Exam 2 Pre Quiz

Question 1

T/F During assessment of an unconscious patient, the nurse notes “fixed, dilated pupils” and understands that brain injury is at the level of the midbrain.

Answer 1

True

Question 2

T/F The cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) must be maintained at 50 mm Hg to ensure adequate blood flow to the brain.

Answer 2

False
The normal CPP is 70 to 100 mm Hg

Question 3

_____ refers to the brain’s ability to change the diameter of blood vessels to maintain cerebral blood flow.

Answer 3

autoregulation

Question 4

T/F: The first treatment priority for a patient with an altered level of consciousness is to obtain and maintain a patent airway.

Answer 4

True

Question 5

_____ refers to abnormal flexion of the upper extremities and extension of the lower extremities as neurologic function deteriorates and the patient becomes comatose.

Answer 5

decortication

Question 6

Using the Glasgow Coma Scale, the nurse gives a patient who is brain dead a score of ___

Answer 6

3

Question 7

The most frequently administered hyperosmotic agent used to reduce cerebral edema before intracranial surgery is ______.

Answer 7

mannitol

Question 8

T/F: Nursing intervention when caring for a patient with ICP is to maintain the head of the bed at 30 degrees and maintain alignment of the head.

Answer 8

True

Question 9

T/F: The earliest sign of increasing ICP is a change in LOC.

Answer 9

True

Question 10

______ is an abnormal episode of motor, sensory, autonomic, or psychic activity resulting from a sudden, abnormal, uncontrolled electrical discharge from cerebral neurons.

Answer 10

seizure

Question 11

The lowest score of 3 on the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) indicates the ______ responsive level of consciousness.

Answer 11

least

Question 12

T/F: Young age, male gender, and alcohol and drug use are risk factors for spinal cord injury.

Answer 12

TRUE

Question 13

T/F: Basilar skull fractures are suspected when cerebrospinal fluid escapes from the ears and the nose

Answer 13

TRUE

Question 14

T/F: A concussion results in any loss of consciousness lasting from seconds to minutes.

Answer 14

False

Question 15

T/F: The person with tetraplegia or paraplegia must not remain in any position for longer than 2 hours to prevent the formation of pressure ulcers.

Answer 15

True

Question 16

Autonomic dysreflexia occurs among patients with spinal cord lesions above thoracic vertebra ______ after spinal shock has subsided.

Answer 16

T6

Question 17

T/F: Concussion is the condition of temporary loss of neurologic function with no apparent structural damage to the brain.

Answer 17

True

Question 18

The three cardinal signs of brain death on clinical examination are coma, the absence of brainstem reflexes, and ______
.

Answer 18

apnea

Question 19

The most common sites for pressure ulcers, a significant complication of spinal cord injury, are over the ischial tuberosity, the greater trochanter, the
______, and the occiput.

Answer 19

sacrum

Question 20

The most common causes of traumatic brain injury are _____.

Answer 20

falls

Question 21

_________ syndrome is an autoimmune attack on myelin, a complex substance that covers nerves.

Answer 21

Guillain–Barré: an autoimmune attack on the peripheral nerve myelin. The result is acute, rapid segmental demyelination of peripheral nerves and some cranial nerves, producing ascending weakness with dyskinesia (inability to execute voluntary movements), hyporeflexia, and paresthesias (a sensation of numbness, tingling, or a “pins and needles” sensation).

Question 22

T/F: Meningeal irritation is suspected when a patient exhibits a negative, bilateral Kernig sign.

Answer 22

False-
it would be positive
Kernig sign. When the patient is lying with the thigh flexed on the abdomen, the leg cannot be completely extended (see Fig.64-1A). When Kernig sign is bilateral, meningeal irritation is suspected.
B. Brudzinski sign. When the patient’s neck is flexed (after ruling out cervical trauma or injury), flexion of the knees and hips is produced; when the lower extremity of one side is passively flexed, a similar movement is seen in the opposite extremity (see Fig.64-1B). Brudzinski sign is a more sensitive indicator of meningeal irritation than Kernig sign

Question 23

T/F: The initial manifestation of myasthenia gravis in most patients involves the ocular muscles.

Answer 23

TRUE it is an autoimmune disorder affecting the myoneural junction, is characterized by varying degrees of weakness of the voluntary muscles.

Question 24

T/F: Herpes simplex virus is the most common cause of acute encephalitis in the United States.

Answer 24

True

Question 25

The most common predisposing conditions for brain abscesses among immunocompetent adults are otitis media and ________________.

Answer 25

rhinosinusitis

Question 26

Bell palsy is caused by the unilateral inflammation of the __________ cranial nerve which results in weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles on the affected side.

