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Adult Health > AHII Cancer > Flashcards

AHII Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

a tumor that arises from glandular epithelial tissue

A

adenocarcinoma

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2
Q

usually refers to growths that are encapsulated, remain localized, and are slow growing

A

Benign

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3
Q

a neoplastic disorder that can involve all body organs. cells lose their normal growth-controlling mechanism, and the growth of cells is uncontrolled

A

cancer

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4
Q

a physical, chemical, or biological stressor that causes neoplastic changes in normal cells

A

carcinogen

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5
Q

a premalignant tumor that originates from epithelial cells, the skin, gastrointestinal tract, lungs, uterus, breast, or other organ

A

carcinoma in situ

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6
Q

neoplasm involving abnormal overproduction of leukocytes, usually at an immature stage, in the bone marrow (WBCs)

A

leukemia

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7
Q

neoplasm that originates from the lymphoid tissue

A

lymphoma

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8
Q

term for growths that are not encapsulated but grow and metastasize. These growths are cancerous lesions having the characteristics of disorderly, uncontrolled, and chaotically proliferating cells.

A

malignant

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9
Q

the transfer of disease from one organ or part to another not directly connected with it. Secondary malignant lesions, originating from the primary tumor, are located in anatomically distant places

A

metastasis

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10
Q

a malignant proliferation of plasma cells within the bone.

A

myeloma

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11
Q

the period of time during which an antineoplastic medication has its most profound effects on the bone marrow (greatest bone marrow suppression and platelet count is prob extremely low too); avoid anticoags and ASA during this time!

A

nadir

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12
Q

an abnormal growth, which may be benign or malignant

A

neoplasm

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13
Q

neoplasm that originates from muscle, bone, fat, the lymph system, or connective tissue

A

sarcoma

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14
Q

a method of classifying malignancies on the basis of the presence and extent of the tumor within the body

A

staging

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15
Q

specific bodily substances that seem to indicate tumor progression or regression

A

tumor marker

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16
Q

cells that have lost the capacity for specialized functions

A

undifferentiated cells

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17
Q

TNM Staging

A

T=size and # of tumors
N=extent of spread to lymph nodes
M=metastasis

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18
Q

cancer grading

A

GX: grade cannot be assessed
G1: well-differentiated (resembles tissue of origin) mild dysplasia
G2: Moderately differentiated moderate dysplasia
G3: poorly differentiated (little resemblance to tissue of origin) severe dysplasia
G4: undifferentiated (unable to tell tissue of origin) anaplasia

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19
Q 
any sore that does not heal
change in bowel or bladder habits
indigestion
nagging cough or hoarseness
obvious change in wort or mole
thickening or lump in breast or elsewhere
unusual bleeding or discharge
A

warning signs of cancer

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20
Q

What is the definative means of diagnosing cancer and provides histological proof of malignancy

A

Biopsy (needle, incisional, excisional, stage=multiple needle or incisional biopsies in tissues where metastasis is suspected or likely)

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21
Q

What are the pros and cons of frozen vs parrafin tissue examination following a biospy?

A

frozen is faster (within minutes) but parrafin is clearer although it takes 24 hours

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22
Q

brachytherapy

A

the radiation source is within the client; for a period of time, the client emits radiation and can pose a hazard to others

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23
Q

external beam radiation (teletherapy)

A

radiation source is outside the client, and thus the client does not pose a risk to anyone else

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24
Q

Brachytherapy: unsealed radiation source

A

patient and excreta are radioactive for about 48 hours

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25
Q

Brachytherapy: sealed radiation source

A

the client emits radiation while the implant is in place, but the excreta are not radioactive

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26
Q

special instructions to females who had a sealed radiation source

A

resume sex 7-10 days
douche if implant was in cervix
saline enema if prescribed
notify HCP: n/v/d, frequent urination, vaginal or rectal bleeding, hematuria, foul-smelling vaginal discharge, abdominal pain/distension, or fever

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27
Q

BMT and PBSCT

A

Bone Marrow Transplant and Peripheral Blood Stem Cell Transplantation are procedures that replace stem cells that have been destroyed by high doses of chemo/radiation; most commonly treats leukemia and lymphoma, but may treat neurblastoma and multiple myeloma; client would die of hemorrhage or infection without BMT and PBSCT

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28
Q

refers to an immunosuppression therapy regimen used to eradicate all malignant cells, provide a state of immunosuppression, and create space in the bone marrow for the engraftment of the new marrow

A

conditioning

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29
Q

Where do you administer or IVP stem cells?

