Exam 3 Saunders Immune Flashcards

1
Q

immunity received passively from the mother’s antibodies, animal serum, or antibodies produced in response to disease.

A

acquired immunity-immunizations produce active acquired immunity

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2
Q

an abnormal, individual response to certain substances that normally do not trigger such an exaggerated reaction

A

allergy

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3
Q

a delayed response against slowly developing bacterial infections

A

cellular response or delayed hypersensitivity

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4
Q

an immediate response that provides protection against acute, rapidly developing bacterial and viral infections

A

humoral response

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5
Q

the absence of inadequate production of immune bodies

A

immunodeficieny

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6
Q

immunity present at birth, and is the first-line defence against pathogens

A

innate or natural immunity

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7
Q

skin lesions that occur in individuals with a compromised immune system

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

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8
Q

an infection acquired from a tick bite.

A

Lyme disease

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9
Q

this type of response is active against slowly developing bacterial infections and is involved in autoimmune responses, some allergic reactions, and rejection of foreign cells

A

cellular response, aka delayed hypersensitivity

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10
Q

includes biochemical, physical, and mechanical barriers of defense as well as the inflammatory response

A

innate or natural immunity

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11
Q

a blood test used for the differential diagnosis of rheumatic diseases and for the detection of anti-nucleoprotein factors and patterns associated with certain autoimmune diseases

A

ANA titer, positive titer of 1:20 or 1:40 depending on the lab
**a positive result does not necessarily confirm a disease
typically positive in SLE, scleroderma, and RA

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12
Q

Skin testing nursing considerations

A

DC systemic corticosteriods or anti histamines 5 days before skin test
look at skin after 30 mins for results
HAVE RESUSCITATION EQUIPMENT AVAILABLE IF SKIN TESTING IS PERFORMED BC THE ALLERGEN MAY INDUCE AN ANAPHYLACTIC RXN

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13
Q

type 1 hypersensitivity

A

IgE: histamine and leukotriene release

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14
Q

type II hypersensitivity (Cytotoxic)

A

IgG, IgM, complement

ABO Incompatibility, drug-induced hemolytic anemia

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15
Q

Type III hypersensitivity: Immune Complex

A
Antigen-antibody complexes
arthus reaction
serum sickness
sle
acute glomerulonephritis
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16
Q

Type IV: cell mediated, delayed hypersensitivity

A

sensitized T cells by Lymphokine release
TB
Contact dermatitis
transplant rejection

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17
Q

Nursing actions in Anaphylaxis

A
airway
HCP or rapid response team
administer oxygen
start IV line and infuse NS
benedryl and EPI
document
Raise HOB if BP is normal, raise LE if BP is low
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18
Q

SLE

A

autoimmune disease that can cause all major organs and systems to fail.

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19
Q

How do you confirm Kaposi’s sarcoma

A

Positive punch biopsy on cutaneous lesions

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20
Q

A hospitalized patient taking Rocephin develops diarrhea. What do you do?

A

Rocephin may cause pseudomembranous colitis, call HCP. somes contact precautions are necessary for antibiotic assoc diarrhea

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21
Q

Pentamidine for Pneumocystis jiroveci

A

fever may indicate another infection caused by leukopenic effects of the medication (leukopenia, thromobocytpenia, and anemia)

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22
Q

Name a med toxic to pancreas

A

Didanosine (Videx), Stavudine (peripheral neuropathy too)

23
Q
ototoxicity
confusion, disorientation
renal toxicity
GI irritation
palpitations, BP changes
hypersensitivity rxns
A

aminoglycosides:

amikin, gentamicin

24
Q

GI disturbances, pseudomembranous colitis, HA, dizziness, lethargy, paresthesias, Nephrotoxicity, superinfections

A

Cephalosporins

Omnicef, Ancef, Rocephin

25
HA, dizzines, insomnia, depression GI effects Bone marrow depression fever, rash, photosensitivity
Fluoroquinolones | Cipro
26
GI effects hepatotoxicity nephrotoxicity Bone marrow depression derm effects: photosensitivity and hypersensitivity HA, dizziness, vertigo, ataxia, depression, seizures
sulfa
27
ganciclovir
monitor for hypoglycemia and implement bleeding precautions due to neutropenia and thrombocytopenia
28
fever, hypertension, and graft tenderness
acute graft rejection
29
Zidovudine
monitor CBC for agranulocytopenia and anemia
30
Lyme Disease
Stage I rash (oral antibiotic therapy) Stage II cardiac conduction deficits, bells palsy and paralysis (IV penecillin G) Stage III arthralgias and joint enlargement
31
A blood test is available to detect ________, however, it is not a reliable test if performed before 4-6 weeks after the tick bite. Antibody formation takes place in the following manner: IgM is detected 3-4 weeks after disease onset, peaks at 6-8 weeks, then gradually disappears. IgG is detected 2-3 months after infection and may remain elevated for years
Lyme disease
32
A client tests positive for the ELISA test. Now what?
western blot test-if that is positive, then HIV +
33
first sign of PO. jiroveci
cough (nonproductive-productive) | later signs = fever, dyspnea on exertion, and dyspnea at rest
34
what do B cells do?
make antibodies
35
three phases of specific immune response
recognition phase, activation phase, and effector phase
36
what do basophils do?
hypersensitivity rxns
37
What do eosinophils do?
attack parasites
38
what do neutrophils do?
attack bacteria
39
what do dendritic cells do?
perform the same antigen-presenting task as macrophages
40
what does interferon do?
interferon is produced by several types of cells and is effective against a wide variety of viruses. It works on the host cells to induce protection and differs from an antibody, which inactivates viruses found outside the cells.
41
what is the major serum antibody?
IGG constitutes about 70% of the total circulating antibodies. It is antiviral, antibacteria, and effective against toxins.
42
Which antibody is produced in response to antigen?
IgM
43
Where are Kupffer cells?
The liver contains a large number of macrophages called Kupffer cells which help filter blood by phagocytizing microorganisms and other foreign particles passing through the liver.
44
what are Peyer patches?
Lymphoid nodules located in the small intestine where T cells congregate. These are important to the secondary immune response although they play a role in the primary immune response as well. They may enlarge when activated
45
What is the role of neutrophils in the inflammatory response?
neutrophils appear in the area of injury within 30-60 mins. Their primary purpose is to phagocytize any potentially harmful agents
46
What does the PA tst assess for?
presence of unusual antibodies of the IgG and IgM type
47
what does a CDC reveal in SLE?
pancytopenia (a decrease in all cell types)
48
How do you confirm cryptosporidiosis?
The client with cryptosporidiosis will present with signs and symptoms of watery diarrhea, flatus, abdominal distention, pain, and fever. Diagnostic tests include a stool culture with a bowel biopsy. The other options are incorrect.
49
ESR
The ESR can confirm the presence of inflammation or infection in the body. It is particularly useful for the management of connective tissue disease because the rate measured directly correlates with the degree of inflammation and later with the severity of the disease.
50
NORMAL ESR
0-30 mm/hr
51
MILD inflammation ESR
30-40 mm/hr
52
moderate inflammation ESR
40-70mm/hr
53
severe inflammation ESR
70-150 mm/hr