exam 2 (practice questions) Flashcards

1
Q

what is parthenogenesis

A

an egg develops without being fertilized

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2
Q

what part of the body does the excretory and reproductive system share in male mammals

A

the urethra

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3
Q

peaks of LH and FSH occur during

A

the period just before ovulation

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4
Q

during what trimester do rudiments of all organs develop

A

in the first trimester

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5
Q

the endometrial lining is ______ in menstrual cycles but ________ in estrous cycles

A

shed; reabsorbed

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6
Q

for which of the following is the number the same in human males and females?

A

functional gametes produced by meiosis

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7
Q

true or false: the earliest stages of spermatogenesis occur closes to the lumen of the seminiferous tubules

A

false

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8
Q

true or false: fertilization occurs in the oviduct

A

true

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9
Q

true or false: an oocyte completes meiosis after a sperm penetrates it

A

true

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10
Q

what are the seminiferous tubules

A

specialized structures within the testes that house spermatogenesis

  • where human sperm cells first arise
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11
Q

what is a similarity between oogenesis and spermatogenesis?

A

both oogenesis and spermatogenesis lead to the production of gametes from germ cells

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12
Q

when does oogenesis and spermatogenesis begin in males and females?

A

oogenesis begins before birth but is stopped until puberty

spermatogenesis begins at puberty

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13
Q

advantage of internal fertilization that external fertilization does not get

A

the smaller number of offspring produced often receive a greater amount of parental investment

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14
Q

for water feels of the genus daphnia, switching from a pattern of asexual reproduction to sexual reproduction coincides with

A

periods of temperate or food stresses on adults

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15
Q

sexual can produce can produce _________

A

diverse phenotypes that may enhance survival of a population in a changing environment

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16
Q

asexual reproduction results in greater reproductive success than does sexual reproduction when

A

a species is in a stable and favorable environment

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17
Q

genetic mutations in asexually reproducing organisms lead to more evolutionary changes than do genetic mutations in sexually reproducing ones because

A

asexually reproducing organisms, but not sexually reproducing organisms, pass all mutations on to their offspring

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18
Q

in an animal that switches between sexual and asexual reproduction, when is sexual reproduction more likely to occur?

A

when conditions for survival are unfavorable

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19
Q

environmental cues that influence the timing of reproduction generally do so by ________

A

direct effects on hormonal control mechanisms

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20
Q

on a submarine to the ocean you discover population of fish that are only female. what type of reproduction does this fish most likely use?

A

parthenogenesis

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21
Q

what type of organisms reproduce by fission

A

primarily single-celled organisms like hydra, bacteria, yeast, protists, corals

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22
Q

what process makes sexually reproduced offspring genetically different from their parents?

A

genetic recombination during meiosis

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23
Q

regeneration, the regrowth of lost body parts, normally follows

A

fragmentation

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24
Q

Hans Spemann and colleagues developed the concept of the “organizer” in amphibian embryos while studying the ________