A

central line

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30
Q

the transfused stem cells move to the marrow-forming sites of the recipient’s bones and occurs when the WBC, erythrocyte, and platelet counts begin to rise (typically takes 2-5 weeks)

A

engraftment: client will die if cells fail to engraft

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31
Q

this disease involves occlusion of the hepatic venules by thrombosis or phlebitis: RUQ pain, jaundice, ascites, weight gain, and hepatomegaly: early detection is critical as there is no way to open the hepatic vessels; client will be treated with fluids and supportive therapy

A

veno-occlusive disease

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32
Q

mostly lymphoblasts present in bone marrow and onset is younger than 15 years

A

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia

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33
Q

mostly myeloblasts present in bone marrow and onset is 15-39 years

A

Acute Myelogenous Leukemia

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34
Q

mostly granulocytes present in bone marrow onset is in the fourth decade

A

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

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35
Q

mostly lymphocytes present in the bone marrow and onset is after age 50

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

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36
Q

What platelet count indicates a risk for bleeding and spontaneous bleeding?

A

50,000 risk for bleeding

20,000 spontaneous bleeding

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37
Q

aimed at achieving a rapid, complete remission of all manifestations of the disease

A

chemo induction therapy

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38
Q

administered early in remission with the aim of curing

A

chemo consolidation therapy

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39
Q

may be prescribed for months or years following successful induction and consolidation therapy to maintain remission

A

chemo maintenance therapy

40
Q

Chemo interventions

A

administer antibiotics, antibacterial, antiviral, antifungal, CSF, blood replacements, infection and bleeding precautions

41
Q

Lymphoma: Hodgkin’s disease

A

Hodgkin’s disease is a malignancy of the lymph nodes that originates in a single lymph node or a chain of nodes (Reed-Sternburg cells); usually involves lymph nodes, tonsils, spleen, and bone marrow

42
Q

multiple myeloma

A

a malignant proliferation of plasma cells within the bone and ultimately destroy the bone and invades the lymph nodes, spleen and liver. The abnormal plasma cells produce an abnormal antibody: Bence Jones protein found in blood and urine. Multiple myeloma causes decreased production of immunoglobulin and antibodies and increased levels of uric acid and calcium, which can lead to kidney failure

43
Q

What is a main nursing consideration for a patient with multiple myeloma?

A

the client with multiple myeloma is at risk for pathological fractures. provide skeletal support during moving, turning, and ambulating and provide a hazard-free environment

44
Q

What are complications of multiple myeloma?

A

bone fractures, hypercalcemia, kidney failure, and infections (encourage increased fluids to help kidneys)

45
Q

testicular cancer

A

arises from germinal epithelium from the sperm-producing germ cells or from nongerminal epithelium from other structures in the testicles (onset 15-40 years)

46
Q

What are know to increase risk of developing testicular cancer?

A

hx of undescended testicle (cryptorchidism) and genetic predisposition

47
Q

TSE

A

testicular self exam: best after a shower monthly
painless testicular swelling
dragging or pulling sensation in scrotum
palpable lymphadenopathy, abominal masses, and gynecomastia may indicate metastasis
late signs include back or bone pain and respiratory symptoms

48
Q

orchiectomy

A

surgical removal of affected testicle, spermatic cord, and regional lymph nodes)

49
Q

What is a main nursing consideration following hysterectomy?

A

monitor vaginal bleeding following hysterectomy. More than one saturated pad per hour may indicate excessive bleeding

50
Q

pelvic extenteration

A

removal of all pelvic contents (bowel, vagina, and bladder) if no lymph node involvement

51
Q

When do you perform BSE (breast self exam)

A

perform monthly 7-10 days post menses

52
Q

how do you avoid lymphedema post op for breast removal?

A

position client in semi-fowlers turn from back to unaffected side and raise affected arm above heart level to promote drainage and prevent lymphedema

53
Q

What is the characteristic of most prostate tumors?

