Exam 1 Pre Quiz

Question 1

Multiple trauma is caused by a single catastrophic event that causes life-threatening injuries to at least two distinct
.

Answer 1

organs
or
organ systems

Question 2

T/F: Typically, a person with a foreign-body airway obstruction cannot speak, breathe, or cough.

Answer 2

TRUE

Question 3

If the immunization status of a patient being treated for a wound is unknown, a _____ prophylaxis must be administered.

Answer 3

tetanus

Question 4

Hemorrhage can quickly lead to signs of ______ shock, such as hypotension, tachycardia, delayed capillary refill, and decreased urine volume.

Answer 4

hypovolemic

Question 5

T/F: Emergency management of the patient with carbon monoxide poisoning includes providing 100% oxygen and monitoring the patient closely.

Answer 5

TRUE

Question 6

T/F: Nonfatal drowning is defined as survival for at least 48 hours after submersion that caused a respiratory arrest.

Answer 6

FALSE- 24 hrs after

Question 7

The person who has ingested a corrosive poison (strong acid or alkaline substance) is given water or ____ to drink for dilution before vomiting is induced.

Answer 7

milk

Question 8

T/F: Delirium tremens is the most severe form of alcohol withdrawal syndrome.

Answer 8

True

Question 9

The _____ is the most frequently injured solid organ when a person experiences a penetrating abdominal injury (gunshot or stab wound).

Answer 9

liver

Question 10

T/F: Primary survey is the assessment of the patient triaged to the emergent or resuscitation category that focuses on stabilizing life-threatening conditions.

Answer 10

TRUE

Question 11

______ is recognized as the most likely weaponized biologic agent available.

Answer 11

anthrax

Question 12

T/F: A disaster tag should be securely affixed to the patient’s bed or stretcher during an emergency to facilitate identification and treatment.

Answer 12

TRUE

Question 13

Blast lung and tympanic membrane rupture are two injuries that are common during the ______
phase of a blast injury.

Answer 13

primary

Question 14

The Incident Command System (ICS) is a federally mandated command structure that coordinates personnel, facilities, equipment, and
______ in any emergency situation.

Answer 14

communication

Question 15

The prodromal phase of acute radiation exposure can last up to
______ hours after exposure.

Answer 15

48-72

Question 16

T/F: Smallpox and botulism are two examples of category A biologic agents that may be weaponized.

Answer 16

TRUE

Question 17

T/F: During a mass casualty incident, a person whose injuries are significant, but can wait hours without threat to life or limb, is triaged as a priority 2 and tagged with the color green.

Answer 17

FALSE

Question 18

T/F: In the event of a natural disaster, loss of communications, potable water, and electricity is usually the greatest obstacle to a well-coordinated emergency response, and preparatory planning is essential.

Answer 18

TRUE

Question 19

T/F: Level A of the Environmental Protection Agency’s regulations concerning personal protective equipment for health care personnel requires use of a self-contained breathing apparatus and a chemical-resistant suit with gloves and boots.

Answer 19

TRUE

Question 20

In disaster triage, patients with injuries that are significant and require medical care but can wait hours without threat to life or limb are in the _______ category.

Answer 20

delayed AND yellow

Question 21

T/F: The nurse monitoring a patient’s potassium level knows tall, tented, “T” waves on an ECG are an indication of hypokalemia.

Answer 21

FALSE
hyperkalemia

Question 22

Tonicity is fluid _____
or the effect that osmotic pressure of a solution with impermeable solutes exerts on cell size because of water movement across the cell membrane.

Answer 22

tension

Question 23

____ is the excretion of less than 400 mL or urine per day in an adult.

Answer 23

oliguria

Question 24

T/F: Vital to the regulation of fluid and electrolyte balance, the kidneys of a well-hydrated adult excrete 1 to 2 L of urine per day.

Answer 24

True

Question 25

____ is the unintentional administration of a nonvesicant solution or medication into surrounding tissue.

Answer 25

infiltration

Question 26

T/F: Body fluid is located in two fluid compartments: the intracellular space (fluid in the cells) and the extracellular space (fluid outside the cells).

Answer 26

True

Question 27

The major electrolytes in the extracellular fluid are ____ and chloride.

Answer 27

sodium

Question 28

T/F: A nurse should assess a patient with hypervolemia for indicators of hypotension, increased hematocrit and hemoglobin, and oliguria.

Answer 28

False

Question 29

T/F: The cardinal feature of metabolic acidosis is a decrease in the serum bicarbonate level.

Answer 29

True

Question 30

The process by which solutes move from an area of higher concentration to one of lower concentration is called ___

Answer 30

diffusion

Question 31

T/F: The sinoatrial (SA) node, with an inherent firing rate of 60 to 100 impulses/min, is considered the primary pacemaker of the heart.

Answer 31

TRUE

Question 32

T/F: An elevated blood level of the amino acid homocysteine is believed to indicate a high risk for coronary artery disease

Answer 32

True

Question 33

The S1 heart sound results from closure of the ______ and tricuspid valves.

Answer 33

mitral

Question 34

T/F: The patient undergoing nuclear imaging techniques with stress testing should be instructed not to eat or drink anything for at least 12 hours before the test.

Answer 34

False In preparation for the pharmacologic stress test, the patient is instructed not to eat or drink anything for at least 3 hours before the test

Question 35

During_______ systole, contraction of the papillary muscles causes the chordae tendineae to become taut, keeping the valve leaflets approximated and closed.

Answer 35

ventricular

Question 36

_____ changes are recommended to lower cholesterol levels.

Answer 36

lifestyle

Question 37

The apical impulse, formerly called the point of maximum impulse (PMI), is normally palpable at the intersection of the midclavicular line of the left chest and at the ______ intercostal space.

