Exam #3 (PART 1) Flashcards
Define microbiota or normal flora.
Commensalistic or mutalistic bacteria and fungi that live in anatomical barriers (epithelial barriers:skin & mucous membrane) in human body
When do microbiota establish in our body?
- At birth: by exposure to mother’s normal microbiota.
2. Later on with exposure to food, water, and other humans.
Where can the microbiota be found?
Nose Mouth & Throat Skin Large Intestine Vagina Urethra
Why does P.acne causing acne occur during puberty and then disappear with time?
- Innate immunity attacks the bacteria as first, but then the body develops adaptive immunity (t helpher cells contain memory)
- Pimples are a result of inflammation and phagocytes → pus, they disappear with time because of the development of the adaptive immunity, Th cells contain memories.
Give one example of bacteria that are not found in vegetarians but do exist in non vegetarians.
Bacteroides spp
All the advantages that are provided by the normal flora to their host? (4)
- Prime the immune system: a low bacteria of cross anatomical barriers and stimulate the immune system
- Prevent pathogens from attaching
- Compete for nutrients with pathogens
- Produce toxic compounds that inhibit other microbes
What are probiotics and why are they important for our health?
Probiotics are organisms such as bacteria or yeast that are believed to improve health. They are available in supplements and foods. They help establish bacteria that may have been disrupted in our normal flora and could help one maintain a good immune system.
Pathogen
microorganism that is capable of causing disease
Pathogenicity
ability of a microbe to cause a disease
Opportunistic Pathogen
cause a disease in suppressed people or when introduced in an unusual location
Infection
the invasion of a host organism’s body tissues by disease-causing agents, their multiplication, and the reaction of host tissues to these organisms and the toxins they produce
ex.HIV
Disease
A particular abnormal, pathological condition that affects part or all of an organism
ex. AIDs
Primary Infection
the initial infection of a host by a pathogen that has completed a resting or dormant period
Secondary Infection
follows primary infection; makes a person more susceptible to disease
Describe the course of an infectious disease including the following periods:
Incubation period
Period of illness
Convalescence
Incubation period- infection stage, exposure, adherece/attachment
Period of illness- disease stage- tissue damage, invasiveness, toxicity
Convalescence- body return to predisease state
Viremia
presence of viruses in blood
Bacteremia
presence of bacteria in the blood
Septicemia
when bacteria is multiplying in the blood
Toxemia
presence of toxins in the blood
List three ways by which bacteria may avoid phagocytosis?
1- preventing encounters with phagocytes,
2- avoiding recognition and attachment
3- surviving within phagocytes
What are superantigens , give one example , explain how they trigger a cytokine storm and why do they cause shock.
Super antigens are a class of antigens that cause non-specific activation of T-cells resulting in polyclonal T cell activation. Staph. aureus override the specificity of the helper T cell response causing toxic effects due to the massive release of cytokines by T helper cells which enters the blood stream
What is the difference between cytotoxic toxin and cytolytic toxin?
cytotoxic: quality of being toxic to cells
cytolytic: occurs when a cell bursts due to an imbalance that has caused excess water to move into the cell
Give three examples of cytolytic toxins.
leukocidins
α-toxin
phospholipase
List all the invasive enzymes that are associated with Staph.aureus
- coagulase
- catalase
- hyaluronidase
- fibrinolysin
- lipase
- nuclease
- penicillinase
List all the virulence factors which allow S.aureus to hide/destroy from the immune system.
- clumping factor
- Fibronectin-binding protein
- protein A
- alpha toxin
- leukocidin
- enterotoxin
- toxic shock syndrome toxin-1
The _______produced by Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium tetani are examples of virulence factors.
neurotoxins
The _____ produced by Clostridium perfringens and Streptococcus pyogenes are examples of virulence factors
necrotizing enzymes
_________ are exoenzymes that cause clot formation.
coagulases
_____ are exoenzymes that dissolve clots.
Kinases
______ are produced by Clostridium difficle, Salmonella spp.,
enterotoxins
______ is a virulence factor that is found in (and released from) the cell walls of Gram-negative bacteria.
endotoxin
The molecules on the surfaces of host cells that pathogens are able to recognize and attach to are known as receptors or _____
adhesions
Molecules on the surfaces of pathogens that are able to recognize and bind to molecules on the surfaces of host cells are known as ligands or _________.
integrins
_______ is also known as “spreading factor.”
hyaloronidase
_____ are toxins that destroy white blood cells
leukocidins
T/F Bacterial capsules protect bacteria from being phagocytized by leukocytes.
