exam 2 (practice questions) Flashcards

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1
Q

what is parthenogenesis

A

an egg develops without being fertilized

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2
Q

what part of the body does the excretory and reproductive system share in male mammals

A

the urethra

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3
Q

peaks of LH and FSH occur during

A

the period just before ovulation

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4
Q

during what trimester do rudiments of all organs develop

A

in the first trimester

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5
Q

the endometrial lining is ______ in menstrual cycles but ________ in estrous cycles

A

shed; reabsorbed

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6
Q

for which of the following is the number the same in human males and females?

A

functional gametes produced by meiosis

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7
Q

true or false: the earliest stages of spermatogenesis occur closes to the lumen of the seminiferous tubules

A

false

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8
Q

true or false: fertilization occurs in the oviduct

A

true

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9
Q

true or false: an oocyte completes meiosis after a sperm penetrates it

A

true

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10
Q

what are the seminiferous tubules

A

specialized structures within the testes that house spermatogenesis

  • where human sperm cells first arise
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11
Q

what is a similarity between oogenesis and spermatogenesis?

A

both oogenesis and spermatogenesis lead to the production of gametes from germ cells

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12
Q

when does oogenesis and spermatogenesis begin in males and females?

A

oogenesis begins before birth but is stopped until puberty

spermatogenesis begins at puberty

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13
Q

advantage of internal fertilization that external fertilization does not get

A

the smaller number of offspring produced often receive a greater amount of parental investment

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14
Q

for water feels of the genus daphnia, switching from a pattern of asexual reproduction to sexual reproduction coincides with

A

periods of temperate or food stresses on adults

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15
Q

sexual can produce can produce _________

A

diverse phenotypes that may enhance survival of a population in a changing environment

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16
Q

asexual reproduction results in greater reproductive success than does sexual reproduction when

A

a species is in a stable and favorable environment

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17
Q

genetic mutations in asexually reproducing organisms lead to more evolutionary changes than do genetic mutations in sexually reproducing ones because

A

asexually reproducing organisms, but not sexually reproducing organisms, pass all mutations on to their offspring

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18
Q

in an animal that switches between sexual and asexual reproduction, when is sexual reproduction more likely to occur?

A

when conditions for survival are unfavorable

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19
Q

environmental cues that influence the timing of reproduction generally do so by ________

A

direct effects on hormonal control mechanisms

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20
Q

on a submarine to the ocean you discover population of fish that are only female. what type of reproduction does this fish most likely use?

A

parthenogenesis

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21
Q

what type of organisms reproduce by fission

A

primarily single-celled organisms like hydra, bacteria, yeast, protists, corals

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22
Q

what process makes sexually reproduced offspring genetically different from their parents?

A

genetic recombination during meiosis

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23
Q

regeneration, the regrowth of lost body parts, normally follows

A

fragmentation

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24
Q

Hans Spemann and colleagues developed the concept of the “organizer” in amphibian embryos while studying the ________

A

dorsal lip of the blastopore

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25
Q

If an amphibian zygote is manipulated so that the first cleavage plane fails to divide the gray X crescent, then ________.

A

only the daughter cell with the gray crescent will develop normally

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26
Q

Which of the following is common to the development of birds and mammals?

A

the formation of an embryonic epiblast and hypoblast

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27
Q

Cells move to new positions as an embryo establishes its three germ tissue layers during ________.

A

gastrulation

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28
Q

An embryo with meroblastic cleavage, extraembryonic membranes, and a primitive streak must be that of ________

A

a bird

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29
Q

The cortical reaction of sea urchin eggs functions directly in ________.

A

the formation of a fertilization envelope

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30
Q

why is sperm necessary for reproduction?

A

sperm trigger egg activation

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31
Q

The first cavity formed during frog development is the ________.

A

blastocoel

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32
Q

Which of the following correctly displays the sequence of developmental milestones?

A

cleavage → blastula → gastrula

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33
Q

The vegetal pole of a frog zygote differs from the animal pole in that ________.

A

the vegetal pole has a higher concentration of yolk

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34
Q

In mammalian eggs, the receptors for sperm are found in the ________.

