Exam 2: Walenga 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Thrombosis is defined as the transition of blood from a state of ____ to ______

The stationary clot (_______) may grow in size and eventually break into smaller pieces, which when released into circulation are called _______

______ are dangerous because they can cause stroke, MI, PE

A

Thrombosis is defined as the transition of blood from a state of fluidity to non-fluidity

The stationary clot (thrombus) may grow in size and eventually break into smaller pieces, which when released into circulation are called emboli

Emboli are dangerous because they get lodged into smaller vessels and cause MI, Stroke, PE

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2
Q

Define the terms

DVT

PE

A

DVT is a blood clot (thrombus) that forms in a deep vein of the leg or pelvis either partially or fully blocking the flow of blood

PE or pulmonary embolism is when :

  • DVT or part of it breaks off from the vein
  • breakaway clot travels through blood stream, into heart and towards lung
  • Clot blocks a vessel in the lung
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3
Q

Virchow’s Triad:

Explain the three major factors that lead to thrombosis

What is the “double hit theory”

A

Virchow’s Triad:

Three major factors that contribute to fibrosis:

  1. injury to blood vessel wall or endothelium (resulting in release of TF)
  2. alterations in blood composition
  3. blood flow stasis

Double hit theory: having two of the three greatly increases the risk of thrombosis

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4
Q

Define the term thrombophilia

A

Thrombophilia is defined as the predisposition to to thrombis, secondary to

  • congenital risk factors
  • acquired risk factors (age, smoking, diet, AFib, Anti-Phospholipid Syndrome)
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5
Q

Certain hemostatic factors increase in circulation in response to stress and inflammation

Which hemostatic factors lead to enhanced clot formation?

Which factors lead to supressed fibrinolysis?

A

Enhanced clot formation: Fibrinogen, FVIII, FXIII, VWF, C4bBP

Supressed clot breakdown: PAI-1

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6
Q

What are some clinical conditions associated with thrombosis?

A

Clinical conditions associated with thrombosis:

AFib

Antiphospholipid Syndrome

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7
Q

What are five conditions known to cause a hypercoagulable state:

  1. Factor ___ Leidein
  2. _______ mutation
  3. Deiciency or defect in ____
  4. Deficiency in ____
  5. Deficiency in ____
A

Cause a hypercoagulable state:

Factor V Leiden

Prothrombin 2021 Mutation

Defeciency or defect in AT

Deficiency in Protein C

Deficiency in Protein S

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8
Q

Coagulation Factor Inhibitors:

Important for maintaining the balance of the coagulation cascade, to control the amount of _____ generated

List them

A

Coagulation Factor Inhibitors:

Important for maintaining the balance of the coagulation cascade, to control amount of thrombin generated

Antithrombin (AT), Protein C (APC), Protein S, TFPI

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9
Q

Antithrombin/ (AT)

It will bind to _____, increasing the activity of AT

AT will bind to and inactivate ______

A deficiency in AT allows for too much ______

A

Antithrombin/AT

AT binds to heparin, enhancing its activity

AT then will bind to and inactivate thrombin and FX

A deficiency in AT allows for too much coagulation and an increased risk of thrombosis

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10
Q

Protein C Pathway:

Protein C cirulates in blood

The Protein C pathway is the only pathway in which thrombin acts as a ______

Thrombin binds to PC, creating APC

APC with the help of _______ then cleaves which Factors?

A

Protein C Pathway:

This is the only pathway in which thrombin acts as an anticoagulant

Thrombin binds to PC, activating it (APC)

APC then with the help of protein S will cleaves activated FV and activated FVIII

thereby reducing the generation of thrombin in the coagulation pathway

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11
Q

Draw out the protein C pathway

A
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12
Q

Explain Factor V Leiden

Also called Activated Protein C Resistance

A mutation of the FV gene substitutes _____ for ____ on FV
This substitution slows the inactivation of FV from _____ and _____
The resistant FVa remains active and promotes the formation of _______

A

Factor V Leiden: (Activated Protein C Resistance)

A mutation of the FV gene substitutes glutamine for arginine at position 506 on FV

That substitution slows the inactivation of FV from protein c and protein s

The resistant FVa remains active and still promotes the formation of thrombin

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13
Q

Patients with FVL are at a risk for thrombosis

What is the most common identified cause of thrombosis?

