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Medical Microbiology > Exam #2 > Flashcards

Exam #2 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

Define in simple terms what is a virus.

A

A virus is made up of nucleic acids. They infect ALL groups of living cells. They do not exhibit the characteristics of a living organism, but they can regulate life functions of their host cells.

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2
Q

What are the characteristics of viruses. (6)

A

Viruses are filterable agents
Viruses are obligate intracellular “nucleic acid parasites”
Viruses can’t make energy or proteins without the host cell
Virus genomes can be DNA or RNA but NOT both
Viruses can have a capsid or capsid + envelope
Viral components are assembled and don’t replicate by division

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3
Q

How are viruses classified or named? (6)

A

1) Structure: size, morphology, and nucleic acid
2) Biochemical characteristics:
3) Disease
4) Means of transmission
5) Host cell (host range)
6) Tissue or organ (tropism)

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4
Q

Mode of transmission for virus?

A

Enteric
Respiratory
Zoonotic
Sexually Transmitted

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5
Q

Enteric mechanism & examples

A

Fecal-Oral Route
Wide-spectrum of activity
Enteroviruses (polio, coxsackie B); rotaviruses (diarrhea)

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6
Q

Respiratory mechanism & examples

A

Respiratory or salivary route

Influenza, measles, rhinovirus (colds)

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7
Q

Zoontoic mechanism & examples

A

vector (usually an insect); animal to human directly

rabies, cowpox, dengue

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8
Q

Sexually Transmitted mechanism & examples

A

sexual contact

herpes simplex virus-2, HIV

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9
Q

Structure of Naked Viruses & 2 examples

A

Capsid ( made up of capsomers/protein coat) + Nucleic acid

Examples = Adeno & Papilloma

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10
Q

Structure of Enveloped Viruses & 2 examples

A 
Naked virus (Capsid +Nucleic Acid) + Envelope (lipid bilayer)
Examples = Pox & Herpes
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11
Q

Naked Viruses are released by the cell via______ and are stable to….. (5)

A 
(lysis)
Temperature 
Acid 
Proteases 
Detergents 
Drying
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12
Q

Enveloped Viruses are released by the cell via ______ and _______and are unstable to….(4)

A 
(lysis & budding)
Acid 
Detergents 
Drying 
Heat
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13
Q

Naked Viruses Consequences (5)

A

Can be spread easily (on fomites, from hand to hand, by dust, by small droplets)
Can dry out and retain infectivity
Can survive the adverse conditions of the gut
Can be resistant to detergents and poor sewage treatment
Antibody may be sufficient for immunoprotection

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14
Q

Enveloped Viruses Consequences (6)

A

Must stay wet
Cannot survive the gastrointestinal tract
Spreads in large droplets, secretions, organ transplants, and blood transfusions
Does not need to kill the cell to spread
May need antibody and cell-mediated immune response for protection and control
Elicits hypersensitivity and inflammation to cause immunopathogenesis

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15
Q

DNA viruses & examples

A

Enveloped:Pox (smallpox), Herpes(HSV1), & Hepadna (Hep B)
Naked: Polyoma (JC Virus), Papilloma (HPV), Adeno (adenovirus)

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16
Q

RNA virus & examples (7)

A 
Paramyxovirida (measles)
Orthomyxovirida (influenza)
Coronaviridae (SARS)
Rhabdoviridae (Rabies)
Filoviridae (Ebola)
Bunyaviridae (Hantavirus)
Retroviridae (HIV)
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17
Q

Mode of infection of Viruses? (8)

A 
Recognition of the target cell 
Attachment 
Penetration 
Uncoating 
Macromolecular (Gene Expression) synthesis 
Assembly of virus 
Budding of enveloped viruses 
Release of virus
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18
Q

Where do RNA viruses grow in the cell ,where do DNA viruses grow?

A

DNA: nucleus
RNA: cytoplasm

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19
Q

*Where does the flu virus grow?