TRUE
T/F A headache is a classic example of a sign of a disease.
FALSE
T/F In order to cause disease, all bacterial pathogens must first attach to some tissue in the body.
FALSE
T/F Rickettsias and chlamydias are examples of obligate intracellular pathogens
TRUE
T/F Babesia spp., Ehrlichia spp., and Plasmodium spp. are examples of intraerythrocytic pathogens.
FALSE
T/F The exoenzyme that causes toxic shock syndrome is called erthyrogenic toxin.
FALSE
T/F The neurotoxins produced by Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium tetani cause a spastic, rigid type of paralysis.
FALSE
T/F Although most people use the terms “infection” and “infectious disease” synonymously, microbiologists define infection as colonization by a pathogen.
TRUE
T/F Avirulent strains do not cause disease.
TRUE
T/F It is thought that the waxes in the cell walls of Mycobacterium tuberculosis protect this pathogen from digestion within phagocytes.
TRUE
Microbe lacks the ability to cause disease
avirulent
Establish microbial growth on a body surface
colonization
Able to produce disease in a host with impaired defenses
opportunist
Disease Causing Organism
Pathogen
T/F The most successful parasites are the ones that live in harmony with their hosts.
TRUE
T/F Infection always leads to disease.
FALSE
T/F A disease is an infection that impairs the normal state of health.
TRUE
T/F Obligate intracellular parasites may be grown in special synthetic media
TRUE
T/F The infectious dose of most pathogens is about equal.
FALSE
T/F A strong attachment of a microorganism to a host cell automatically leads to disease
FALSE
T/F High concentrations of some bacteria are necessary for successful invasion because only at high density are their virulence genes expressed.
TRUE
T/F Only gram + bacteria produce exotoxins
FALSE
The toxin implicated in C. perfringens toxicity is A. tetanospasmin. B. exoenzyme S. C. alpha-toxin phospholipase D. endoenzyme T.
alpha-toxin phospholipase
Which of the following produces a greenish pigment that may appear in infected wounds? E. coli S. aureus S. pyogenes P. aeruginosa
P. aeruginosa
Effective treatment of gas gangrene primarily involves
- use of an antitoxin.
- use of immune globulins.
- vaccination with inactivated toxin.
- surgical removal of dead and infected tissues.
surgical removal of dead and infected tissues.
The toxin implicated in C. perfringens toxicity is
- tetanospasmin.
- exoenzyme S.
- alpha-toxin.
- endoenzyme T.
alpha toxin
Tetanus antitoxin is
- antibody against the bacteria.
- inactivated toxin.
- inactivated bacteria.
- antibody against the toxin.
antibody against the toxin
Tetanus prevents the release of neurotransmitters from
- muscle cells.
- excitatory neurons.
- inhibitory neurons.
- tetano cells.
inhibitory neurons.
Wound infections may result in
• delayed healing.
• abscess formation.
• extension of bacteria or their products into surrounding tissues or bloodstream.
• aerobic conditions.
• delayed healing, abscess formation AND extension of bacteria or their products into surrounding tissues or bloodstream.
delayed healing, abscess formation AND extension of bacteria or their products into surrounding tissues or bloodstream.
Factor(s) not found in abscesses is/are
- pus.
- dead leukocytes.
- tissue remnants.
- blood vessels.
blood vessels
The normal habitat of Clostridium tetani ____ &___
soil and dust
What is associated with the flesh-eating organism?
Streptococcus pyogenes
. The Rickettsial disease that killed Howard Ricketts and Stanislaus Prowazek was
a. louse-borne typhus.
b. tick-borne typhus.
c. yellow fever.
d. bubonic plague.
louse-borne typhus.
Which of the following is considered an important function of the skin?
a. hold muscle to bone
b. manufacture blood cells
c. produce antibodies
d. control body temperature
control body temperature
- The antimicrobial aspect(s) of the skin is/are
a. dryness.
b. saltiness.
c. acidity.
d. toxicity.