A

Patients with FVL are at a risk for thrombosis

FVL is the most identified cause of thrombosis (roughly 25% of all patients with thrombosis)

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14
Q

PAI-1

it is an inhibitor of _______

High PAI-1 levels are associated with _______ of thrombosis

A

PAI-1

PAI-1 is an inhibitor of TPA (remember tpa is the main activator of plasmin, the enzyme that breaks down clots)

High PAI-1 levels are associated with increased risk of thrombosis

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15
Q

What is the ONLY assay for the detection of active thrombosis?

How do levels of it increase with disease?

What does this test rule out clinically?

A

Only assay for the detection of active thrombosis:

D-Dimers

Normal level is 500, with DVT and PE are greater than 500

D-Dimer levels are used to rule out a PE (normal D-Dimer levels mean no thrombosis)

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16
Q

Explain what Antiphospholipid Syndrome is (APS)

The presence of antiphospholipid autoantibodies is consistent with ____

APAs mistakenly target the body’s own ______

Presence of an APA is a risk factor for thrombosis; persistant APAs are a larger concern

Clinically, APAs cause ________

A

APS:

The presence of antiphospholipid auto-antibodies is consistent with APS

APAs mistakenly targe the body’s own protein phospholipid complexes

Clinically, APAs cause unexpected thrombosis: recurrent thrombosis, or obstetric complications

17
Q

Explain what Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia is (HIT)

How is it a paradox?

A

Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia:

a relatively common drug induced thrombocytopenia

Adverse reaction to heparin treatment

Paradox: Thrombocytopenia without bleeding,

HIGH RISK OF THROMBOSIS

18
Q

HIT:

Heparin is a widely used anti-coagulant

Heparin binding to platelet Factor 4 is a _____ response

In some individuals, antibodies bind to PF4/heparin complex

That PF4/heparin/antibody complex binds to ____ and causes _______

A

Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia:

Heparin is widely used as an anti-coagulant

Heparin binding to platelet factor 4 is a normal physiological response

In some individuals, antibodies bind to PF4/heparin complex

That PF4/heparin/antibody complex binds to Fc receptors on platelets and activates platelets, generating thrombin and creating a highlycoagulant state

19
Q

HIT is a medical emergency due to the ______
that can occur and the high ______

Clinically, patients experience _____ and ______

What is the clinical definition of HIT?

A

HIT is a medical emergency due to the severe thrombosis that can develop and the high mortality rate

Clinically, patients experience thrombocytopenia and thrombosis develops (venous or arterial)

Clinical Definition of HIT:

Thrombocytopenia (platelets less than 100,000) or a 50% decrease from baseline with exposure to heparin

Thrombocytopenia usually develops 5-10 days after heparin exposure

20
Q

Lab Tests for HIT:

Labratory Tests to support a diagnosis of HIT are performed in this order

1.

2.

3.

A

Lab Tests for HIT:

  1. Repeat Platelet Counts
  2. Immunoassay to find HIT antibodies (negative result rules out HIT, but there are false positives)
  3. Platelet function assay confirms positive immunoassay for the diagnosis of HIT
21
Q

Clinical Management of HIT:

Platelets are not given since there is no risk of bleeding

Due to life-threatening thrombosis ________

Often a non-heparin anticoagulant is used as a ________ against development of thrombosis

If thrombosis is present, an anticogulant is given that is not heparin (_______)

A

Clinical Management of HIT:

Platelets aren’t given , no risk of bleeding

Heparin treatment must be stopped

Often a non-heparin anticoagulant is used as a prophylaxis against the development of a thrombosis

If thrombosis is present, an anticogulant that is not heparin is given (thrombin inhibitor)

22
Q

Explain the difference between an venous thrombosis and an arterial thrombosis in terms of composition:

Venous thrombosis are rich in ___

Arterial thrombosis are rich in____

A

Venous thrombosis: rich in fibrin (anticoagulants target thrombin generation)

Arterial thrombosis are rich in platelets and vWF (anticogulants target thrombin generation platelet function inhibitors)

23
Q

Vitamin K antagonist drugs like warfarin target which coagulation factors?

