Exam 3: Pituitary Flashcards

1
Q

Pituitary Adenomas:

  • Most are clinically ______
  • Most are monoclonal (meaning what?)
  • Expanding tumor mass can destroy other parts of pituitary resulting in ____ symptoms
  • Negative feedback is _____
  • Make up 10-20% of all intracranial tumors
A

Pituitary Adenomas:

  • most are clinically asymptomatic
  • most are monoclonal: derived from single cell genetic mutation
  • exanding tumor mass can destroy other parts of the pituitary resulting in “hypohormone” symptoms
  • negative feedback only partially or not at all effective (can get partial negative feedback if HUGE dose of exogenous peripheral hormone given)
  • make up 10-30% of all intracranial tumors
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2
Q

Clinical Manifestations of Expanding cranial mass:

Tumor can extand superior and lateral into the brain (______-) also can extend lateral into sphenoid bone or down into sphenoid sinus

Clinical Symptoms:

1.

2.

3.

A

Clinical manifestations of expanding cranial mass:

tumor can extend superior and laterally into brain (most common), can also extend lateral into sphenoid bone or down into sphenoid sinus

Clinical Symptoms

  1. Headaches (stretching of dura)
  2. Visual field defects (compression of optic chiasm)
  3. Cranial nerve palsies and temporal lobe epilepsy (lateral extension of mass)
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3
Q

Classification of Pituitary Adenomas:
No system is clinically validated

Morphorlogical features do not always correlate with clinical symptoms

Morphological features cannot differetiate between ____ and ____

_____ is the only conclusive evidence for malignancy (carcinoma)

A

Classification of Pituitary Adenomas:

No system is clinically validated

Morphological features do not always correlated with clinical symptoms

Morphological features cannot differentiate between benign and malignant

Metastasis is only conclusive evidence for carcinoma (malignancy)

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4
Q

Classification of Pituitary Adenomas

Explain invasiveness vs agressiveness and how to test for both

Explain Hardy vs Knosp system (generally)

A

Agressiveness: how fast is it growing, tested using histological mitotic markers like Ki67, as well as mitotic p53 levels

Invasiveness: where is it going, expansion of tumor into surrounding sinus

Hardy: no acess to MRI
Knosp: using MRI, looks at relationship of tumor to carotid artery

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5
Q

Hardy Classification of Pituitary Adenomas:

Explain Grade 0 - IV

A

HARDY: can’t determine aggressiveness
Grade 0: intact, normal

Grade 1: intact, bulging floor

Grade II, intact, enlarged fossa

Grade III, localized sellar destruction

Grad IV: diffuse bone destruction

Grade 0 and 1: noninvasive

Grade 2-4: invasive

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6
Q

Hardy Classification of Pituitary Tumors:

Supracellar extension is _____ critieria of invasiveness

What qualifies as invasive?

A

Hardy Classification:

Supracellar extension is NOT a criteria of invasiveness (aka going upwards does not mean invasive as it’s the only place it can go)
Only bone destruction qualifies as invasive

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7
Q

Knosp Classification of Pituitary Adenoma:

What does it look at?
Explain grades 0, 1, 2, 3, 4

A

Knosp: relationship of tumor to carotid artery to check invasiveness

Grade 0, 1: no invasion, doesn’t extend past median line

Grade 2: extends beyond median but not past lateral line (sometimes invasive)

Grade 3: extends beyond lateral line, always considered invasive

Grade 4: wraps around intracavernous carotid artery - always considered invasive

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8
Q

Explain the incidence and also what the following mean:

Prolactinoma

Somatotrope tumor

Corticotrope tumor

Thyrotrope or Gonadotrope tumor

A

Prolactinoma: most common, 40% of all pituitary tumors

  • most patients are asymptomatic
  • adenomas most discovered during autopsy

Somatotrope Tumor - excess GH (acromegaly)

Corticotrope Tumor - excess ACTH

  • cushing disease

Thyrotrope or Gonadotrope tumor- VERY rare

  • most have no clinical symptoms
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9
Q

Pituitary Adenoma Treatment:

-Treatment depends on tumor type

Explain what the following drugs do:

  • bromocriptine
  • octreotide acetate

Surgical resection

A

Pituitary Adenoma Treatment:

  • Treatment depends on tumor type
  • Bromocriptine: dopamine agonist, inhibits prolactin and reduces tumor size
  • Ostreotide acetate: somatostatin anagog (inhibits GH)
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10
Q

Explain Cushing Disease vs Cushing Syndrome

Give some examples of cushing syndrome

A

Cushing Disease: excessive cortisol secretion due to ACTH secreting PITUITARY TUMOR

Cushing syndrome: symptoms of cushing disease due to causes other than a pituitary tumor

  • Exogenous glucocorticoid therapy
  • small lung cell carcinoma (ACTH)
  • Adrenal tumor (of zona fasicularis secreting excess cortisol)
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11
Q

Cushing Diease: Symptoms:

What does it do to body fat?

What does it do to intestinal calcium absorption?

What does it do to blood pressure?

What does it due to insulin’s ability to clear glucose?

What does it cause on the stomach?