A

most prostate tumors are adenocarcinomas arising rom androgen-dependent epithelial cells. The risk increases in men after each decade over 50.

54
Q

Oncological Emergency: SIADH

A

tumors can produce, secrete, or stimulate substances that mimic ADH. weakness, muscle cramps, loss of appetite, and fatigue (Na 115-120); more serious signs relate to water intoxication: weight gain, personality changes, confusion, and extreme muscle weakness. As serum sodium drops to 110, seizures, coma, and eventually death will occur

55
Q

What do you do to treat SIADH?

A 
fluid restrictions
increase sodium intake
ADH antagonist
monitor serum sodium levels
treat underlying cause with chemo or radiation to reduce the tumor.
56
Q

Oncological Emergency: spinal cord compression

A

a tumor directly enters the spinal cord or when the vertebral column collapses from tumor entry, impinging the spinal cord. Can cause back pain before neurological deficits occur: numbness, tingling, loss of urethral, vaginal, and rectal sensation, and muscle weakness.

57
Q

How do you treat Spinal Cord Compression?

A

give corticosteriods to reduce swelling; prepare client for immediate radiation to reduce the size of the tumor and relieve compression. neck/back braces if prescribed

58
Q

Oncological Emergency: hypercalcemia

A

a late manifestation of extensive malignancy that occurs most often with bone metastasis, when the bone release calcium into the bloodstream. Decreased physical mobility contributes to or worsens hypercalcemia. early signs: fatigue, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, constipation, polyuria. Serious signs: severe muscle weakness, diminished deep tendon reflexes, paralytic ileus, dehydration, and changes on the ECG.

59
Q

How do you treat hypercalcemia?

A

monitor serum calcium and ECG
admin oral or parenteral fluids as prescribed
admin mends that lower calcium
prepare client for dialysis if the condition becomes life-threatening or is accompanied by renal impairment

60
Q

Oncological Emergency: Superior Vena Cava Syndrome

A

occurs when SVC is compressed or obstructed by tumor growth (lung CA and lymphoma); edema of face and tight collar (Stokes’ sign); serious signs: edema in arms and hands, dyspnea, erythema of the upper body, epistaxis then airway obstruction, hemorrhage, cyanosis, mental status changes, decreased cardiac output, and hypotension

61
Q

How do we treat Superior Vena Cava Syndrome?

A

prepare the client for high-dose radiation therapy to the mediastinal area, and possible surgery to insert a metal stent in the vena cava

62
Q

Oncological Emergency: Tumor Lysis Syndrome

A

occurs when large quantities of tumor cells are destroyed rapidly and intracellular components such as potassium and uric acid are released into the bloodstream faster than the body can eliminate them. This can indicate that CA Tx is destroying tumor cells, but if left untreated, can cause severe tissue damage and death.

63
Q

What electrolytes will be out of whack with Tumor Lysis Syndrome?

A

hyperkalemia
hyperphosphatemia–>hypocalcemia
hyperuricemia–>AKI

64
Q

How do we treat tumor lysis syndrome?

A

hydration and monitor kidney fxn
admin diuretics to increase urine flow through kidneys
admin meds that increase excretion of purines (allopurinol)
prepare to admin IV glucose and insulin to correct hyperkalemia
prepare the client for dialysis if hyperkalemia and hyperuricemia persist despite treatment

65
Q

What are findings indicative of multiple myeloma?

A

increase plasma cells in bone marrow
anemia
hypercalcemia
elevated BUN

66
Q

what is the primary concern for a patient with multiple myeloma?

A

hypercalcemia: increase fluids

67
Q

What oncological emergency does a cancer patient’s immunocompromised status put them at risk of developing?

A

sepsis leading to DIC

68
Q

How do you describe multiple myeloma?

A

malignant proliferation accumulation of mature plasma cells within the bone marrow

69
Q

what does an ECG look like with hypercalcemia?

A

shortened ST segment and a widened T wave

70
Q

When do you hold antineoplastic meds?

A

when ANC is <1800 cells/mm^3

institute neutropenia precautions!

71
Q

what are some side effects of antineoplastic drugs?

