Exam 1 Pre Quiz Flashcards
Multiple trauma is caused by a single catastrophic event that causes life-threatening injuries to at least two distinct
.
organs
or
organ systems
T/F: Typically, a person with a foreign-body airway obstruction cannot speak, breathe, or cough.
TRUE
If the immunization status of a patient being treated for a wound is unknown, a _____ prophylaxis must be administered.
tetanus
Hemorrhage can quickly lead to signs of ______ shock, such as hypotension, tachycardia, delayed capillary refill, and decreased urine volume.
hypovolemic
T/F: Emergency management of the patient with carbon monoxide poisoning includes providing 100% oxygen and monitoring the patient closely.
TRUE
T/F: Nonfatal drowning is defined as survival for at least 48 hours after submersion that caused a respiratory arrest.
FALSE- 24 hrs after
The person who has ingested a corrosive poison (strong acid or alkaline substance) is given water or ____ to drink for dilution before vomiting is induced.
milk
T/F: Delirium tremens is the most severe form of alcohol withdrawal syndrome.
True
The _____ is the most frequently injured solid organ when a person experiences a penetrating abdominal injury (gunshot or stab wound).
liver
T/F: Primary survey is the assessment of the patient triaged to the emergent or resuscitation category that focuses on stabilizing life-threatening conditions.
TRUE
______ is recognized as the most likely weaponized biologic agent available.
anthrax
T/F: A disaster tag should be securely affixed to the patient’s bed or stretcher during an emergency to facilitate identification and treatment.
TRUE
Blast lung and tympanic membrane rupture are two injuries that are common during the ______
phase of a blast injury.
primary
The Incident Command System (ICS) is a federally mandated command structure that coordinates personnel, facilities, equipment, and
______ in any emergency situation.
communication
The prodromal phase of acute radiation exposure can last up to
______ hours after exposure.
48-72
T/F: Smallpox and botulism are two examples of category A biologic agents that may be weaponized.
TRUE
T/F: During a mass casualty incident, a person whose injuries are significant, but can wait hours without threat to life or limb, is triaged as a priority 2 and tagged with the color green.
FALSE
T/F: In the event of a natural disaster, loss of communications, potable water, and electricity is usually the greatest obstacle to a well-coordinated emergency response, and preparatory planning is essential.
TRUE
T/F: Level A of the Environmental Protection Agency’s regulations concerning personal protective equipment for health care personnel requires use of a self-contained breathing apparatus and a chemical-resistant suit with gloves and boots.
TRUE
In disaster triage, patients with injuries that are significant and require medical care but can wait hours without threat to life or limb are in the _______ category.
delayed AND yellow
T/F: The nurse monitoring a patient’s potassium level knows tall, tented, “T” waves on an ECG are an indication of hypokalemia.
FALSE
hyperkalemia
Tonicity is fluid _____
or the effect that osmotic pressure of a solution with impermeable solutes exerts on cell size because of water movement across the cell membrane.
tension
____ is the excretion of less than 400 mL or urine per day in an adult.
oliguria
T/F: Vital to the regulation of fluid and electrolyte balance, the kidneys of a well-hydrated adult excrete 1 to 2 L of urine per day.
True
____ is the unintentional administration of a nonvesicant solution or medication into surrounding tissue.
infiltration
T/F: Body fluid is located in two fluid compartments: the intracellular space (fluid in the cells) and the extracellular space (fluid outside the cells).
True
The major electrolytes in the extracellular fluid are ____
and chloride.
sodium
T/F: A nurse should assess a patient with hypervolemia for indicators of hypotension, increased hematocrit and hemoglobin, and oliguria.
False
T/F: The cardinal feature of metabolic acidosis is a decrease in the serum bicarbonate level.
True
The process by which solutes move from an area of higher concentration to one of lower concentration is called ___
diffusion
T/F: The sinoatrial (SA) node, with an inherent firing rate of 60 to 100 impulses/min, is considered the primary pacemaker of the heart.
TRUE
T/F: An elevated blood level of the amino acid homocysteine is believed to indicate a high risk for coronary artery disease
True
The S1 heart sound results from closure of the ______
and tricuspid valves.
mitral
T/F: The patient undergoing nuclear imaging techniques with stress testing should be instructed not to eat or drink anything for at least 12 hours before the test.
