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Adult Health > Exam 3 Saunders Immune > Flashcards

Exam 3 Saunders Immune Flashcards

1
Q

immunity received passively from the mother’s antibodies, animal serum, or antibodies produced in response to disease.

A

acquired immunity-immunizations produce active acquired immunity

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2
Q

an abnormal, individual response to certain substances that normally do not trigger such an exaggerated reaction

A

allergy

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3
Q

a delayed response against slowly developing bacterial infections

A

cellular response or delayed hypersensitivity

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4
Q

an immediate response that provides protection against acute, rapidly developing bacterial and viral infections

A

humoral response

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5
Q

the absence of inadequate production of immune bodies

A

immunodeficieny

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6
Q

immunity present at birth, and is the first-line defence against pathogens

A

innate or natural immunity

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7
Q

skin lesions that occur in individuals with a compromised immune system

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

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8
Q

an infection acquired from a tick bite.

A

Lyme disease

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9
Q

this type of response is active against slowly developing bacterial infections and is involved in autoimmune responses, some allergic reactions, and rejection of foreign cells

A

cellular response, aka delayed hypersensitivity

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10
Q

includes biochemical, physical, and mechanical barriers of defense as well as the inflammatory response

A

innate or natural immunity

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11
Q

a blood test used for the differential diagnosis of rheumatic diseases and for the detection of anti-nucleoprotein factors and patterns associated with certain autoimmune diseases

A

ANA titer, positive titer of 1:20 or 1:40 depending on the lab
**a positive result does not necessarily confirm a disease
typically positive in SLE, scleroderma, and RA

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12
Q

Skin testing nursing considerations

A

DC systemic corticosteriods or anti histamines 5 days before skin test
look at skin after 30 mins for results
HAVE RESUSCITATION EQUIPMENT AVAILABLE IF SKIN TESTING IS PERFORMED BC THE ALLERGEN MAY INDUCE AN ANAPHYLACTIC RXN

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13
Q

type 1 hypersensitivity

A

IgE: histamine and leukotriene release

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14
Q

type II hypersensitivity (Cytotoxic)

A

IgG, IgM, complement

ABO Incompatibility, drug-induced hemolytic anemia

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15
Q

Type III hypersensitivity: Immune Complex

A 
Antigen-antibody complexes
arthus reaction
serum sickness
sle
acute glomerulonephritis
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16
Q

Type IV: cell mediated, delayed hypersensitivity

A

sensitized T cells by Lymphokine release
TB
Contact dermatitis
transplant rejection

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17
Q

Nursing actions in Anaphylaxis

A 
airway
HCP or rapid response team
administer oxygen
start IV line and infuse NS
benedryl and EPI
document
Raise HOB if BP is normal, raise LE if BP is low
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18
Q

SLE

A

autoimmune disease that can cause all major organs and systems to fail.

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19
Q

How do you confirm Kaposi’s sarcoma

A

Positive punch biopsy on cutaneous lesions

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20
Q

A hospitalized patient taking Rocephin develops diarrhea. What do you do?

A

Rocephin may cause pseudomembranous colitis, call HCP. somes contact precautions are necessary for antibiotic assoc diarrhea

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21
Q

Pentamidine for Pneumocystis jiroveci

A

fever may indicate another infection caused by leukopenic effects of the medication (leukopenia, thromobocytpenia, and anemia)

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22
Q

Name a med toxic to pancreas

A

Didanosine (Videx), Stavudine (peripheral neuropathy too)

23
Q 
ototoxicity
confusion, disorientation
renal toxicity
GI irritation
palpitations, BP changes
hypersensitivity rxns
A

aminoglycosides:

amikin, gentamicin

24
Q

GI disturbances, pseudomembranous colitis, HA, dizziness, lethargy, paresthesias, Nephrotoxicity, superinfections

