Exam 3 PreWork Flashcards

1
Q

_____ an involuntary flapping of the hands, may be seen in stage 2 encephalopathy.

A

asterixis

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2
Q

T/F: Primary liver tumors usually are associated with chronic liver disease, hepatitis B and C infections, and cirrhosis.

A

True

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3
Q

T/F: Lobectomy is the treatment of choice for hepatocellular carcinoma if it is confined to one lobe and liver function is adequate

A

True

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4
Q

T/F: The hepatitis A virus is transmitted primarily parenterally through percutaneous and permucosal routes.

A

False

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5
Q

Patients with cirrhosis are at increased risk for bleeding and hemorrhage because of the decreased production of _______
and the decreased ability of the diseased liver to synthesize the necessary substances for blood coagulation.

A

prothrombin

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6
Q

Hepatocellular jaundice is caused by the inability of damaged liver cells to clear normal amounts of _____ from the blood.

A

bilirubin

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7
Q

________ is a result of obstructed blood flow through the liver and results in ascites and esophageal varices.

A

portal hypertension

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8
Q

T/F: The most significant source of bleeding in a patient with cirrhosis is esophageal varices.

A

True

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9
Q

T/F: When fluid accumulates in the peritoneal cavity, the presence and extent of ascites are assessed by percussing the abdomen.

A

True

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10
Q

Nursing management of a patient who requires immunosuppression must include use of ______ precautions when providing care to prevent infection.

A

standard

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11
Q

T/F: Nurses need to be nonjudgmental in order to be effective in educating LGBT population about HIV/AIDS prevention methods.

A

True

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12
Q

T/F: Nursing management of patients with HIV include educating the patient to recognize the signs and symptoms of infection.

A

True

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13
Q

T/F: Many patients with PIDDs have comorbid autoimmune disorders, such as thyroid disease, rheumatoid arthritis, cytopenias, and inflammatory bowel disease.

A

True

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14
Q

T/F: The majority of primary immune deficiency disorders are diagnosed during infancy.

A

True

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15
Q

T/F: Modes of transmission for HIV include blood, semen, saliva, and casual contact.

A

False

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16
Q

A common complication of stage 3 HIV infection, ______ syndrome, is defined as a loss of more than 10% of one’s body weight over a 30-day timeframe.

A

wasting

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17
Q

Antiretroviral medications as post-exposure prophylaxis for health care workers are started within _____ hours of exposure.

A

72

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18
Q

HIV ______ is a clinical syndrome that is characterized by a progressive decline in cognitive, behavioral, and motor functions as a direct result of HIV infection.

A

encephalopathy

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19
Q

Immune deficiency disorders may be caused by a defect in, or a deficiency of, phagocytic cells, B lymphocytes, T lymphocytes, or the ______ system.

A

complement

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20
Q

T/F: Iron deficiency anemia, the most common type of anemia in all age groups, also is the most common anemia in the world.

21
Q

A patient with neutropenia is at an increased risk for ______
, which increases proportionately with the decrease in the neutrophil count.

22
Q

T/F: Secondary polycythemia is caused by excessive production of erythropoietin.

23
Q

T/F: The patient with sickle cell trait usually has a normal hemoglobin level, a normal hematocrit, and a normal blood smear.

24
Q

Patients with ______ anemia develop a smooth sore red tongue.

A

pernicious

25
________ is a genetic condition in which excess iron, absorbed from the GI tract, is deposited in various body organs.
hemochromatosis
26
The most common symptom and complication of anemia is _______, which has the greatest negative impact on a patient's level of functioning.
fatigue
27
T/F: Anemia is the most common hematologic condition affecting older adults, particularly those admitted to hospitals or those in long-term care facilities.
True
28
T/F: In hypoproliferative anemias, premature destruction of erythrocytes results in the liberation of hemoglobin from the erythrocytes into the plasma.
false
29
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is characterized by a process of inflammation and _______________ within the vasculature.
coagulation
30
T/F: Cardiogenic shock, the most common type of shock, occurs when there is a reduction in intravascular volume by 15% to 30%
False- Hypovolemic shock, the most common type of shock, is characterized by decreased intravascular volume
31
In _______ shock, vasodilation occurs because of a loss of balance between parasympathetic and sympathetic stimulation.
neurogenic
32
_______ is an enzyme released by the kidneys and necessary for the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
renin
33
T/F: The most common and serious side effects of fluid replacement are cardiovascular overload, pulmonary edema, and abdominal compartment syndrome (ACS).
true
34
T/F: Shock is a life-threatening condition that results from inadequate tissue perfusion. Rapid assessment with early recognition and treatment of underlying causes is essential to the patient's recovery.
True
35
Intravenous administration of the medication ____ causes venous vasodilation reducing preload and, when given at high dose, can cause arterial vasodilation, which reduces afterload.
nitroglycerin
36
A patient with a systolic BP of 140 mm Hg and a diastolic BP of 90 mm Hg will have a pulse pressure of _____ mm Hg
50
37
The ______ stage of shock presents with a systolic blood pressure ≤100 mm Hg and a MAP ≤66 mm Hg.
progressive
38
T/F: Normal pulse pressure, which is 60 to 80 mm Hg, is calculated by dividing the diastolic measurement from the systolic measurement
False- The top number (systolic) minus the bottom number (diastolic)
39
T/F: Failure of the cardiac pump occurs in the progressive stage of shock.
True
40
A burn that results in total destruction of the epidermis, dermis, and underlying tissue and lacks sensation is considered a ______ -degree burn.
third
41
The initial systemic event, after a major burn injury, is a shift of fluid, sodium, and protein resulting in ______ shock.
hypovolemic
42
T/F: Prevention of shock and respiratory distress are two immediate priorities of care during the emergent/resuscitative phase of burn injury.
TRUE
43
A major part of the nurse's role during the acute phase of burn care is detection and prevention of
infection
44
T/F: Burns more than 40% of TBSA produce a local and systemic response and are considered major burns.
False
45
The body's response to burn injuries has been classified as hyperdynamic, ______, and hypercatabolic.
hypermetabolic
46
T/F: Burn pain has been described as one of the most severe forms of acute pain and includes background or resting pain, procedural pain, and breakthrough pain.
True
47
Methods used to determine total body surface area burned include ______ , Lund and Browder method, and Palmer method.
rule of nines
48
T/F: During burn care fluid resuscitation the patients' response to fluid therapy is assessed every hour.
True
49
T/F: Mortality associated with burns is greater in younger patients than in older adult patients when comparing injuries with similar severity.
False