A 
mucositis
alopecia
anorexia n/v/d (taste changes may be due to med taste)
anemia
neutropenia (low WBC)
thrombocytopenia
infertility
72
Q

Since antineoplastic drugs cause the rapid destruction of cells, what is released into the bloodstream, and what do we do to correct this?

A

uric acid is released, treat with allpurinol (Zyloprim) to lower the serum uric acid level

73
Q

What can be done to reduce pain at the IV site of antineoplastic administration?

A

altering IV rates or warming the injection site to distend the vein and increase blood flow will reduce IVP pain

74
Q

What do you do if extravasion occurs?

A

notify HCP, apply heat or cold drug depending, and an antidote may be injected into the site

75
Q

What kind of fertility concerns are related to antineoplastic drugs?

A

councel clients about contraception; teratogenic drugs

infertility may be irreversible

76
Q

Nursing Actions during a medication-induced anaphylactic rxn

A 
assess respiratory status
stop medication
call HCP and rapid response team
administer O2
maintain IV access w NS
Raise clients feet and legs
admin ER meds
monitor vitals
doc event, actions, and client's response
77
Q

Nursing considerations for cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide

A

can cause hemorrhagic cystitis: increase fluids

meds break DNA helix, interfering w DNA replication

78
Q

Daunorubicin (DaunoXome)

A

may cause heart failure and dysrhythmias

79
Q

Doxorubicin (Adriamycin, Doxil) and Idarubicin (Idamycin)

A

cardiotoxic, cardiomyopathy, ECG changes

dexrazoxane (Zinecard) may be given with Doxorubicin to decrease cardiomyopathy

80
Q

Bleomycin

A

pulmonary toxicity

81
Q

Fluorouracil (Adrucil)

A

may cause alopecia, stomatitis, diarrhea, phototoxictiy and cerebellar dysfunction

82
Q

Mercaptopurine (Purinethol)

A

may cause hyperuricemia and hepatotoxicity

83
Q

Methotrexate

A

may cause alopecia, stomatitis, hyperuricemia, photosensitivity, hepatotoxicity, and hematological, gastro, and skin toxicity

84
Q

What is leucovorin rescue?

A

what administering methotrexate in large doses, prepare to administer leucovorin (folinic acid or citrovorum factor) as prescribed to prevent toxicity

85
Q

vincristine

A

neurotoxic: numbness and tingling in fingers and toes, constipation, paralytic ileus

86
Q

Tamoxifen citrate

A

may cause edema, hypercalcemia, and elevated cholesterol and triglyceride levels
decreases effect of estrogen

87
Q

What is chemo dosing based on?

A

total Body Surface Area: measure client’s height and weight before each medication administration

88
Q

etoposide

A

orthstatic hypotension

89
Q

asparaginase (Elspar)

A

contraindicated if hx of pancreatitis

90
Q

megace

A

used with caution if thrombophlebitis

91
Q

Risk factors for breast cancer

A

Risk factors for breast cancer include nulliparity or first child born after age 30 years; early menarche; late menopause; family history of breast cancer; high-dose radiation exposure to the chest; and previous cancer of the breast, uterus, or ovaries.

92
Q

melanoma

A

Melanomas are pigmented malignant lesions originating in the melanin-producing cells of the epidermis. This skin cancer is highly metastatic, and the affected person’s survival depends on early diagnosis and treatment.

93
Q

intravesical instillation

A

With intravesical instillation, normally the medication is injected into the bladder through a urethral catheter, the catheter is clamped or removed, and the client is asked to retain the fluid for 2 hours. The client changes position every 15 to 30 minutes, usually from side to side and from supine to prone. The client then voids and is instructed to drink water to flush the bladder.

94
Q

CLL

A

CLL causes a slow increase in immature B cells. These cells infiltrate the bone marrow, lymph nodes, spleen, and liver. CLL eventually causes bone marrow failure; therefore the client will have enlarged and swollen lymph nodes.

95
Q

Hairy cell leukemia

A

pancytopenia

96
Q

oncological emergencies

A

Oncological emergencies include sepsis, disseminated intravascular coagulation, syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone, spinal cord compression, hypercalcemia, superior vena cava syndrome, and tumor lysis syndrome.

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