A

egg plasma membrane

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35
Q

In an egg cell treated with a chemical that binds calcium and magnesium ions, the ________

A

fertilization envelope would not be formed

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36
Q

During fertilization, the acrosomal contents ________

A

digest the protective jelly coat on the surface of the egg

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37
Q

A reproductive difference between sea urchins and humans is ________.

A

the sea urchin egg completes meiosis prior to fertilization, but meiosis in humans is completed after fertilization

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38
Q

Fertilization of an egg without activation is most like ________.

A

placing the key in the ignition of a car but not starting the engine

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39
Q

The plasma membrane of the sea urchin egg ________.

A

has receptor molecules that are specific for binding acrosomal proteins

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40
Q

Contact of a sea urchin egg with signal molecules on sperm causes the egg to undergo a brief ________.

A

membrane depolarization

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41
Q

The formation of the fertilization envelope requires an increase in the cystosolic concentration of ________.

A

calcium ions

42
Q

Most of the neurons in the human central nervous system are ________

A

interneurons

43
Q

The point of connection between two communicating neurons is called the ________.

A

synapse

44
Q

The motor (somatic nervous) system can alter the activities of its targets, the skeletal muscle fibers, because ________.

A

its signals bind to receptor proteins on the muscles

45
Q

In a simple synapse, neurotransmitter chemicals are released by ________.

A

the presynaptic membrane

46
Q

In a simple synapse, neurotransmitter chemicals are received by ________

A

dendrites

47
Q

Although the membrane of a “resting” neuron is highly permeable to potassium ions, its membrane potential does not exactly match the equilibrium potential for potassium because the neuronal membrane is also ________.

A

slightly permeable to sodium ions

48
Q

The operation of the sodium-potassium pump moves ________

A

sodium ions out of the cell and potassium ions into the cell

49
Q

In a resting potential, an example of a cation that is more abundant as a solute in the cytosol of a neuron than it is in the interstitial fluid outside the neuron is ________.

A

K+

50
Q

Two fundamental concepts about the ion channels of a “resting” neuron are that the channels ________.

A

are open or closed depending on their type, and are specific as to which ion can traverse them

51
Q

If you experimentally increase the concentration of Na+ outside a cell while maintaining other ion concentrations as they were, what would happen to the cell’s membrane potential?

A

The membrane potential would become more positive.

52
Q

The concentrations of ions are very different inside and outside a nerve cell due to ________

A

sodium-potassium pumps

53
Q

Which ion is most likely to cross the plasma membrane of a resting neuron?

A

K+

54
Q

The membrane’s permeability to sodium ions is greatest at ________

A

rising stage

55
Q

After the depolarization phase of an action potential, the resting potential is restored by ________.

A

the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels and the inactivation of sodium channels

56
Q

The “undershoot” phase of hyperpolarization is due to ________

A

sustained opening of voltage-gated potassium channels

57
Q

Why are action potentials usually conducted in one direction?

A

The brief refractory period prevents reopening of voltage-gated sodium channels.

58
Q

If you experimentally increase the concentration of K+ inside a cell while maintaining other ion concentrations as they were, what would happen to the cell’s membrane potential?

A

The membrane potential would become less negative.

59
Q

Which of the following statements about action potentials is correct?

A

Action potentials are propagated down the length of the axon.

60
Q

An example of ligand-gated ion channels is ________.

A

acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction

61
Q

If excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) are produced nearly simultaneously through two different synapses on the same postsynaptic neuron, the EPSPs can also add together creating ________.

A

a spatial summation

62
Q

When two excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) occur at a single synapse so rapidly in succession that the postsynaptic neuron’s membrane potential has not returned to the resting potential before the second EPSP arrives, the EPSPs add together producing ________.

A

temporal summation

63
Q

The amino acid that operates at most inhibitory synapses in the brain is ________.

A

gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

64
Q

The heart rate of a vertebrate will decrease in response to the arrival of ________

A

acetylcholine

65
Q

which event occurs first following a depolarizing stimulus applied to the presynaptic membrane of an axon terminal?

A

Voltage-gated calcium channels in the membrane open.

66
Q

How could you increase the magnitude of excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) generated at a synapse?

A

Increase Na+ permeability.

67
Q

At the neuromuscular junction, the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh) is degraded by acetylcholinesterase. If a neurophysiologist applies the naturally occurring acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, onchidal (produced by the mollusc Onchidella binneyi), to a synapse, what would you expect to happen?