A

Cushing Disease Symptoms:

  • Change in body fat distribution: moon face, buffalo hump, abdominal obesity, thin skin
  • Inhibition of intestinal calcium absorption - osteoporosis
  • Hypertension
  • Glucose Intolerance - antagonism of insulin action
  • Purple Striae: fragile skin stretches over increased abdominal fat, vessels hemmorhage into striae
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12
Q

Glucocorticoid Therapy:
What is it used for in medical emergencies?
How is it used for chronic conditions?

A

Glucocorticoid Therapy:

Medical Emergencies: high acute dose to treat septic shock, severe asthma, severe autoimmune disease flare…. usually no long term side effects when used acutely

Chronic: anti-inflammatory, immunosupressive, preterm infants to improve lung function

Lots of exogenous cortisol causes LOTS of negative feedback on HPA axis, causing an atrophied zona fasiculata

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13
Q

What kind of glucocorticoid therapy is the strongest?

Which one would you give for addison’s disease?

A

Glucocorticoid Therapy:

Dexamethasone is strongest, has 20x potency on GR receptors, only 0.5 x potency on MR receptors

Give fludrocortisone for addision’s disease, targets MR receptors more

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14
Q

Diabetis Insipidus:

What are the two main causes of diabetes insipidus?

Explain central vs nephrogenic

A

Diabetes Insipidus

Central: Decreased AVP release, hypothalamic or pituitary defect “central” due to AVP gene mutation, trauma, surgery, cancer, infectious disease

Nephrogenic: Decreased renal responsiveness to AVP, genetic X linked mutation in AVP receptor, happens with people on lithium drugs (for bipolar disorder)… AVP levels are usually normal in these patients

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15
Q

Diabetes Insipidus:
Genetic:

Mutation in AVP gene:

  • usually within _____ sequence or ______ sequence
  • Lack of normal peptide cleavage causes misfolding, ER stress, cell death
A

Diabetes Insipidus:

Genetic:
Mutation in AVP Gene:

Usually in signal peptide sequence of neurophysin sequence

Lack of normal peptide cleavage causes misfolding, ER stress, cell death

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16
Q

Diabetes Insipidus: Clinical Presentation:

Poly___

Poly___

Hyper______

(Serum osmdolality _____ than urine osmolality)

A

Diabetes Insipidus Clinical Presentation:

Polyuria - lack of water reabsorption from kidneys (AQ2 doesn’t relocate)

Polydipsia: high plasma osmolality triggers thirst response in hypothalamus

Hypernatremia: high plasma sodium content

Serum osmolality persistently higher than urine osmolatiry (this is not normal)

17
Q

Diabetes Insipidus: Differential Diagnosis
Urine Glucose?

Plasma AVP?

Plasma Osmolality?

A

Diabetes Insipidus:

first have to rule out other types of diabetes, in diabetes insipidus there will be NO glucose in the urine

Plasma AVP: low avp is central DI, whereas normal to high AVP levels means nephrogenic DI

Plasma Osmolality: you can artificially alter osmolality to measure AVP response (inject with saline, in a central DI patient, the AVP level won’t change because it can’t be produced, where as in a nephrogenic DI patient, the AVP level will increase)

18
Q

What is the primary clinical presentation of SIADH?

A

SIADH:

hyponatremia (low sodium plasma levels) in the absence of edema

these patients usually have salt cravings

19
Q

SIADH: hyponatremia in absence of edema

Etiology:
Only 33% of SIADH cases are from _______

The rest are all other causes such as:

CNS disorders

lung infections

extrapituitary tumors secreting AVP

Aldosterone deficiency (explain this one)

A

SIADH: hyponatremia in absence of edema

Etiology:

only 33% are from central pituitary disorders (pituitary secreting too much AVP)
Rest are from:

CNS disorders

Lung infections

Extra-pituitary tumors secreting AVP

Aldosterone deficiency: low aldosterone levels will have hypovolemia, AVP is triggered by severe blood volume loss, and will be secreted despite decrease in plasma osmolality

20
Q

Explain the following symptoms in Cushing pts:
Weakness

Easy bruising

Purple Striae

A

Cushing
Weakness: catabolic effects of glucocorticoids on skeletal muscle causes breakdown and weakness

Easy bruising: loss of subcutanous fat, skin is fragile and prone to bruising

Purple Striae: central obesity causes skin to stretch in abdominal region, veins are prone to hemorrhage

21
Q

Explain elevated fasting blood sugar concentration in Cushing patients

A

Primary action of cortisol is to increase plasma glucose

Stimulate gluconeogenesis and mobolize energy stores

anti-insulin actions

22
Q

How does a doctor evaluate suspected case of Cushings?

How do you distinguish between pituitary dependent, ectopic, primary adrenal or exogenous hypercortisolism?

A

First, you can do a high dexomethasone test

In a pituitary dependent case of Cushings’, the dexomethasone will supress ACTH somewhat. MRI to detect pituitary tumor

Ectopic: not responsive to dexamethosone because tumor not in pituitary

In order to see if it’s primary adrenal or iatrogenic… measure ACTH levels:

Primary adrenal: ACTH will be low, this is because it is caused by excess adrenal secretion of cortisol NOT in response to ACTH

Iatrogenic: exogenous hypoercorticolism (most common cause due to treatment with glucocorticoids), zona fasiculata will atrophy: no CRH or ACTH production