Answer 37

fifth

Question 38

T/F: During diastole, the tricuspid and mitral valves are open, allowing the blood in the atria to flow freely into the relaxed ventricles.

Answer 38

true

Question 39

Turbulent blood flow caused by a narrowed or malfunctioning valve is called a _______, which can be heard during auscultation of the heart.

Answer 39

murmur

Question 40

T/F: Orthostatic (postural) hypotension is a sustained decrease of at least 10 mm Hg in systolic BP or 20 mm Hg in diastolic BP within 3 minutes of moving from a lying or sitting to a standing position.

Answer 40

False Orthostatic (postural) hypotension is a sustained decrease of at least 20 mm Hg in systolic BP or 10 mm Hg in diastolic BP within 3 minutes of moving from a lying or sitting to a standing position.

Question 41

Catheter_____ therapy is a treatment that destroys specific cells that are the cause or central conduction route of a tachyarrhythmia that did not respond to medications and is not suitable for antitachycardia pacing.

Answer 41

ablation

Question 42

T/F: A patient with atrial fibrillation is at high risk for thrombus formation.

Answer 42

True

Question 43

T/F: Ventricular tachycardia is considered an emergency situation because the patient is usually (but not always) unresponsive and pulseless.

Answer 43

True

Question 44

If the tachycardia is persistent and causing hemodynamic instability, synchronized _______ is the treatment of choice.

Answer 44

cardioversion

Question 45

T/F: A patient with a permanent pacemaker should be instructed not to use a cellular phone.

Answer 45

FALSE

Question 46

Sinus _______ occurs when the SA node creates an impulse at a rate less than 60 bpm in an adult.

Answer 46

bradycardia

Question 47

Patients with atrial fibrillation are at increased risk of heart failure, _______ ischemia, and embolic events such as stroke.

Answer 47

myocardial

Question 48

The electrical stimulation of the cardiac muscle cells is called depolarization; the mechanical contraction is called _______.

Answer 48

systole

Question 49

T/F: The P wave represents atrial depolarization and atrial repolarization.

Answer 49

FALSE

Question 50

T/F: Atrial fibrillation is the most common sustained arrhythmia, affecting as many as 6.1 million Americans.

Answer 50

True

Question 51

Clinical manifestations of right-sided heart failure include dependent edema, hepatomegaly, _____, and weight gain due to fluid retention.

Answer 51

ascites

Question 52

T/F: Digitalis (digoxin) is considered the most essential and most frequently prescribed pharmacologic agent for the treatment of heart failure.

Answer 52

FALSE most common are diuretics, angiotensin system blockers, and beta blockers

Question 53

T/F: Fluid overload and decreased tissue perfusion result when the heart cannot generate cardiac output (CO) sufficient to meet the body's demands for oxygen and nutrients.

Answer 53

True

Question 54

Left-sided heart failure refers to failure of the left ventricle, which results in _____ congestion.

Answer 54

pulmonary

Question 55

T/F: ACE inhibitors are recommended for prevention of HF in patients at risk due to vascular disease and diabetes.

Answer 55

True

Question 56

T/F: The most common type of heart failure is heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF), or diastolic heart failure, which is characterized by myocardial stiffness.

Answer 56

FALSE most common is systolic HF- heart failure w/ reduced ejection fraction that results in decreased blood ejected from ventricles.

Question 57

T/F: A patient with pulmonary edema should be positioned upright, preferably with the legs dangling over the side of the bed, if possible.

Answer 57

True

Question 58

Because HF is a complex and progressive condition, patients are at risk for many complications, including acute decompensated HF, pulmonary edema, _____ disease, and life-threatening dysrhythmias.

Answer 58

kidney

Question 59

Pulmonary edema can also develop slowly, especially when it is caused by ________ disorders such as kidney disease and other conditions that cause fluid overload.

Answer 59

noncardiac

Question 60

____ causes myocardial dysfunction in heart failure because it deprives heart cells of oxygen and causes cellular damage.

Answer 60

ischemia

Question 61

T/F: The primary cause of death in ARDS is nonpulmonary multiple organ dysfunction syndrome, often with sepsis.

Answer 61

TRUE

Question 62

T/F: The water level in the water seal chamber of a chest drainage system reflects the negative pressure present in the intrathoracic cavity.

Answer 62

True

Question 63

Incentive ______ is a method of deep breathing that provides visual feedback to help the patient inhale deeply and slowly and achieve maximum lung inflation.

Answer 63

spirometry

Question 64

When caring for a patient who has had a pulmonary embolism, the nurse must be alert for the potential complication of right ventricular failure or ______ shock.

Answer 64

cardiogenic

Question 65

T/F: Tachypnea, dyspnea, and mild-to-moderate hypoxemia are hallmarks of the severity of atelectasis.

Answer 65

TRUE

Question 66

T/F: Adenocarcinoma, which occurs peripherally as peripheral masses or nodules and often metastasizes, is the least prevalent carcinoma of the lung in both men and women.

Answer 66

False

Question 67

Fractures of the first three ribs are rare but can result in a high mortality rate because they are associated with ________ of the subclavian artery or vein.

Answer 67

laceration

Question 68

Nursing measures to prevent atelectasis include frequent turning, early mobilization, and strategies to ________ the lungs and to manage secretions.

Answer 68

expand

Question 69

T/F: Antibiotics are the initial medical treatment of choice in viral upper respiratory tract infections and pneumonia.

Answer 69

False

Question 70

Respiratory _____, the process of withdrawing the patient from dependence on the ventilator, takes place in three stages.

Answer 70

weaning