Q

The CAGE acronym is useful in guiding assessment related to addiction or substance abuse.

A

C stands for Cut down, A stands for Annoyed, G stands for Guilty, and E stands for Eye-opener. The questions that the nurse needs to ask the patient include whether the patient feels guilty about the habit, whether the patient is annoyed by people who criticize, and whether the patient has tried to cut down drinking. A positive response for two or more questions indicates substance abuse. Questions on crimes and delusion are not included in the CAGE questionnaire.

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18
Q

A sweet and fruity odor to the patient’s breath may indicate?

A

diabetic acidosis, which occurs when ketones are formed when the blood sugar levels are very low.

19
Q

Gum disease may result in?

A

bad breath (halitosis).

20
Q

A fetid, sweet odor of mucus secretions rather than the breath indicates?

A

infection of the bronchial tree.

21
Q

Turgor, position, and consistency can be measured by?

A

lightly grasping the body part with the fingertips.

22
Q

Crepitus can be assessed by?

A

using the palmar surface of the hand and finger pads.

23
Q

Body temperature can be assessed by?

A

using the dorsal surface of the hand.

24
Q

Androgen hormone stimulation results?
Poor nutrition can result in?
Aging may lead to?
Menopause may lead to?

A

Androgen hormone stimulation results in oily hair.
Poor nutrition can result in dull hair.
Aging may lead to dry and brittle hair.
Menopause may lead to thinning hair.

25
Q

physical finding of anemia

A

Pallor of the face, conjunctivae, nail beds, and palms of the hands

26
Q

Vitiligo is evident in?

A

patchy discoloration of the skin over a patient’s face and arms.

27
Q

Jaundice manifests as?

A

yellow discoloration of the skin, sclera, and mucous membranes.

28
Q

Shock also results in?

A

pallor, but it is typically of the skin, nail beds, conjunctivae, and lips.

29
Q

Red and dry skin indicates?

A

phencyclidine abuse.

30
Q

Diaphoresis indicates?

A

sedative hypnotic abuse.

31
Q

Needle marks on the skin indicate?

A

opioid substance abuse.

32
Q

Spider angiomas indicate?

A

alcohol abuse.

33
Q

Presbycusis refers to?

A

progressive loss of hearing that occurs with age.

34
Q

Delirium is a?

A

cognitive impairment resulting in a confused state in the patient.

35
Q

Dementia is an?

A

impairment of intellectual functioning that interferes with social and occupational functioning.

36
Q

Presbyopia is a?

A

progressive decline of the vision.

37
Q

Psychomotor disorientation or agitation is commonly seen in patients with?

A

depression.

38
Q

Apraxia is a clinical feature associated with?

A

dementia but not depression

39
Q

Patients with delirium have increased?

A

alertness (hypervigilance). However, the alertness in patients with depression is usually normal.

40
Q

Impaired orientation is associated with?

A

delirium and patients with depression may have selective disorientation.

41
Q

The normal cardiac output is in the range of ?

A

4 to 8 L/min.

42
Q

The blood vessels are thickened due to aging which lower the cardiac output. Aging lowers cardiac output because of?

A

Thickening of arteries

43
Q

normal range of stomach pH

A

1.5 to 3.5

44
Q

associations with cognitive impairment

A

Poor judgment, loss of language skills, and loss of the ability to calculate are associated with cognitive impairment. This may develop due a change in neurotransmitters in the brain and the symptoms may not be related to the normal aging process. Getting confused and experiencing forgetfulness may be associated with normal aging changes.