Answer 26

seventh- facial nerve

Question 27

T/F: The oral disease-modifying agent fingolimod, recently approved by the FDA, has shown to decrease relapse rates in multiple sclerosis by approximately 50%.

Answer 27

true

Question 28

Most patients diagnosed with _______________ have a remitting-relapsing course.

Answer 28

multiple sclerosis

Question 29

T/F: Trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux) is a condition of the 12th cranial nerve characterized by paroxysms of sudden pain.

Answer 29

FALSE condition of the 5th cranial nerve the 12th cranial nerve is the hypoglossal nerve and controls the muscle that moves the tongue

Question 30

The primary vector in North America that is responsible for transmitting several types of viruses that cause encephalitis is the ___

Answer 30

mosquito 🦟

Question 31

Bladder ______ is a noninvasive method of measuring urine volume in the bladder that can be performed by the nurse at the bedside.

Answer 31

ultrasonography

Question 32

T/F: The medulla contains the nephrons, the structural and functional units of the kidney responsible for urine formation.

Answer 32

False nephrons are in the lobes

Question 33

T/F: When fluid intake decreases, specific gravity increases.

Answer 33

True

Question 34

Regulation of sodium volume excretion depends on ______, a hormone synthesized and released from the adrenal cortex.

Answer 34

aldosterone

Question 35

T/F: The angling of the ureterovesical junction is the primary factor preventing backward movement of urine from the bladder toward the kidney.

Answer 35

True

Question 36

The normal adult bladder capacity is _____ mL of urine.

Answer 36

400 to 500

Question 37

T/F: Urea is an abnormal constituent of urine.

Answer 37

False it is found there b/c it is filtered by the kidneys

Question 38

T/F: The glomerular filtration rate decreases at a yearly decline of about 1 mL/min after age 40.

Answer 38

True

Question 39

Enclosed in an epithelial structure called Bowman capsule, the _____ is a unique network of capillaries that form that part of the nephron through which filtration occurs.

Answer 39

glomerulus

Question 40

One pound is equal to approximately _____ mL.

Answer 40

500

Question 41

T/F: Kidney transplantation has become the treatment of choice for most patients with end-stage kidney disease.

Answer 41

True

Question 42

The most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain in an acutely ill patient with a kidney disorder is ______ which must be assessed daily.

Answer 42

weight

Question 43

T/F: The glomerular filtration rate and the creatinine clearance decrease with end-stage kidney disease.

Answer 43

True

Question 44

Any condition that damages the glomerular membrane and results in increased permeability to plasma proteins is _______ syndrome.

Answer 44

nephrotic

Question 45

______ is the most immediate life threatening of the fluid and electrolyte imbalances that occur in patients with kidney disorders.

Answer 45

hyperkalemia

Question 46

A widely accepted criterion for acute kidney injury is a 50% or greater increase in serum ______ above baseline

Answer 46

creatinine

Question 47

T/F: Peritonitis is the most common and the most serious complication of peritoneal dialysis.

Answer 47

True

Question 48

T/F: In chronic glomerulonephritis, the kidneys are reduced to as little as 50% of their normal size.

Answer 48

False

Question 49

_____ is used for a patient with acute kidney injury until kidneys resume function and for long-term replacement therapy for chronic kidney disease and end-stage kidney disease

Answer 49

hemodialysis

Question 50

T/F: The systematic approach to ethical decision making can follow the steps of the nursing process.

Answer 50

True

Question 51

T/F: Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) is a standard course that all nursing students must pass in order to obtain licensure.

Answer 51

False

Question 52

Wellness involves being proactive and being involved in self-care activities aimed toward a state of ______, psychological, social, and spiritual well-being.

Answer 52

physical

Question 53

Evidence-based practice involves identification and evaluation of current literature and reliable ____ findings, as well as incorporation of the findings into patient care.

Answer 53

research

Question 54

T/F: Advance directives are legal documents that specify a person's wishes before hospitalization and provide valuable information that may assist health care providers in decision making.

Answer 54

True

Question 55

The second step in the nursing process is ______, the statement of specific patient problems that can be managed by independent nursing interventions.

Answer 55

diagnosis

Question 56

T/F The implementation phase of the nursing process involves identifying nursing diagnoses and collaborative problems.

Answer 56

False

Question 57

The ethics theory of _____ is based on the concept of "the greatest good for the greatest number."

Answer 57

utilitarianism

Question 58

Addressing needs by priority reflects _____ hierarchy of needs, which is a useful framework that can be applied to various nursing models.

Answer 58

MAslow

Question 59

T/F: How health is perceived depends on how health is defined.