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
Which of the following organisms is not normally found on the skin?
a. staphylococci
b. diptheroids
c. Candida spp.
d. Malassezia spp.
c. Candida spp.
Diphtheroids
a. are part of the normal flora of the skin.
b. are responsible for body odor.
c. include P. acnes.
d. include Malassezia spp..
e. a, b and c
e. a, b and c
Which of the following normal skin flora is a small yeast?
a. staphylococci
b. diphtheroids
c. Candida spp.
d. Malassezia spp.
Malassezia spp.
The growth of P. acnes within hair follicles, in many individuals, leads to
a. eczema.
b. carbuncles.
c. boils.
d. acne.
d. acne.
The principal species of Staphylococcus found on the skin is
a. aureus.
b. acnes.
c. pyogenes.
d. epidermidis.
d. epidermidis.
The bacteria that appear to maintain balance between the members of the normal flora and play a vital role in limiting colonization by pathogens are
a. staphylococci.
b. diptheroids.
c. Candida spp.
d. Malassezia spp.
a. staphylococci.
Which of the following may be added to normal media to make it more selective for staphylococci?
a. 7.5% salt
b. 0.5% HCl
c. 1.0 % glucose
d. 5.0% mannose
a. 7.5% salt
The member of the normal flora sometimes considered responsible for tinea versicolor is
a. staphylococci.
b. diptheroids.
c. Candida spp.
d. Malassezia spp.
d. Malassezia spp.
Which is deemed the most serious staphylococcal skin infection?
a. tinea versicolor
b. folliculitis
c. furuncles
d. carbuncles
d. carbuncles
A protein associated with a more virulent form of Staphylococcus is
a. leukocidin.
b. mannose.
c. streptokinase.
d. coagulase.
d. coagulase.
The protein produced by S. aureus that interferes with phagocytosis is
a. protein M.
b. collagen.
c. protein A.
d. capsular protein.
c. protein A.
The preferred habitat of S. aureus is the
a. throat.
b. urethra.
c. bladder.
d. nasal chamber.
d. nasal chamber.
Approximately 90% of S. aureus strains are resistant to
a. methicillin.
b. tetracyclin.
c. polymyxin B.
d. penicillin.
d. penicillin.
The S. aureus product that causes scalded skin syndrome is/are
a. exfoliative toxin.
b. lipases.
c. leukocidins.
d. protein M.
e. all of the above
a. exfoliative toxin.
A frequent complication of scalded skin syndrome is a secondary infection caused by
a. M. luteus. b. S. pyogenes. c. S. epidermidis. d. Pseudomonas spp.
d. Pseudomonas spp.
In addition to S. aureus, impetigo may also involve
a. M. luteus. b. S. pyogenes. c. S. epidermidis. d. Pseudomonas spp.
b. S. pyogenes.
In S. pyogenes, which of the following interferes with phagocytosis?
a. M protein
b. protein A
c. collagen
d. pilin
a. M protein
In which of the following does a rash start on the palms and soles and progress toward the trunk?
a. epidemic typhus
b. typhoid
c. Lyme disease
d. impetigo
e. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
e. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
The major vector of Rocky Mountain spotted fever in the western U.S. is
a. Rickettsia rickettsi. b. Rickettsia prowazeki. c. Borrelia burgdorferi. d. Dermacentor andersoni.
d. Dermacentor andersoni.
Rocky Mountain spotted fever is an example of a(n)
a. animalosis.
b. tickonosis.
c. plantonosis.
d. zoonosis.
d. zoonosis.
After being bitten by an infected tick, transfer of the rickettsial organism occurs
a. immediately.
b. within 5 minutes.
c. within 20 minutes.
d. within 4-10 hours.
d. within 4-10 hours.
The causative agent of Lyme disease is
a. Rickettsia rickettsi.
b. Rickettsia prowazeki.
c. Borrelia burgdorferi.
d. Dermacentor andersoni.
c. Borrelia burgdorferi.
The unique characteristic of Lyme disease is
a. erythema migrans. b. induration. c. carbuncle. d. furuncle.
a. erythema migrans.
Which of the following is an obligate intracellular parasite?
a. M. luteus b. S. pyogenes c. Rickettsia rickettsi d. Pseudomonas spp.
c. Rickettsia rickettsi
The stage of Lyme disease that is characterized by arthritis is the
a. primary.
b. third.
c. second.
b. third.