Heparin drugs target which coagulation factors?

A

Vitamin K antagonists (warfarin) target F2, 7, 9, 10

Heparin targets intrinsic factors, X, and AT

24
Q

Anticoagulant Drugs for treatments against an established venous thrombosis

1,

2,

A

Anticoagulant Drugs for treatments against an established venous thrombosis:

  1. Heparin
  2. Thrombin inhibitors (good to use to treat HIT)
25
Q

Anticoagulants used in prophylaxis to prevent venous thrombosis:

1.

2.

3.

4.

A

Anticoagulants used in prophylaxis to prevent venous thrombosis:

  1. low molecular weight heparin
  2. coumadin/warfarin
  3. thrombin inhibitors
  4. FXa inhibitors
26
Q

HEPARIN:

  • Catalyzes the inactivation of multiple _____
  • How does it work?
  • Heparin needs to be monitored, how is it monitored and what is the preferred monitoring method?
A

HEPARIN:

Catalyzes the inactivation of multiple coagulation factors

It works by activating Anti-Thrombin, which then binds to thrombin and inactivates it

Heparin monitoring is done by APTT assay, but the preferred way is a anti-FXa heparin assay

27
Q

The ultra low molecular weight heparins such as fondaparinux:

Only inhibits _____

Assess plasma levels with _____ assay

A

Ultralow molecular weight heparins such as fondaparinux:

Only inhibit FXa

Assess plasma levels with anti-FXa heparin assay

28
Q

Coumadin/Warfarin:

Inteferes with vitamin ____

Thereby reducing the synthesis of factors……

Those factors are unable to bind ____ and ___

Result is a decreased functionality of these coagulation factors (like a defeciency)

A

Coumadin/warfarin:

Intereferes with vitamin K
Thereby reducing the synthesis of factors 2, 7, 9, 10

Those factors are unable to bind Ca and phospholipids

Result is a decreased functionality of those coagulation factors (like a defeciency)

29
Q

Effect of Warfarin on Coagulation Assay:

_____ is the first factor to decrease and _____ is the last

Takes roughly ___ days for full anticoagulation effect

A

Effect of warfarin on coagulation assay:

FVII is the first factor to decrease and prothrombin is the last

Takes roughly 5 days for full anticoagulation effect

30
Q

The ______ test is the test to measure therapeutic levels of coumadin/warfarin

A

PT test (extrinsic factors and common pathway)

is used to analyze warfarin effects

31
Q

For DOACs what two kinds of mechanisms do they do? What are two ways in which they work?

What are they approved for?

A

DOACs: are either thrombin inhibitors drugs that only block thrombin

or

FXa inhibitor drugs that only block activated FX

DOACs are approved for thrombis prevention in patients with AFIb

32
Q

Direct Acting Thrombin Inhibitors:

Direct Acting Thrombin Inhibitors are small molecules that ______

A

DTIs are small molecules that directly bind to thrombin

33
Q

Arterial thrombosis is a platelet mediated disorder, therefore anti-platelet drugs have to be used

The most common anti-platelet drug is _____

Explain how it works

How long is the inhibitory effect of just one

A

Most common anti-platelet drug is aspirin

Aspirin irreversibly blocks cyclo-oxygenase, thereby preventing the production of thromboxane (which is the most potent platelet activating substance)

Inhibitory effect of aspirin is permanent for the entire lifespan of the platelet (7-10 days)

34
Q

Aspirin for arterial thrombosis:

Can detect the anti-platelet effect with:

the _______ test using ______ as the agonist

OR the ______

A

Aspirin for arterial thrombosis:

Can detect anti-platelet effect with:

The platelet aggregation test using arachnoic acid as the agonist

OR the VerifyNow ASA assay