A

nucleus

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20
Q

*Where does the pox virus grow?

A

cytoplasm

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21
Q

Viral acute vs. Chronic vs. Persistent vs. Latent diseases. Give 2 examples for each.

A
  • Acute: rapid onset of disease, brief period of symptoms, & resolution within days (influenza & rhinovirus)
  • Chronic: a type of persistent infection that is eventually cleared, cells are not killed OR the cells are killed so slowly that there is no net cell death (Hep B & Hep C)
  • Persistent: last for long periods, occurs when the primary infection is not cleared by the adaptive immune response (measles & HIV-1).
  • Latent: a type of persistent infection, last through the life of the host, acute infection followed by period of no/little virus production, it is usually re-activated (Varicella-zoster & HSV-1 & 2)
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22
Q

Innate Immunity

A

Innate
§ Fast but non-specific; fast way to suppress infections & prevent disease
§ No memory
§ Resistance not improved by repeated contact
§ Phagocytes & NK cells
§ Soluble factors = lysozyme, complement, & acute phase proteins

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23
Q

Adaptive Immunity

A

Adaptive
§ Antigen-specific immune response
§ Produces recovery & a specific immunological memory
§ Specific memory
§ Resistance improved by repeated contact
§ B& T lymphocytes
§ Soluble factors = antibodies

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24
Q

Penetration of Viruses (Naked vs Enveloped)

A

o Naked
§ Endocytosis (enter by receptor-mediated endocytosis)
§ Viropexis (slip through; direct penetration; picornavirus & papovavirus). Hydrophobic structures of capsid proteins are exposed after virus binds to cells. This allows the virus and its genome to slip through the membrane.
o Enveloped
§ Fuse their membrane with cellular membrane
§ Endocytosis

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25
Q

Uncoating of Viruses (Naked vs. Enveloped)

A

§ Initiated by attachment to receptor or by acidic environment or proteases in an endosome or lysosome
§ DNA genome taken to nucleus while RNA genome stays in cytoplasm
o Naked
§ Nucleocapsid delivered to the site of replication & the capsid is removed
o Enveloped
§ Uncoating occurs during fusion.

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26
Q

Macromolecular Synthesis of Viruses

A

§ Early mRNA & nonstructural protein synthesis
§ Genome Replication
§ Late mRNA & structural protein synthesis
§ Post-translational modification of protein

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27
Q

Define First– line defense (3 Types)

A

Defense against entry into the body
Physical Barriers – skin, sweat
Antimicrobial substances – lysozymes (tears, saliva), lactoferrin (saliva), mucus (respiratory and geneital tract)
Normal Flora – normal flora crowds the intestines making it harder for pathogens to attach, if the pathogen cannot attach, it cannot infect the cell.

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28
Q

Humoral Adaptive Immunity

A

Involves B Cells
§ Antibody- Mediated Response
§ Involved B cells that recognize pathogens (antigens) in the lymph
§ Antigen binds to B cell
§ Helper T cell co stimulates B cell
§ B cells proliferate & make plasma cells. Plasma cells release antibodies specific to the antigen
§ B cells produce memory cells

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29
Q

Cell Mediated Adaptive Immunity

A

Involves T cells
§ This response occurs when cells display MHC markers
§ APC displaying foreign antigens bind to T cells
§ Interleukins costimulates T cell activation
§ If MHC-I & endogenous antigens are displayed, T cells proliferate producing cytotoxic T cells. CYT T cells destroy cells that present antigens
§ If MHC-II & exogenous antigens are displayed, T cells proliferate producing helper T cells. HTC release interleukins that stimulate B cells to make antibodies that bind to antigens & stimulate NK and macrophages to destroy the antigen.