The most important vector of Lyme disease in the eastern U.S. is
a. Dermacentor virabilis. b. Dermacentor andersoni. c. Staphylococcus aureus. d. Ixodes scapularis.
d. Ixodes scapularis.
Which of the following pertains to Borrelia burgdorferi?
a. coccus
b. bacillus
c. spirochete
d. filament
c. spirochete
The growth stage of the vector that is mainly responsible for transmitting Lyme disease is the
a. nymph stage.
b. larva.
c. adult.
d: all of t he above
e: a and c
a. nymph stage.
Many childhood diseases caused by viral infections of the upper respiratory tract can usually
be diagnosed by
a. inspection of the rash.
b. the type of cough.
c. the type of fever.
d. the incubation period.a. inspection of the rash.
The varicella virus is a member of which virus family?
a. paramyxo
b. toga
c. papilloma
d. herpes
d. herpes
Reactivation of chickenpox is called
a. shingles.
b. herpes zoster.
c. pneumonia.
d. exanthems.
e. a and b
a. shingles.
b. herpes zoster.
- Rubella, rubeola and varicella-zoster are all only acquired via
a. the gastrointestinal route.
b. the respiratory route.
c. wounds.
d. blood transfusions.
b. the respiratory route.
An important diagnostic sign of measles is
a. Koplik’s spots.
b. giant cells.
c. fever.
d. swollen lymph nodes.
a. Koplik’s spots.
The MMR vaccine is used to protect against
a. mononucleosis, mange, rubeola. b. measles, mange, rubeola. c. mononucleosis, mumps, rubella. d. measles, mumps, rubella.
d. measles, mumps, rubella.
The most serious consequence of rubella is
a. encephalitis.
b. meningitis.
c. deafness.
d. birth defects.
d. birth defects.
Rubella is a member of which virus family?
a. paramyxo virus
b. herpes
c. toga virus
d. papovavirus
c. toga virus
Warts are caused by
a. papillomavirus.
b. parvovirus.
c. papovavirus.
d. herpes virus.
a. papillomavirus.
T/F Diphtheroids are responsible for body odor.
TRUE
T/F Coagulase-positive S. aureus is often involved in disease.
TRUE
T/F . Borrelia burgdorferi is a spirochete with a number of axial filaments.
TRUE
T/F Varicella is a member of the herpes family of viruses and produces a latent infection.
TRUE
T/F Humans are the only reservoir for varicella-zoster.
TRUE
T/F Complications of measles may include pneumonia and encephalitis.
TRUE
T/F Chickenpox and measles are both acquired by the respiratory route.
TRUE
T/F The MMR vaccine is used to protect against measles, mumps, rubella.
TRUE
T/F Diseases caused by fungi are called mycoses.
TRUE
T/F The skin-invading molds are collectively called termed dermatophytes.
TRUE
Rubeola
virus
Lyme Disease
Spirochete
Ringworm
fungi
Impetigo
bacteria
Wound healing can be slowed by the presence of
a. normal flora. b. antiseptic ointments. c. sweat. d. foreign matter.
d. foreign matter.
A wound created by a knife can be classified as
a. puncture.
b. incised.
c. lacerated.
d. contused.
b. incised.
An important feature of many wounds that may lead to more serious problems is that they are
a. well aerated. b. well fed. c. sterile. d. relatively anaerobic.
d. relatively anaerobic.
The most frequent genus causing wound infections in healthy people is
a. Pseudomonas. b. Staphylococcus. c. Pasteurella. d. Rochalimea.
b. Staphylococcus.
Which of the following may aid Staphylococcus in resisting phagocytosis?
a. leukocidin b. hemolysin c. granulation enzyme d. coagulase
d. coagulase
Which of the following virulence factors used by Staphylococcus puts holes in host cells?
a. protein A
b. alpha toxin
c. leukocidin
d. clumping factor
b. alpha toxin
Which of the following are involved in coating Staphylococcus with host proteins?
a. clumping factor
b. coagulase
c. protein A
d. leukocidin
e. a, b and c
e. a, b and c
S. pyogenes associated with invasive disease characteristically have
a. leukocidins.
b. coagulase.
c. exotoxin A.
d. exotoxin B.
d. exotoxin B.
