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NRS 202 > Exam 1 Pre Quiz > Flashcards

Exam 1 Pre Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

Multiple trauma is caused by a single catastrophic event that causes life-threatening injuries to at least two distinct
.

A

organs
or
organ systems

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2
Q

T/F: Typically, a person with a foreign-body airway obstruction cannot speak, breathe, or cough.

A

TRUE

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3
Q

If the immunization status of a patient being treated for a wound is unknown, a _____ prophylaxis must be administered.

A

tetanus

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4
Q

Hemorrhage can quickly lead to signs of ______ shock, such as hypotension, tachycardia, delayed capillary refill, and decreased urine volume.

A

hypovolemic

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5
Q

T/F: Emergency management of the patient with carbon monoxide poisoning includes providing 100% oxygen and monitoring the patient closely.

A

TRUE

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6
Q

T/F: Nonfatal drowning is defined as survival for at least 48 hours after submersion that caused a respiratory arrest.

A

FALSE- 24 hrs after

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7
Q

The person who has ingested a corrosive poison (strong acid or alkaline substance) is given water or ____ to drink for dilution before vomiting is induced.

A

milk

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8
Q

T/F: Delirium tremens is the most severe form of alcohol withdrawal syndrome.

A

True

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9
Q

The _____ is the most frequently injured solid organ when a person experiences a penetrating abdominal injury (gunshot or stab wound).

A

liver

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10
Q

T/F: Primary survey is the assessment of the patient triaged to the emergent or resuscitation category that focuses on stabilizing life-threatening conditions.

A

TRUE

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11
Q

______ is recognized as the most likely weaponized biologic agent available.

A

anthrax

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12
Q

T/F: A disaster tag should be securely affixed to the patient’s bed or stretcher during an emergency to facilitate identification and treatment.

A

TRUE

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13
Q

Blast lung and tympanic membrane rupture are two injuries that are common during the ______
phase of a blast injury.

A

primary

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14
Q

The Incident Command System (ICS) is a federally mandated command structure that coordinates personnel, facilities, equipment, and
______ in any emergency situation.

A

communication

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15
Q

The prodromal phase of acute radiation exposure can last up to
______ hours after exposure.

A

48-72

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16
Q

T/F: Smallpox and botulism are two examples of category A biologic agents that may be weaponized.

A

TRUE

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17
Q

T/F: During a mass casualty incident, a person whose injuries are significant, but can wait hours without threat to life or limb, is triaged as a priority 2 and tagged with the color green.

A

FALSE

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18
Q

T/F: In the event of a natural disaster, loss of communications, potable water, and electricity is usually the greatest obstacle to a well-coordinated emergency response, and preparatory planning is essential.

A

TRUE

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19
Q

T/F: Level A of the Environmental Protection Agency’s regulations concerning personal protective equipment for health care personnel requires use of a self-contained breathing apparatus and a chemical-resistant suit with gloves and boots.

A

TRUE

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20
Q

In disaster triage, patients with injuries that are significant and require medical care but can wait hours without threat to life or limb are in the _______ category.

A

delayed AND yellow

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21
Q

T/F: The nurse monitoring a patient’s potassium level knows tall, tented, “T” waves on an ECG are an indication of hypokalemia.

A

FALSE
hyperkalemia

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22
Q

Tonicity is fluid _____
or the effect that osmotic pressure of a solution with impermeable solutes exerts on cell size because of water movement across the cell membrane.

A

tension

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23
Q

____ is the excretion of less than 400 mL or urine per day in an adult.

A

oliguria

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24
Q

T/F: Vital to the regulation of fluid and electrolyte balance, the kidneys of a well-hydrated adult excrete 1 to 2 L of urine per day.

A

True

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25
Q

____ is the unintentional administration of a nonvesicant solution or medication into surrounding tissue.

A

infiltration

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26
Q

T/F: Body fluid is located in two fluid compartments: the intracellular space (fluid in the cells) and the extracellular space (fluid outside the cells).

A

True

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27
Q

The major electrolytes in the extracellular fluid are ____
and chloride.

A

sodium

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28
Q

T/F: A nurse should assess a patient with hypervolemia for indicators of hypotension, increased hematocrit and hemoglobin, and oliguria.

A

False

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29
Q

T/F: The cardinal feature of metabolic acidosis is a decrease in the serum bicarbonate level.

A

True

30
Q

The process by which solutes move from an area of higher concentration to one of lower concentration is called ___

A

diffusion

31
Q

T/F: The sinoatrial (SA) node, with an inherent firing rate of 60 to 100 impulses/min, is considered the primary pacemaker of the heart.

A

TRUE

32
Q

T/F: An elevated blood level of the amino acid homocysteine is believed to indicate a high risk for coronary artery disease

A

True

33
Q

The S1 heart sound results from closure of the ______
and tricuspid valves.

A

mitral

34
Q

T/F: The patient undergoing nuclear imaging techniques with stress testing should be instructed not to eat or drink anything for at least 12 hours before the test.

A

False
In preparation for the pharmacologic stress test, the patient is instructed not to eat or drink anything for at least 3 hours before the test

35
Q

During_______ systole, contraction of the papillary muscles causes the chordae tendineae to become taut, keeping the valve leaflets approximated and closed.

A

ventricular

36
Q

_____ changes are recommended to lower cholesterol levels.

A

lifestyle

37
Q

The apical impulse, formerly called the point of maximum impulse (PMI), is normally palpable at the intersection of the midclavicular line of the left chest and at the ______
intercostal space.

