exam 3 (practice questions) Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Which of the following statements supports the argument that viruses are nonliving?

A

they do not carry out metabolic processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following processes can viruses carry out?

A

they can use the host cell to copy themselves and make viral proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the main structural difference between viruses with envelopes and viruses without envelopes?

A

Viruses with envelopes have a phospholipid membrane outside their capsid, whereas viruses without envelopes do not have a phospholipid membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The host range of a virus is determined by ________

A

the proteins on its surface and that of the host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following events or characteristics accounts for someone who has had regular herpesvirus-mediated cold sores or genital sore flare-ups?

A

copies of the herpesvirus genome permanently maintained in host nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following characteristics is typical of the lytic cycle of a bacteriophage?

A

A large number of phages are released at a time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describes the lysogenic cycle of lambda (λ) phage?

A

The phage genome is integrated in the host chromosome where it is replicated along with the host genome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following characteristics correctly describes retroviruses?

A

They have a single-stranded RNA that acts as a template for DNA synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses?

A

It uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The virus genome and viral proteins are assembled into virus particles during which of the following parts of the reproductive cycle?

A

the lytic cycle only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following viruses would most likely have reverse transcriptase inside them?

A

an RNA-based lysogenic virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following human diseases is caused by a virus that requires reverse
transcriptase to transcribe its genome inside the host cell?

A

AIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

why do RNA viruses appear to have higher rates of mutation?

A

replication of their genomes does not involve proofreading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Effective antiviral drugs are usually associated with which of the following properties?

A

interference with viral replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following statements best reflects what we know about how the flu virus moves between species?

A

An animal such as a pig is infected with more than one virus, genetic recombination occurs,
the new virus mutates, the virus is passed to a new species such as a bird, and the virus mutates again and can now be transmitted to humans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why do scientists consider HIV to be an emerging virus?

A

HIV suddenly became apparent and widespread in the 1980s.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A population of viruses with similar characteristics is called a ________

A

class

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Emerging viruses arise by

A
  • mutation of existing viruses
  • the spread of existing viruses to new host species
  • the spread of existing viruses more widely within their host species
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

RNA viruses require their own supply of certain enzymes because

A

host cells lack enzymes that can replicate the viral genome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Eukaryotes that are not closely related and that do not share many anatomical similarities can
still be placed together on the same phylogenetic tree by comparing their ________.

A

homologous genes that are highly conserved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which statement represents the best explanation for the observation that the nuclear DNA of
wolves and domestic dogs has a very high degree of sequence homology? Dogs and wolves

A

share a very recent common ancestor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The most important feature that permits a gene to act as a molecular clock is ________

A

a reliable average rate of mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Molecular clocks are more reliable when ________

A

a significant proportion of mutations are not acted upon by natural selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following would, if it had acted upon a gene, prevent this gene from acting as a
reliable molecular clock?

A

natural selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which eukaryotic kingdom includes members that are the result of endosymbioses that
included an ancient aerobic bacterium and an ancient cyanobacterium?

A

plantae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What kind of evidence has recently made it necessary to assign the prokaryotes to either of
two different domains, rather than assigning all prokaryotes to the same kingdom?

A

rRNA genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In a comparison of birds and mammals, the condition of having four limbs is

A

a shared ancestral character

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A bacterium’s ability to survive in a human who is taking penicillin pulls may be due to the presence of ________

A

a gram-negative cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Adherence to the intestinal lining by this bacterium is due to its possession of _______

A

fimbriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In which feature should one be able to locate a complete chromosome of this bacterium?

A

nucleiod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following observations about flagella is accurate and is consistent with the scientific conclusion that the flagella from eukaryotes and bacteria evolved independently?

A

The protein structure and the mechanism of movement in eukaryotes flagella are different from those of bacteria flagella.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In a bacterium that possesses antibiotic resistance and the potential to persist through very adverse conditions, such as freezing, drying, or high temperatures, DNA should be located within, or be part of, which structures?

A

plasmids, nucleoid, and endospore

33
Q

If the experimental population of E. coli lacks an F factor or F plasmid, and if bacteriophages are excluded from the bacterial cultures, then beneficial mutations might be transmitted horizontally to other E. coli cells via _______

A

transformation

34
Q

heterotrophs and autotrophs differ in their

A

sources of carbon

35
Q

While examining a rock surface, you have discovered an interesting new organism. Which of the following criteria will allow you to classify the organism as belonging to Bacteria but not Archaea or Eukarya?

A

Cell walls are made primarily of peptidoglycan

36
Q

Which of the following describe all existing bacteria?

A

tiny, ubiquitous, metabolically diverse

37
Q

You have found a new prokaryote. What line of evidence would support your hypothesis that the organism is a cyanobacterium?

A

It is able to form colonies and produce oxygen

38
Q

Which of the following traits do archaeans and bacteria share?