False
In preparation for the pharmacologic stress test, the patient is instructed not to eat or drink anything for at least 3 hours before the test
During_______ systole, contraction of the papillary muscles causes the chordae tendineae to become taut, keeping the valve leaflets approximated and closed.
ventricular
_____ changes are recommended to lower cholesterol levels.
lifestyle
The apical impulse, formerly called the point of maximum impulse (PMI), is normally palpable at the intersection of the midclavicular line of the left chest and at the ______
intercostal space.
fifth
T/F: During diastole, the tricuspid and mitral valves are open, allowing the blood in the atria to flow freely into the relaxed ventricles.
true
Turbulent blood flow caused by a narrowed or malfunctioning valve is called a _______, which can be heard during auscultation of the heart.
murmur
T/F: Orthostatic (postural) hypotension is a sustained decrease of at least 10 mm Hg in systolic BP or 20 mm Hg in diastolic BP within 3 minutes of moving from a lying or sitting to a standing position.
False
Orthostatic (postural) hypotension is a sustained decrease of at least 20 mm Hg in systolic BP or 10 mm Hg in diastolic BP within 3 minutes of moving from a lying or sitting to a standing position.
Catheter_____ therapy is a treatment that destroys specific cells that are the cause or central conduction route of a tachyarrhythmia that did not respond to medications and is not suitable for antitachycardia pacing.
ablation
T/F: A patient with atrial fibrillation is at high risk for thrombus formation.
True
T/F: Ventricular tachycardia is considered an emergency situation because the patient is usually (but not always) unresponsive and pulseless.
True
If the tachycardia is persistent and causing hemodynamic instability, synchronized _______
is the treatment of choice.
cardioversion
T/F: A patient with a permanent pacemaker should be instructed not to use a cellular phone.
FALSE
Sinus _______ occurs when the SA node creates an impulse at a rate less than 60 bpm in an adult.
bradycardia
Patients with atrial fibrillation are at increased risk of heart failure, _______ ischemia, and embolic events such as stroke.
myocardial
The electrical stimulation of the cardiac muscle cells is called depolarization; the mechanical contraction is called _______.
systole
T/F: The P wave represents atrial depolarization and atrial repolarization.
FALSE
T/F: Atrial fibrillation is the most common sustained arrhythmia, affecting as many as 6.1 million Americans.
True
Clinical manifestations of right-sided heart failure include dependent edema, hepatomegaly, _____, and weight gain due to fluid retention.
ascites
T/F: Digitalis (digoxin) is considered the most essential and most frequently prescribed pharmacologic agent for the treatment of heart failure.
FALSE
most common are diuretics, angiotensin system blockers, and beta blockers
T/F: Fluid overload and decreased tissue perfusion result when the heart cannot generate cardiac output (CO) sufficient to meet the body’s demands for oxygen and nutrients.
True
Left-sided heart failure refers to failure of the left ventricle, which results in _____ congestion.
pulmonary
T/F: ACE inhibitors are recommended for prevention of HF in patients at risk due to vascular disease and diabetes.
True
T/F: The most common type of heart failure is heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF), or diastolic heart failure, which is characterized by myocardial stiffness.
FALSE
most common is systolic HF- heart failure w/ reduced ejection fraction that results in decreased blood ejected from ventricles.
T/F: A patient with pulmonary edema should be positioned upright, preferably with the legs dangling over the side of the bed, if possible.
True
Because HF is a complex and progressive condition, patients are at risk for many complications, including acute decompensated HF, pulmonary edema, _____ disease, and life-threatening dysrhythmias.
kidney
Pulmonary edema can also develop slowly, especially when it is caused by
________ disorders such as kidney disease and other conditions that cause fluid overload.
noncardiac
____ causes myocardial dysfunction in heart failure because it deprives heart cells of oxygen and causes cellular damage.
ischemia
T/F: The primary cause of death in ARDS is nonpulmonary multiple organ dysfunction syndrome, often with sepsis.
TRUE
T/F: The water level in the water seal chamber of a chest drainage system reflects the negative pressure present in the intrathoracic cavity.
True
Incentive ______ is a method of deep breathing that provides visual feedback to help the patient inhale deeply and slowly and achieve maximum lung inflation.
spirometry
When caring for a patient who has had a pulmonary embolism, the nurse must be alert for the potential complication of right ventricular failure or ______ shock.
cardiogenic
T/F: Tachypnea, dyspnea, and mild-to-moderate hypoxemia are hallmarks of the severity of atelectasis.
TRUE
T/F: Adenocarcinoma, which occurs peripherally as peripheral masses or nodules and often metastasizes, is the least prevalent carcinoma of the lung in both men and women.
False
Fractures of the first three ribs are rare but can result in a high mortality rate because they are associated with ________
of the subclavian artery or vein.
laceration
Nursing measures to prevent atelectasis include frequent turning, early mobilization, and strategies to ________ the lungs and to manage secretions.
expand
T/F: Antibiotics are the initial medical treatment of choice in viral upper respiratory tract infections and pneumonia.
False
Respiratory _____, the process of withdrawing the patient from dependence on the ventilator, takes place in three stages.
weaning