A

convulsions due to constant muscle stimulation

68
Q

What happens when a resting neuron’s membrane depolarizes?

A

The neuron’s membrane voltage becomes more positive.

69
Q

A common feature of action potentials is that they

A

are triggered by a depolarization that reaches threshold.

70
Q

Where are neurotransmitter receptors located?

A

the postsynaptic membrane

71
Q

Why are action potentials usually conducted in one direction?

A

The brief refractory period prevents reopening of voltage-gated Na+ channels.

72
Q

Which of the following is the most direct result of depolarizing the presynaptic membrane of an axon terminal?

A

Voltage-gated calcium channels in the membrane open.

73
Q

Suppose a particular neurotransmitter causes an IPSP in postsynaptic cell X and an EPSP in postsynaptic cell Y. A likely explanation is that

A

cells X and Y express different receptor molecules for this particular neurotransmitter

74
Q

The stretch sensors of the sensory neurons in the human knee-jerk reflex are located in the ________.

A

quadriceps muscles on the front side of the thighs

75
Q

Choose the correct match of glial cell type and function.

A

astrocytes—promote blood flow and regulate ion concentrations

76
Q

The human knee-jerk reflex requires an intact ________

A

spinal cord

77
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid can be described as which of the following

A

I) functioning in transport of nutrients and hormones through the brain
II) a product of the filtration of blood in the brain
III) functioning to cushion the brain

78
Q

The divisions of the nervous system that have antagonistic, or opposing, actions are ________.

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic systems

79
Q

Preparation for the fight-or-flight response includes activation of the ________ nervous system

A

sympathetic

80
Q

The activation of the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system is associated with ________.

A

resting and digesting

81
Q

After narrowly escaping a mountain lion attack, which of the following reactions would your nervous system initiate?

A

increased heartbeat

82
Q

In humans, control of balance and coordinated movements are associated with increased activity in the ________.

A

cerebellum

83
Q

Central coordination of vertebrate biological rhythms in physiology and behavior reside in the ________.

A

hypothalamus

84
Q

The regulation of body temperature derives from the activity of the ________

A

hypothalamus

85
Q

If you were writing an essay, the part(s) of your brain that would be actively involved in this task is/are the ________.

A

frontal lobes

86
Q

Wernicke’s area ________

A

is active when speech is heard and comprehended

87
Q

Patients with damage to Broca’s area have difficulty ________.

A

generating speech

88
Q

An injury to the temporal lobe will likely impair the function of the ________

A

sense of hearing

89
Q

One of the fundamental processes by which memories are stored and learning takes place ________

A

involves changing the responsiveness of postsynaptic neurons to neurotransmitter

90
Q

Forming new long-term memories is strikingly disrupted after damage to the ________

A

cerebral cortex

91
Q

For long-term potentiation to occur in the hippocampus, ________.

A

NMDA receptors must be unblocked so that they can respond to glutamate

92
Q

One of the complications of Alzheimer’s disease is an interference with learning and memory. This disease would most likely involve ________.

A

molecular and structural changes at synapses

93
Q

The cerebral cortex does not play a major role in

A

circadian rhythm

(other choices were short term memory, long term memory, and breath holding)

94
Q

The correct sequence of sensory processing is ________

A

stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception → sensory adaptation

95
Q

The conversion of a stimulus into an action potential by a receptor cell is called ________.

A

transduction

96
Q

Immediately after putting on a shirt, your skin might feel itchy. However, this perception soon fades due to ________.

A

sensory adaptation

97
Q

The structure of the mammalian middle ear is adapted to convert ________.

A

air pressure waves to fluid pressure waves

98
Q

During an auditory transduction, ion flow varies across the ________

A

hair cell membrane

99
Q

A patient is hospitalized with muscle spasms caused by failure of back muscles to relax after contraction. Which of the following would be most likely to help?

A

Induce tropomyosin and troponin to bind to the myosin binding sites on actin.

100
Q

The transduction of sound waves into action potentials occurs

A

when hair cells are bent against the tectorial membrane, causing them to depolarize and release neurotransmitter that stimulates sensory neurons.

101
Q
A