Exam 3 review sheet Flashcards

1
Q

Gram positive cocci (anaerobe)

A

Peptostreptococcus

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2
Q

Gram negative bacilli (anaerobe)

A

Bacteriodes
Fusobacterium

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3
Q

Gram positive rods (anaerobes)

A

Clostridium
Propionibacteria

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4
Q

Aerobes vs. Anaerboes

A

AEROBES - Uses O₂ as a terminal electron acceptor; have the enzymes Superoxide Dismutase for breaking down harmful Superoxides to H₂O₂, and Catalase, for converting toxic H₂O₂ into water.

ANAEROBES - Obtain energy from fermentation or respiration using SO₄ or NO₃ as terminal electron acceptors

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5
Q

Obligate Anaerobes vs. Microaerophilic Anaerobes

A

Obligate Anaerobes usually do not have the enzymes Superoxide Dismutase and Catalase, and therefore cannot tolerate being around any amount of O₂.

Microaerophilic Anaerobes can withstand some O₂ but grow better in Anaerobic conditions

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6
Q

Facultative Anaerobes

A

Can grow in both types of environments; typically do better in O₂ environments but possess Fermentation machinery as well.

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7
Q

Where are anaerobes normal flora

A

upper respiratory tract
mouth
GI tract
genital
skin

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8
Q

Anaerobes are frequently involved in what type of infections?

A

polymicrobic infection
**(involving more than one bacterial species)
Often involving both aerobes and anaerobes

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9
Q

Exogenous infections

A

From an outside source
**Ex: food-borne botulism
**Tetanus

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10
Q

Endogenous infection

A

*Arise from sources within the body when they move from areas of normal flora into other sites
*Most infections are endogenous, from organisms inside the body
*Examples: surgery, disease, trauma

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11
Q

Anaerobic media Containing a reducing agents

A

Sodium thioglycollate
Cystine
**They absorb oxygen

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12
Q

Thioglycolate

A

*Enriched broth with hemin and vitamin K
*Supports growth of most anaerobes
**Grows at bottom of tube
**Used as backup in case plated media fails to grow

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13
Q

Anaerobic media is usually supplemented with what?

A

Supplemented with hemin, blood, and vitamin K and sodium bicarbonate (source of CO2) for fastidious organisms

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14
Q

Anaerobic-selective media

A

Anaerobic PEA
Anaerobic KV

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15
Q

Ways to generate anaerobic atmosphere

A

Gas-generating system within a closed jar or bag
Preferred to collect by needle aspiration instead of swab
*to prevent exposure to O2

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16
Q

Specimens that should not be cultured for anaerobes

A

Throat or nasopharyngeal swabs
Gingival swabs
Sputum or Bronchial washes
Gastric contents, feces, rectal swab

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17
Q

Characteristics of Anaerobic Infections

A

Foul-Smelling Discharge
Gas in the Tissues (they produce CO₂ and H₂; i.e. Gas Gangrene)
Abscess Formation - Sets up microenvironment conducive for growth
Infection is in close proximity to a Mucosal Surface

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18
Q

Give a basic morphology of Spirochetes

A

Long, thin, motile & helical bacteria
NOT seen on Gram stain

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19
Q

Treponema pallidum is associated with what disease?

A

venereal Syphilis

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20
Q

T pallidum subsp endemicum is associated with what disease?

A

Endemic syphilis aka Bejel

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21
Q

T.pallidum subsp pertenue is associated with what disease?

A

Yaws

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22
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi is associated with what disease?

A

Lyme disease

23
Q

Borrelia recurrentis is associated with what disease?

A

Relapsing fever

24
Q

Leptospira interrogans is associated with what disease?

A

Leptospirosis

25
Important categories of Spirochetes are?
Treponema Borrelia Leptospira
26
Spirochetes have corkscrew-like motility due to the possession of?
Endoflagella
27
Endoflagella consists of
axial filaments
28
Spirochetes are best visualized via?
Darkfield microscopy Fluorescent microscopy
29
How is syphilis spread?
sexual intercourse or transplacentally
30
What is primary syphilis?
Development of chancre at the site of inoculation approximately 3 weeks after exposure The chancre usually heals spontaneously after 4 to 6 weeks
31
What is secondary syphilis?
Sets in 1-3 months after primary lesion heals Widespread rash of the skin and mucosa membranes (hands and soles of feet) lesions are filled with treponemas and considered infectious “The Great Imitator”
32
What is tertiary syphilis?
responsible for a majority of the morbidity and mortality associated with the disease Occurs 5-30 years after primary syphilis destruction of tissue caused by a response to the presence of treponemal antigens
33
What are "nontreponemal" tests?
Test for antibodies developed against lipids released from damaged cells during early stage of disease. Screens for syphilis but may be false positive
34
What are "treponemal" tests?
Test for Ab to treponemal antigens, highly specific
35
What disease does Borrelia burgdorferi cause?
Lyme disease
36
How is lyme disease spread?
via bites of Ixodes ticks
37
Lyme disease stage 1
Erythema Migrans (looks like target) Flu-like lasts 1 month
38
What is stage 2 lyme disease?
Facial palsy cardiac migratory pain fatigue syndrome
39
What is stage 3 lyme disease?
acute or chronic arthritis CNS involvement
40
How do you dx lyme disease?
early: clinical grounds late: serological-ELISA + Western blot
41
Which species of Leptospira causes disease?
Leptospira interrogans
42
Direct transmission of L. interrogans occurs with infected
urine
43
Indirect transmission of L. interrogans occurs with infected
water
44
What is the gold standard in diagnosing leptospirosis?
Urine culture
45
Where is leptospirosis most prevalent?
Rural areas
46
Leptospirosis is a
zoonotic disease
47
What cell culture lines are most often used for recovering Chlamydia trachomatis?
-McCoy Cells
48
Chlamydia infections are most often implicated in
urethritis, conjunctivitis, STDs
49
Describe the features of Mycobacteria
* Aerobic * Non-motile, Non-spore forming * Straight or slightly curved rods * Distinctive cell wall - has high mycolic acid level * Fastidious * Slow growers
50
Describe the Mycobacteria characteristics
* 'waxy' cell wall (lipid-rich) * Resistance to drying + hydrophobic * Resistance to antibiotics and disinfectants * Resistance to acids and alkalis * 'acid and alcohol fast' * Impermeable to standard stains * Survives in macrophages
51
What stains are used for mycobacterium
* Ziehl-Neelsen / Kinyoun= carbolfuchsin * Auramine-rhodamine = fluorescent
52
What is the Runyon classification based on?
based on the rate of growth, production of yellow pigment and whether this pigment was produced in the dark or only after exposure to light.
53
Runyon classification groups
Group 1- photochromogens Group 2- Scotochromogens Group 3- Nonphotochromogens Group 4- Fast growers
54
How is mycobacterium diagnosed
Microscopy Culture (what are the different types of media?) Molecular = PCR, NAAT, probes (main concepts of tests) Done in BSL3 facility