A

Cephalosporins

Omnicef, Ancef, Rocephin

25
Q

HA, dizzines, insomnia, depression
GI effects
Bone marrow depression
fever, rash, photosensitivity

A

Fluoroquinolones

Cipro

26
Q

GI effects
hepatotoxicity
nephrotoxicity
Bone marrow depression
derm effects: photosensitivity and hypersensitivity
HA, dizziness, vertigo, ataxia, depression, seizures

A

sulfa

27
Q

ganciclovir

A

monitor for hypoglycemia and implement bleeding precautions due to neutropenia and thrombocytopenia

28
Q

fever, hypertension, and graft tenderness

A

acute graft rejection

29
Q

Zidovudine

A

monitor CBC for agranulocytopenia and anemia

30
Q

Lyme Disease

A

Stage I rash (oral antibiotic therapy)
Stage II cardiac conduction deficits, bells palsy and paralysis (IV penecillin G)
Stage III arthralgias and joint enlargement

31
Q

A blood test is available to detect ________, however, it is not a reliable test if performed before 4-6 weeks after the tick bite. Antibody formation takes place in the following manner: IgM is detected 3-4 weeks after disease onset, peaks at 6-8 weeks, then gradually disappears. IgG is detected 2-3 months after infection and may remain elevated for years

A

Lyme disease

32
Q

A client tests positive for the ELISA test. Now what?

A

western blot test-if that is positive, then HIV +

33
Q

first sign of PO. jiroveci

A

cough (nonproductive-productive)

later signs = fever, dyspnea on exertion, and dyspnea at rest

34
Q

what do B cells do?

A

make antibodies

35
Q

three phases of specific immune response

A

recognition phase, activation phase, and effector phase

36
Q

what do basophils do?

A

hypersensitivity rxns

37
Q

What do eosinophils do?

A

attack parasites

38
Q

what do neutrophils do?

A

attack bacteria

39
Q

what do dendritic cells do?

A

perform the same antigen-presenting task as macrophages

40
Q

what does interferon do?

A

interferon is produced by several types of cells and is effective against a wide variety of viruses. It works on the host cells to induce protection and differs from an antibody, which inactivates viruses found outside the cells.

41
Q

what is the major serum antibody?

A

IGG constitutes about 70% of the total circulating antibodies. It is antiviral, antibacteria, and effective against toxins.

42
Q

Which antibody is produced in response to antigen?

A

IgM

43
Q

Where are Kupffer cells?

A

The liver contains a large number of macrophages called Kupffer cells which help filter blood by phagocytizing microorganisms and other foreign particles passing through the liver.

44
Q

what are Peyer patches?

A

Lymphoid nodules located in the small intestine where T cells congregate. These are important to the secondary immune response although they play a role in the primary immune response as well. They may enlarge when activated

45
Q

What is the role of neutrophils in the inflammatory response?

A

neutrophils appear in the area of injury within 30-60 mins. Their primary purpose is to phagocytize any potentially harmful agents

46
Q

What does the PA tst assess for?

A

presence of unusual antibodies of the IgG and IgM type

47
Q

what does a CDC reveal in SLE?

A

pancytopenia (a decrease in all cell types)

48
Q

How do you confirm cryptosporidiosis?

A

The client with cryptosporidiosis will present with signs and symptoms of watery diarrhea, flatus, abdominal distention, pain, and fever. Diagnostic tests include a stool culture with a bowel biopsy. The other options are incorrect.

49
Q

ESR

A

The ESR can confirm the presence of inflammation or infection in the body. It is particularly useful for the management of connective tissue disease because the rate measured directly correlates with the degree of inflammation and later with the severity of the disease.

50
Q

NORMAL ESR

A

0-30 mm/hr

51
Q

MILD inflammation ESR

A

30-40 mm/hr

52
Q

moderate inflammation ESR

A

40-70mm/hr

53
Q

severe inflammation ESR

A

70-150 mm/hr

Adult Health (18 decks)

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