A

fifth

38
Q

T/F: During diastole, the tricuspid and mitral valves are open, allowing the blood in the atria to flow freely into the relaxed ventricles.

A

true

39
Q

Turbulent blood flow caused by a narrowed or malfunctioning valve is called a _______, which can be heard during auscultation of the heart.

A

murmur

40
Q

T/F: Orthostatic (postural) hypotension is a sustained decrease of at least 10 mm Hg in systolic BP or 20 mm Hg in diastolic BP within 3 minutes of moving from a lying or sitting to a standing position.

A

False
Orthostatic (postural) hypotension is a sustained decrease of at least 20 mm Hg in systolic BP or 10 mm Hg in diastolic BP within 3 minutes of moving from a lying or sitting to a standing position.

41
Q

Catheter_____ therapy is a treatment that destroys specific cells that are the cause or central conduction route of a tachyarrhythmia that did not respond to medications and is not suitable for antitachycardia pacing.

A

ablation

42
Q

T/F: A patient with atrial fibrillation is at high risk for thrombus formation.

A

True

43
Q

T/F: Ventricular tachycardia is considered an emergency situation because the patient is usually (but not always) unresponsive and pulseless.

A

True

44
Q

If the tachycardia is persistent and causing hemodynamic instability, synchronized _______
is the treatment of choice.

A

cardioversion

45
Q

T/F: A patient with a permanent pacemaker should be instructed not to use a cellular phone.

A

FALSE

46
Q

Sinus _______ occurs when the SA node creates an impulse at a rate less than 60 bpm in an adult.

A

bradycardia

47
Q

Patients with atrial fibrillation are at increased risk of heart failure, _______ ischemia, and embolic events such as stroke.

A

myocardial

48
Q

The electrical stimulation of the cardiac muscle cells is called depolarization; the mechanical contraction is called _______.

A

systole

49
Q

T/F: The P wave represents atrial depolarization and atrial repolarization.

A

FALSE

50
Q

T/F: Atrial fibrillation is the most common sustained arrhythmia, affecting as many as 6.1 million Americans.

A

True

51
Q

Clinical manifestations of right-sided heart failure include dependent edema, hepatomegaly, _____, and weight gain due to fluid retention.

A

ascites

52
Q

T/F: Digitalis (digoxin) is considered the most essential and most frequently prescribed pharmacologic agent for the treatment of heart failure.

A

FALSE
most common are diuretics, angiotensin system blockers, and beta blockers

53
Q

T/F: Fluid overload and decreased tissue perfusion result when the heart cannot generate cardiac output (CO) sufficient to meet the body’s demands for oxygen and nutrients.

A

True

54
Q

Left-sided heart failure refers to failure of the left ventricle, which results in _____ congestion.

A

pulmonary

55
Q

T/F: ACE inhibitors are recommended for prevention of HF in patients at risk due to vascular disease and diabetes.

A

True

56
Q

T/F: The most common type of heart failure is heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF), or diastolic heart failure, which is characterized by myocardial stiffness.

A

FALSE
most common is systolic HF- heart failure w/ reduced ejection fraction that results in decreased blood ejected from ventricles.

57
Q

T/F: A patient with pulmonary edema should be positioned upright, preferably with the legs dangling over the side of the bed, if possible.

A

True

58
Q

Because HF is a complex and progressive condition, patients are at risk for many complications, including acute decompensated HF, pulmonary edema, _____ disease, and life-threatening dysrhythmias.

A

kidney

59
Q

Pulmonary edema can also develop slowly, especially when it is caused by
________ disorders such as kidney disease and other conditions that cause fluid overload.

A

noncardiac

60
Q

____ causes myocardial dysfunction in heart failure because it deprives heart cells of oxygen and causes cellular damage.

A

ischemia

61
Q

T/F: The primary cause of death in ARDS is nonpulmonary multiple organ dysfunction syndrome, often with sepsis.

A

TRUE

62
Q

T/F: The water level in the water seal chamber of a chest drainage system reflects the negative pressure present in the intrathoracic cavity.

A

True

63
Q

Incentive ______ is a method of deep breathing that provides visual feedback to help the patient inhale deeply and slowly and achieve maximum lung inflation.

A

spirometry

64
Q

When caring for a patient who has had a pulmonary embolism, the nurse must be alert for the potential complication of right ventricular failure or ______ shock.

A

cardiogenic

65
Q

T/F: Tachypnea, dyspnea, and mild-to-moderate hypoxemia are hallmarks of the severity of atelectasis.

A

TRUE

66
Q

T/F: Adenocarcinoma, which occurs peripherally as peripheral masses or nodules and often metastasizes, is the least prevalent carcinoma of the lung in both men and women.

A

False

67
Q

Fractures of the first three ribs are rare but can result in a high mortality rate because they are associated with ________
of the subclavian artery or vein.

A

laceration

68
Q

Nursing measures to prevent atelectasis include frequent turning, early mobilization, and strategies to ________ the lungs and to manage secretions.

A

expand

69
Q

T/F: Antibiotics are the initial medical treatment of choice in viral upper respiratory tract infections and pneumonia.

A

False

70
Q

Respiratory _____, the process of withdrawing the patient from dependence on the ventilator, takes place in three stages.

A

weaning

NRS 202 (6 decks)

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