A

dorsal lip of the blastopore

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25
If an amphibian zygote is manipulated so that the first cleavage plane fails to divide the gray X crescent, then ________.
only the daughter cell with the gray crescent will develop normally
26
Which of the following is common to the development of birds and mammals?
the formation of an embryonic epiblast and hypoblast
27
Cells move to new positions as an embryo establishes its three germ tissue layers during ________.
gastrulation
28
An embryo with meroblastic cleavage, extraembryonic membranes, and a primitive streak must be that of ________
a bird
29
The cortical reaction of sea urchin eggs functions directly in ________.
the formation of a fertilization envelope
30
why is sperm necessary for reproduction?
sperm trigger egg activation
31
The first cavity formed during frog development is the ________.
blastocoel
32
Which of the following correctly displays the sequence of developmental milestones?
cleavage → blastula → gastrula
33
The vegetal pole of a frog zygote differs from the animal pole in that ________.
the vegetal pole has a higher concentration of yolk
34
In mammalian eggs, the receptors for sperm are found in the ________.
egg plasma membrane
35
In an egg cell treated with a chemical that binds calcium and magnesium ions, the ________
fertilization envelope would not be formed
36
During fertilization, the acrosomal contents ________
digest the protective jelly coat on the surface of the egg
37
A reproductive difference between sea urchins and humans is ________.
the sea urchin egg completes meiosis prior to fertilization, but meiosis in humans is completed after fertilization
38
Fertilization of an egg without activation is most like ________.
placing the key in the ignition of a car but not starting the engine
39
The plasma membrane of the sea urchin egg ________.
has receptor molecules that are specific for binding acrosomal proteins
40
Contact of a sea urchin egg with signal molecules on sperm causes the egg to undergo a brief ________.
membrane depolarization
41
The formation of the fertilization envelope requires an increase in the cystosolic concentration of ________.
calcium ions
42
Most of the neurons in the human central nervous system are ________
interneurons
43
The point of connection between two communicating neurons is called the ________.
synapse
44
The motor (somatic nervous) system can alter the activities of its targets, the skeletal muscle fibers, because ________.
its signals bind to receptor proteins on the muscles
45
In a simple synapse, neurotransmitter chemicals are released by ________.
the presynaptic membrane
46
In a simple synapse, neurotransmitter chemicals are received by ________
dendrites
47
Although the membrane of a "resting" neuron is highly permeable to potassium ions, its membrane potential does not exactly match the equilibrium potential for potassium because the neuronal membrane is also ________.
slightly permeable to sodium ions
48
The operation of the sodium-potassium pump moves ________
sodium ions out of the cell and potassium ions into the cell
49
In a resting potential, an example of a cation that is more abundant as a solute in the cytosol of a neuron than it is in the interstitial fluid outside the neuron is ________.
K+
50
Two fundamental concepts about the ion channels of a "resting" neuron are that the channels ________.
are open or closed depending on their type, and are specific as to which ion can traverse them
51
If you experimentally increase the concentration of Na+ outside a cell while maintaining other ion concentrations as they were, what would happen to the cell's membrane potential?
The membrane potential would become more positive.
52
The concentrations of ions are very different inside and outside a nerve cell due to ________
sodium-potassium pumps
53
Which ion is most likely to cross the plasma membrane of a resting neuron?
K+
54
The membrane's permeability to sodium ions is greatest at ________
rising stage
55
After the depolarization phase of an action potential, the resting potential is restored by ________.
the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels and the inactivation of sodium channels
56
The "undershoot" phase of hyperpolarization is due to ________
sustained opening of voltage-gated potassium channels
57
Why are action potentials usually conducted in one direction?
The brief refractory period prevents reopening of voltage-gated sodium channels.
58
If you experimentally increase the concentration of K+ inside a cell while maintaining other ion concentrations as they were, what would happen to the cell's membrane potential?
The membrane potential would become less negative.
59
Which of the following statements about action potentials is correct?
Action potentials are propagated down the length of the axon.
60
An example of ligand-gated ion channels is ________.
acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction
61
If excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) are produced nearly simultaneously through two different synapses on the same postsynaptic neuron, the EPSPs can also add together creating ________.
a spatial summation
62
When two excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) occur at a single synapse so rapidly in succession that the postsynaptic neuron's membrane potential has not returned to the resting potential before the second EPSP arrives, the EPSPs add together producing ________.