A

lack of a nuclear envelope and presence of circular chromosome

39
Q

Genetic variation in bacterial populations cannot result from

A

meiosis

40
Q

Photoautotrophs use

A

light as an energy source and CO2 as a carbon source

41
Q

The chloroplasts of land plants are thought to have been derived according to which evolutionary sequence?

A

cyanobacteria → green algae → land plants

42
Q

A particular species of protist has obtained a chloroplast via secondary endosymbiosis. You know this because the chloroplasts ________

A

have three or four membranes

43
Q

all protists are ________

A

eukaryotic

44
Q

Trypanosome infections evade attacks by host immune systems through which of the
following mechanisms?

A

production of new cell-surface proteins with a different molecular structure by each new generation

45
Q

Many parasitic members of the excavates lack plastids and have highly reduced mitochondria. Which of the following statements explains these observations?

A

These parasites live in dark, low-oxygen conditions and therefore loss of genes for plastids and mitochondria did not result in lower fitness.

46
Q

Prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella _______

A

have different structures

47
Q

When a mosquito infected with Plasmodium first bites a human, the Plasmodium _______

A

cells infect the human liver cells

48
Q

Which two genera have members that can evade the human immune system by frequently changing their surface proteins?

A

Plasmodium and Trypanosoma

49
Q

Dinoflagellates ________.

A

possess two flagella

50
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of ciliates?

A

They are often multinucleate.

51
Q

A porous test (shell) of calcium carbonate, through which pseudopodia protrude, is characteristic of ________

A

foraminiferans

52
Q

A gelatinous seaweed that grows in shallow, cold water and undergoes heteromorphic alternation of generations is most probably what type of alga?

A

brown

53
Q

A biologist discovers an alga that is marine, multicellular, and lives at a depth reached only by blue light. This alga is most likely a type of _______

A

red algae

54
Q

Green algae differ from land plants in that many green algae ______

A

are unicellular

55
Q

what similarities do green algae and plants in the same phylogenetic group share

A

chloroplast structure and pigment composition

56
Q

Previously recognized similarities that seemed to connect slime molds and fungi are now considered to be _______

A

examples of convergent evolution

57
Q

are diatoms producers

A

yes

58
Q

Plastids that are surrounded by more than two membranes are evidence of

A

secondary endosymbiosis

59
Q

Biologists think that endosymbiosis gave rise to mitochondria before plastids partly because

A

all eukaryotes have mitochondria (or their remnants), whereas many eukaryotes do not have plastids

60
Q

In a life cycle with alternation of generations, multicellular haploid forms alternate with

A

multicellular diploid forms

61
Q

When a mycelium infiltrates an unexploited source of dead organic matter, what are most likely to appear within the food source soon thereafter?

A

fungal enzymes

62
Q

The adaptive advantage associated with the filamentous nature of fungal mycelia is primarily related to ________

A

an extensive surface area well suited for invasive growth and absorptive nutrition

63
Q

At which stage of a basidiomycete’s life cycle would reproduction be halted if an enzyme that prevented the fusion of hyphae was introduced?

A

plasmogamy

64
Q

Deuteromycetes _______

A

are the group of fungi that have, at present, no known sexual stage

65
Q

Plasmogamy can directly result in which of the following?

A

heterokaryotic cells or dikaryotic cells

66
Q

In most fungi, karyogamy does not immediately follow plasmogamy, which consequently _______

A

results in heterokaryotic or dikaryotic cells

67
Q

The multicellular condition of animals and fungi seems to have arisen _______

A

by convergent evolution

68
Q

Which feature seen in chytrids supports the hypothesis that they diverged earliest in fungal evolution?

A

flagellated spores

69
Q

Arrange the following in order from largest to smallest:

ascocarp, ascus, ascospore, ascomycete

A

ascomycete, ascocarp, ascus, ascospore

70
Q

The closest relatives of fungi are thought to be the

A

animals

71
Q

The most important adaptive advantage associated with the filamentous nature of fungal mycelia is

A

an extensive surface area well suited for invasive growth and absorptive nutrition

72
Q

Which of the following tests could you use to determine whether the developing organism is a protostome or a deuterostome? See whether the embryo _______

A

exhibits spiral cleavage or radial cleavage

73
Q

In examining an unknown animal species during its embryonic development, how can you be sure what you are looking at is a protostome and not a deuterostome?

A

You see a mouth, but not an anus.

74
Q

Among protostomes, which morphological trait has shown the most variation?

A

type of body cavity (coelom versus pseudocoelom versus no coelom)

75
Q

Soon after the coelom begins to form, a researcher injects a dye into the coelom of a deuterostome embryo. Initially, the dye should be able to flow directly into the _______

A

archenteron

76
Q

The most ancient branch point in animal phylogeny is the characteristic of having _______

A

true tissues or no tissues

77
Q

One of the characteristics unique to animals is

A

gastrulation

78
Q
A