The Gram-negative opportunistic rod that can grow in a wide variety of environments, including disinfectants and soaps, is
a. E. coli.
b. S. aureus.
c. S. pyogenes.
d. P. aeruginosa.
d. P. aeruginosa.
A striking feature of Clostridium tetani that differentiate it from other pathogenic species of Clostridium is its ability to
a. produce a greenish pigment. b. form spores. c. form terminally located, spherical spores. d. grow aerobically.
c. form terminally located, spherical spores.
The popular name for tetanus is
a. hydrophobia.
b. lockjaw.
c. whooping cough.
d. consumption.
b. lockjaw.
The exotoxin produced by C. tetani is
a. tetanoxin.
b. exotetanus.
c. tetanospasmin.
d. endospasmin.
c. tetanospasmin.
The disease that involves the muscles and often manifests itself first with spasms of the jaw muscles is
a. polio.
b. rabies.
c. tetanus.
d. gastritis.
c. tetanus
Tetanus vaccine contains
a. inactivated bacteria. b. inactivated spores. c. tetanus toxoid. d. inactivated tetanospasmin. e. c and d
d. inactivated tetanospasmin.
Tetanus antitoxin is
a. antibody against the bacteria. b. inactivated toxin. c. inactivated bacteria. d. antibody against the toxin.
d. antibody against the toxin.
The toxin implicated in C. perfringens toxicity is
a. tetanospasmin.
b. exoenzyme S.
c. alpha-toxin.
d. endoenzyme T.
c. alpha-toxin.
Gas gangrene is so named due to the formation of
a. carbon dioxide. b. oxygen. c. hydrogen. d. carbon monoxide. e. a and c
e. a and c
The disease most feared to develop after an animal bite is
a. tetanus.
b. rabies.
c. gas gangrene.
d. actinomycosis.
b. rabies.
Microorganisms in abscesses often are not killed by antimicrobial agents because
a. the microorganisms stop dividing. b. of the chemical nature of the pus. c. of the lack of blood vessels. d. of the high level of oxygenation. e. a, b and c
e. a, b and c
S. aureus clumping factor
a. causes fibrinogen to clump together. b. causes bacteria to clump together in plasma. c. reacts with prothrombin. d. produces staphylothrombin.
b. causes bacteria to clump together in plasma.
Which is true about protein A?
a. It binds to the Fc region of antibody. b. It hides bacteria from phagocytes. c. It enhances binding of phagocytes. d. It digests antibodies. e. a and b
a. It binds to the Fc region of antibody
b. It hides bacteria from phagocytes.
Which is true of leukocidins?
a. They are superantigens. b. They kill neutrophils. c. They make holes in host cell membranes. d. They bind to Fc regions of antibodies.
b. They kill neutrophils.
T/F The very low humidity of the desert would lead to rapid evaporation of sweat and sebum from an individual’s skin. Bacteria need these secretions for a nutrient source. Without them, bacteria would be found in much lower numbers on the skin of a person in the desert than the skin of the person in the tropics.
TRUE
T/F Coagulase-positive S. aureus is often involved in disease.
TRUE
T/F Varicella is a member of the herpes family of viruses and produces a latent infection.
TRUE
T/F Complications of measles may include pneumonia and encephalitis.
TRUE
T/F Chickenpox and measles are both acquired by the respiratory route.
TRUE
The cause of strep throat is
a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus pyogenes- beta-hemolytic, group A c. Staphylococcus pyogenes- alpha-hemolytic, group B d. Streptococcus pneumonia
b. Streptococcus pyogenes- beta-hemolytic, group A
Which of the following is associated with the upper respiratory system?
a. humidifying inhaled air b. warming inhaled air c. cooling inhaled air d. drying inhaled air e. a and b
a. humidifying inhaled air
b. warming inhaled air
Rapid diagnostic tests for streptococcal infections may utilize
a. blood agar. b. antibodies. c. DNA probes. d. the Kirby-Bauer test. e. b and c
b. antibodies.
c. DNA probes.
The disease characterized by the appearance of a toxin-mediated rash and a whitish coating on the tongue is
a. measles.
b. chickenpox.
c. strep throat.
d. scarlet fever.
d. scarlet fever.