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30
Q

List five mechanical and five chemical factors that are involved in preventing the attachment and invasion of microorganisms through the skin and mucous membranes

A

Mechanical – peeing, bowel movement, skin, removal of inhaled particles, cilia
Chemical – lysozymes, lactoferrin, lactoperoxidase, B-lysin, properdin

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31
Q

Which of the following is not a granulocyte?

    	a. eosinophil
    	b. macrophage
    	c. basophil
    	d. neutrophil
A

Macrophages

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32
Q

All blood cells originate from the

    	a. erythrocyte.
    	b. leukocytic stem cell.
    	c. eosinophilic stem cell.
    	d. hematopoietic stem cell.
A

hematopoietic stem cell

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33
Q

The leukocyte that contains histamine is the

    	a. lymphocyte.
    	b. monocyte.
    	c. macrophage.
    	d. basophil.
A

Basophils

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34
Q

The defense system utilizing highly specialized cells and chemicals that develop in response to specific organisms and foreign materials is the

    	a. generalized defense system.
    	b. innate immune system.
    	c. adaptive immune system.
    	d. autoimmunity.
A

adaptive immune system

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35
Q

Allergic reactions mainly involve

    	a. macrophages.
    	b. monocytes.
    	c. neutrophils.
    	d. mast cells.
A

Mast cells

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36
Q

Which of the following are referred to as mononuclear phagocytes?

    	a. lymphocytes and basophils
    	b. mast cells and eosinophils
    	c. basophils and eosinophils
    	d. monocytes and macrophages
A

monocytes and macrophages

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37
Q

Macrophages form giant cells and granulomas in response to

    	a. leprosy.
    	b. tuberculosis.
    	c. cholera.
    	d. AIDS.
A

Tuberculosis

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38
Q

Which of the following are antigen-presenting cells?

    	a. dendritic cells
    	b. T cells
    	c. erythrocytes
    	d. basophils
A

Dendritic cells

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39
Q

The leukocyte responsible for adaptive immunity is the

    	a. lymphocyte.
    	b. monocyte.
    	c. eosinophil.
    	d. neutrophil.
A

lymphocyte

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40
Q

Skin and mucous membranes

    	a. are the first line of innate immunity.
    	b. are the first line of adaptive immunity.
    	c. act as physical barriers to infection.
    	d. contain antimicrobial secretions.
    	e. a, c and d
A

act as physical barriers to infection
are the first line of innate immunity
contain antimicrobial secretions

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41
Q

Interferons, complement, lysozyme, and lactoferrin are all examples of

    	a. specific antimicrobial factors.
    	b. immune enzymes.
    	c. nonspecific antimicrobial factors.
    	d. cytokines.
A

nonspecific antimicrobial factors

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42
Q

A group of interacting serum proteins that provide a nonspecific defense mechanism is

    	a. complement.
    	b. interferon.
    	c. glycoprotein.
    	d. lysozyme
A

complement

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43
Q

C3a and C5a are involved in

    	a. inflammation.
    	b. interferon production.
    	c. properidin activation.
    	d. enhancement of phagocytosis.
    	e. a and d
A

inflammation & enhancement of phagocytosis

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44
Q

C3b is involved in

    	a. opsonization.
    	b. interferon production.
    	c. properidin activation.
    	d. endotoxin production
A

opsonization

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45
Q

The complex resulting from complement activity that leads to cell lysis is the

    	a. prostaglandin complex.
    	b. leukotriene activating complex.
    	c. membrane attack complex.
    	d. histamine complex.
A

membrane attack complex

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46
Q

Which of the following are most susceptible to complement lysis?

    	a. Gram-positive bacteria
    	b. Gram-negative bacteria
    	c. bacteriophages
    	c. prions
A

Gram negative bacteria

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47
Q 
The low molecular weight glycoprotein produced by animal cells in response to viral
infections is
        	a. complement.
        	b. lysozyme.
        	c. histamine
                d. interferon.
A

interferon

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48
Q

The cytokine produced by animal cells in response to viral infections is

    	a. complement.
    	b. lysozyme.
    	c. histamine.
    	d. interferon.
A

interferon

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49
Q

Interferons function to make cells

    	a. resistant to viral replication.
    	b. lyse when exposed to virus.
    	c. non-motile when infected with virus.
    	d. resistant to phagocytosis.
A

resistant to viral replication

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50
Q

Which of the following cytokines is most antiviral in its action?