Answer 59

True

Question 60

______ is the expected course of an illness and the chance for recovery.

Answer 60

prognosis

Question 61

T/F: Patient and family awareness of prognosis is a key factor in acceptance of and planning for death.

Answer 61

True

Question 62

T/F: Hours before death, the patient's skin shows mottling of extremities and periods of apnea are observed.

Answer 62

True

Question 63

T/F: The HPNA prefers physician-assisted death to offering end-of-life care.

Answer 63

False- HPNA is Hospice and Palliative Nurses Association

Question 64

T/F: Palliative care is offered in an outpatient-based setting.

Answer 64

True

Question 65

T/F: A living will is a medical order to withhold cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in the event of cardiac arrest.

Answer 65

False- a living will is a type of advance directive in which the individual documents treatment preferences. It provides instructions for care in the event that the signer is terminally ill and not able to communicate their wishes directly and often is accompanied by a durable power of attorney for health care. This is also known as a medical directive or treatment directive. Do not resuscitate: a medical order to withhold cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in the event of cardiac arrest. In some settings, the term “allow natural death” (AND) is used in place of “do not resuscitate” (DNR)

Question 66

Eligibility for hospice care includes a life expectancy of _____ months or less.

Answer 66

six

Question 67

_______ includes personal feelings that accompany an anticipated or actual loss.

Answer 67

grief

Question 68

A patient/person and family-centered approach to care that attends to the physical, functional, psychological, spiritual, and existential aspects of a serious illness is known as _______ care.

Answer 68

palliative

Question 69

_____ is an uncomfortable awareness of breathing that is one of the most prevalent symptoms in patients approaching the end of life.

Answer 69

dyspnea

Question 70

Oversecretion of the anterior pituitary gland most commonly involves ACTH or growth hormone and results in ______ syndrome or acromegaly.

Answer 70

Cushing's

Question 71

Following thyroid surgery, the patient should be monitored closely for signs of ______, an indicator of a disturbance in calcium metabolism due to injury or removal of the parathyroid gland.

Answer 71

tetany

Question 72

_____ disease occurs when the adrenal cortex function is inadequate to meet the patient's need for cortical hormones.

Answer 72

Addison's

Question 73

T/F: Extreme fatigue, hair loss, brittle nails, and dry skin are common clinical manifestations of hyperthyroidism.

Answer 73

False- hypothyroid Hyper is hyper

Question 74

T/F: Thyroidectomy is the treatment of choice for thyroid cancer.

Answer 74

True

Question 75

T/F: Acute hypercalcemic crisis occurs with extreme elevation of serum calcium levels and can be life threatening.

Answer 75

True

Question 76

T/F: The major function of the parathyroid hormone is the regulation of serum calcium.

Answer 76

True

Question 77

T/F: Iodine is essential to the thyroid gland for the synthesis of its hormones.

Answer 77

True

Question 78

The major action of the ______ is controlling the release of pituitary hormones.

Answer 78

hypothalamus

Question 79

_____ disease, an autoimmune disorder, is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism.

Answer 79

Graves

Question 80

T/F: Latent autoimmune diabetes of adults (LADA) is a subtype of diabetes in which progression of autoimmune beta-cell destruction in the pancreas is slower than in types 1 and 2 diabetes.

Answer 80

True

Question 81

The main goal of diabetes treatment is to normalize insulin activity and blood glucose levels to reduce the development of vascular and ______ complications.

Answer 81

neuropathic

Question 82

T/F: Regular insulin is a rapid-acting insulin that has a duration of 4 to 6 hours.

Answer 82

False

Question 83

Classic clinical manifestations of diabetes include polyuria, polydipsia, and _____.

Answer 83

polyphagia

Question 84

The _______ phenomenon is an example of morning hyperglycemia that is characterized by a relatively normal blood glucose level until approximately 3:00 AM when blood glucose levels begin to rise.

Answer 84

dawn

Question 85

T/F: When mixing a short-acting insulin and a longer-acting insulin, the ADA recommends the regular insulin be drawn up first.

Answer 85

True

Question 86

The three main clinical features of diabetic ketoacidosis are hyperglycemia, dehydration with electrolyte loss, and _____

Answer 86

acidosis

Question 87

T/F: Type 1 diabetes, which affects approximately 90% to 95% of people with the disease, is characterized by insulin resistance and impaired insulin secretion.

Answer 87

False

Question 88

The American Dietetic Association recommends that for all levels of caloric intake, the percentage of calories from carbohydrates should not exceed _____%.

Answer 88

50 to 60

Question 89

T/F: Proliferative retinopathy, a diabetic microvascular disease, represents the greatest threat to vision; it is characterized by the proliferation of new blood vessels growing from the retina into the vitreous.

Answer 89

True