A bacteriophage is necessary for toxin production in
a. E. coli. b. Staphylococcus aureus. c. Streptococcus pyogenes. d. C. diphtheriae.
d. C. diphtheriae.
Diphtheria toxin works on
a. lysosomes. b. mitochondria. c. chloroplasts. d. elongation factor 2.
d. elongation factor 2.
Which is used in the vaccination for C. diphtheriae?
a. protein A
b. M protein
c. toxoid
d. red blood cells
c. toxoid
The most common bacterial pathogen(s) involved with sinusitis, otitis media and conjunctivitis is/are
a. S. aureus
b. H. influenzae
c. S. pneumoniae
d. S. epidermidis
e. b and c
b. H. influenzae
c. S. pneumoniae
Otitis media and sinusitis are usually preceded by a(n)
a. middle ear infection. b. pseudomonal infection. c. oropharyngeal infection. d. nasopharyngeal infection.
d. nasopharyngeal infection.
Otitis media probably develops from an infection that spread
a. from the outer ear to the middle ear. b. from the sensory neurons of the middle ear. c. through the tympanic membrane. d. upward through the eustachian tube.
d. upward through the eustachian tube.
Most colds are probably caused by
a. rhinovirus. b. S. aureus. c. Pseudomonas sp. d. E. coli.
a. rhinovirus.
Rhinoviruses need to be grown
a. in living cells. b. in synthetic media. c. on blood agar. d. at 33 ° C. e. a and d
a. in living cells.
d. at 33 ° C.
The rhinovirus contains
a. single-stranded negative sense RNA. b. single-stranded positive sense RNA. c. double-stranded DNA. d. multiple pieces of single-stranded DNA.
b. single-stranded positive sense RNA.
The reservoir of the common cold is the
a. family pet.
b. human.
c. infected fomite.
d. fruit.
b. human.
A vaccine for the common cold is not feasible because
a. the surface antigens of rhinovirus mutate frequently. b. the cause is unknown. c. the rhinovirus cannot be grown in sufficient quantities. d. there are more than 100 types of rhinovirus.
d. there are more than 100 types of rhinovirus.
Colds are effectively treated with
a. antibiotics. b. aspirin and acetaminophen. c. proteases. d. nucleotide analogs. e. none of the above
e. none of the above
Effective preventive methods for avoiding the common cold is/are
a. hand washing. b. avoiding crowds. c. touching one’s face. d. avoiding close contact with people with colds. e. all of the above
e. all of the above
The disease that closely resembles “strep throat” but is of viral origin is
a. the common cold. b. otitis media. c. tonsilitis. d. adenoviral pharyngitis.
d. adenoviral pharyngitis.
Adenoviral pharyngitis is effectively treated with
a. antibiotics. b. lysozyme. c. proteases. d. nucleotide analogs. e. none of the above
e. none of the above
Which of the following are considered diseases of the lower respiratory tract?
a. diphtheria and pneumonia b. influenza and diphtheria c. tuberculosis and pneumonia d. common cold and tuberculosis
c. tuberculosis and pneumonia
About 60% of the bacterial pneumonias that require hospitalization of adults are caused by
a. S. pyogenes.
b. S. pneumoniae.
c. S. aureus.
d. K. pneumonia.
b. S. pneumoniae.
The characteristic virulence factor of S. pneumoniae is
a. a capsule.
b. flagella.
c. pili.
d. cilia
a. a capsule.
The key virulence factor of S. pneumoniae interferes with
a. the action of C3. b. the action of C3b. c. the action of C5a. d. interferon.
b. the action of C3b.
Both S. pneumoniae and K. pneumoniae use this as a virulence factor.
a. pili
b. flagella
c. capsules
d. cilia
c. capsules
The causative agent of the pneumonia that causes permanent lung damage, may be nosocomial and has a high mortality if untreated is
a. S. pneumoniae.
b. K. pneumoniae.
c. S. pyogenes.
d. S. aureus.
b. K. pneumoniae.
The virulence of Klebsiella is due partly to the
a. motility of the organism. b. exotoxin produced. c. engorgement of blood vessels. d. antiphagocytic properties of their capsules. e. b and d
antiphagocytic properties of their capsules.