temporal summation
63
The amino acid that operates at most inhibitory synapses in the brain is ________.
gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
64
The heart rate of a vertebrate will decrease in response to the arrival of ________
acetylcholine
65
which event occurs first following a depolarizing stimulus applied to the presynaptic membrane of an axon terminal?
Voltage-gated calcium channels in the membrane open.
66
How could you increase the magnitude of excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) generated at a synapse?
Increase Na+ permeability.
67
At the neuromuscular junction, the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh) is degraded by acetylcholinesterase. If a neurophysiologist applies the naturally occurring acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, onchidal (produced by the mollusc Onchidella binneyi), to a synapse, what would you expect to happen?
convulsions due to constant muscle stimulation
68
What happens when a resting neuron's membrane depolarizes?
The neuron's membrane voltage becomes more positive.
69
A common feature of action potentials is that they
are triggered by a depolarization that reaches threshold.
70
Where are neurotransmitter receptors located?
the postsynaptic membrane
71
Why are action potentials usually conducted in one direction?
The brief refractory period prevents reopening of voltage-gated Na+ channels.
72
Which of the following is the most direct result of depolarizing the presynaptic membrane of an axon terminal?
Voltage-gated calcium channels in the membrane open.
73
Suppose a particular neurotransmitter causes an IPSP in postsynaptic cell X and an EPSP in postsynaptic cell Y. A likely explanation is that
cells X and Y express different receptor molecules for this particular neurotransmitter
74
The stretch sensors of the sensory neurons in the human knee-jerk reflex are located in the ________.
quadriceps muscles on the front side of the thighs
75
Choose the correct match of glial cell type and function.
astrocytes—promote blood flow and regulate ion concentrations
76
The human knee-jerk reflex requires an intact ________
spinal cord
77
Cerebrospinal fluid can be described as which of the following
I) functioning in transport of nutrients and hormones through the brain II) a product of the filtration of blood in the brain III) functioning to cushion the brain
78
The divisions of the nervous system that have antagonistic, or opposing, actions are ________.
sympathetic and parasympathetic systems
79
Preparation for the fight-or-flight response includes activation of the ________ nervous system
sympathetic
80
The activation of the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system is associated with ________.
resting and digesting
81
After narrowly escaping a mountain lion attack, which of the following reactions would your nervous system initiate?
increased heartbeat
82
In humans, control of balance and coordinated movements are associated with increased activity in the ________.
cerebellum
83
Central coordination of vertebrate biological rhythms in physiology and behavior reside in the ________.
hypothalamus
84
The regulation of body temperature derives from the activity of the ________
hypothalamus
85
If you were writing an essay, the part(s) of your brain that would be actively involved in this task is/are the ________.
frontal lobes
86
Wernicke's area ________
is active when speech is heard and comprehended
87
Patients with damage to Broca's area have difficulty ________.
generating speech
88
An injury to the temporal lobe will likely impair the function of the ________
sense of hearing
89
One of the fundamental processes by which memories are stored and learning takes place ________
involves changing the responsiveness of postsynaptic neurons to neurotransmitter
90
Forming new long-term memories is strikingly disrupted after damage to the ________
cerebral cortex
91
For long-term potentiation to occur in the hippocampus, ________.
NMDA receptors must be unblocked so that they can respond to glutamate
92
One of the complications of Alzheimer's disease is an interference with learning and memory. This disease would most likely involve ________.
molecular and structural changes at synapses
93
The cerebral cortex does not play a major role in
circadian rhythm (other choices were short term memory, long term memory, and breath holding)
94
The correct sequence of sensory processing is ________
stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception → sensory adaptation
95
The conversion of a stimulus into an action potential by a receptor cell is called ________.
transduction
96
Immediately after putting on a shirt, your skin might feel itchy. However, this perception soon fades due to ________.
sensory adaptation
97
The structure of the mammalian middle ear is adapted to convert ________.
air pressure waves to fluid pressure waves
98
During an auditory transduction, ion flow varies across the ________
hair cell membrane
99
A patient is hospitalized with muscle spasms caused by failure of back muscles to relax after contraction. Which of the following would be most likely to help?
Induce tropomyosin and troponin to bind to the myosin binding sites on actin.
100
The transduction of sound waves into action potentials occurs
when hair cells are bent against the tectorial membrane, causing them to depolarize and release neurotransmitter that stimulates sensory neurons.
101