Mycoplasmal and klebsiellal pneumonias
a. have similar incubation periods. b. have causative agents that lack cell walls. c. are serious diseases often requiring hospitalization. d. are both relatively mild diseases. e. none of the above
e. none of the above
The spread of mycoplasma is through
a. inhalation of infected droplets. b. the fecal-oral route. c. an insect vector. d. a fomite.
a. inhalation of infected droplets.
Which antibiotics may be completely ineffective in treating a mycoplasmal infection?
a. penicillin
b. cephalosporin
c. tetracycline
d. erythromycin
e. a and b
a. penicillin
b. cephalosporin
The sudden, violent, uncontrollable cough of pertussis is described as
a. productive.
b. contagious.
c. infective.
d. paroxymal.
d. paroxymal.
The causative agent of whooping cough is
a. parvovirus. b. M. pneumoniae. c. B. pertussis. d. S. aureus.
c. B. pertussis.
Pertussis toxin
a. uses part B to attach to receptors on the host cell. b. uses part A to inactivate G protein. c. affects the level of cAMP in a cell. d. affects the level of mucus secretion. e. all of the above
e. all of the above
Although unusually resistant to many control factors, the tubercle bacillus is easily killed by
a. strong acids.
b. disinfectants.
c. pasteurization.
d. strong alkalis.
c. pasteurization.
The resistance of the tubercle bacillus to various factors is probably due to its
a. capsule. b. larger ribosomes. c. ability to adhere tightly. d. cell wall.
d. cell wall.
The virulence of the tubercle bacillus is due to its
a. toxin. b. lyosgenic conversion. c. resistance to antibiotics. d. survival within macrophages. e. b and c
d. survival within macrophages.
The destructive nature of tuberculosis can be characterized as a(n)
a. endotoxin pyrogenic response. b. immune complex reaction. c. inflammatory response. d. delayed hypersensitivity reaction.
d. delayed hypersensitivity reaction.
The bacterial lung infection acquired by inhalation of aerosols of contaminated water is known as
a. whooping cough. b. walking pneumonia. c. influenza. d. Legionnaires’ disease.
d. Legionnaires’ disease.
Influenza is caused by
a. orthomyxovirus.
b. H. influenza.
c. cytomegalovirus.
d. adenovirus.
a. orthomyxovirus.
Projecting from the outer envelope of the influenza virus are two glycoproteins called
a. leukocidin and hemolysin. b. hyaluronidase and coagulase. c. hemagglutinin and neuraminidase. d. lysozyme and coagulase.
c. hemagglutinin and neuraminidase.
Antigenic shifts may be the result of
a. two different viruses infecting a cell at the same time.
b. the lysogenic conversion of two viruses.
c. conjugation of two viruses.
d. blending of a bacterial and a viral genome.
e. b and d
a. two different viruses infecting a cell at the same time.
Which is true of hantavirus?
a. It is a zoonosis involving mice.
b. It has three segments of single stranded, negative sense RNA.
c. The primary effect is to flood the lungs with fluid.
d. Shock and death occurs in 40% of the cases.
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
T/F Otitis media is an infection of the middle ear that is rare in the first month of life.
TRUE
T/F Rhinoviruses are effectively treated with antibiotics.
FALSE
T/F Of infectious diseases, pneumonia is a major killer in the general population.
TRUE
T/F A vaccine is available for protection from pneumococcal pneumonia.
TRUE
T/F Klebsiella easily acquire and are a source of R factors.
TRUE
T/F Pneumonias are inflammatory diseases of the lung in which fluid fills the alveoli.
TRUE
T/F Mycoplasma is effectively treated with cell wall inhibiting antibiotics.
FALSE
T/F Streptococci are grouped by their cell wall carbohydrates.
TRUE
Staphylococcus aureus is the causative agent of
a. bacterial vaginosis. b. puerperal fever. c. toxic shock syndrome. d. gas gangrene. e. a and b
c. toxic shock syndrome.
The cause of infectious mononucleosis is
a. varicella virus. b. Staphylococcus aureus. c. Epstein-Barr virus. d. Francisella tularensis.
c. Epstein-Barr virus.
Epstein-Barr virus may become latent in
a. red blood cells.
b. T cells.
c. nerve cells.
d. B cells.
d. B cells.