    	a. interleukin-1
    	b. interleukin-2
    	c. interferon
    	d. lysozyme
A

interferon

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51
Q

Which of the following statements about interferon is incorrect?

    	a. It only works on a few specific types of virus.
    	b. It makes cells resistant to viral infection.
    	c. It is a species specific molecule.
    	d. It does not directly inactivate viruses.
A

It only works on a few specific types of virus

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52
Q

Which activity of the virally-invaded cell triggers production of interferon?

    a. activation of  rRNA
    b. movement of nuclear proteins to the cytoplasm
   	c. production of glycolipids
   	d. production of dsRNA
A

production of dsRNA

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53
Q

The four cardinal signs of inflammation are:

    	a. flare, wheals, fever, cough
    	b. rash, pus, heat, rubor
    	c. heat, pain, vesicles, fever
    	d. redness, heat, swelling, pain
A

redness, heat, swelling, pain

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54
Q

The first host response to a nonspecific tissue injury is described as

    	a. inflammation.
    	b. reaction.
    	c. antibodies.
    	d. trauma.
A

inflammation

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55
Q

The first kind of leukocyte lured to the site of inflammation is the

    	a. neutrophil.
    	b. monocyte.
    	c. macrophage.
    	d. basophil.
A

neutrophil

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56
Q

The attraction of leukocytes to the area on inflammation is referred to as

    	a. parasitism.
    	b. infection.
    	c. phototaxis.
    	d. chemotaxis.
A

chemotaxis

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57
Q

The cellular organelle responsible for the digestion of ingested infectious agents is the

    	a. endoplasmic reticulum.   	
    	b. Golgi apparatus.
    	c. phagolysosome.
    	d. lysosome.
A

phagolysosome

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58
Q

Following digestion of a microorganism by phagocytes, the debris is excreted by

    	a. ingestion.
    	b. exocytosis.
    	c. extrusion.
    	d. budding.
A

exocytosis

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59
Q

One of the strongest indications of infectious disease is

    	a. a rash.
    	b. nausea
    	c. headache.
    	d. fever
A

fever

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60
Q

Pyrogens are

    	a. fever-inducing substances.
    	b. fever-inhibiting substances.
    	c. phagocytosis-enhancing substances.
    	d. complement activators.
A

fever-inducing substances

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61
Q

Fever

    	a. enhances bacterial growth.
    	b. inhibits bacterial growth.
    	c. speeds up the body’s reactions.
    	d. triggers complement .
    	e. b and c
A

inhibits bacterial growth

speeds up the body’s reaction

62
Q

Toll-like receptors

a. are cytokines.
b. each recognize a specific “danger” molecule.
c. transmit a message to the cell’s nucleus.
d. are part of adaptive immunity.
e. b and c

A

each recognize a specific “danger” molecule.

transmit a message to the cell’s nucleus.

63
Q

Interleukins are

a. produced by leukocytes.
b. important in both innate and adaptive immunity.
c. involved in directly killing tumor cells.
d. lipid molecules.
e. a and d

A

produced by leukocytes.

lipid molecules.

64
Q

Complement

  a. may be activated through three pathways.
  b. disrupts the cytoplasmic membrane of invading bacteria and foreign cells.
  c. is part of the adaptive defense system.
  d. is a group of blood proteins.
  e. a, b and d
A

may be activated through 3 pathways
disrupt the cytoplasmic membrane of invading bacteria and foreign cells
a group of blood proteins

65
Q

Function of:

polymorphonuclear neutrophils

A

carry oxygen

66
Q

Function of:

eosinophils

A

inflammation and immunity against parasites

67
Q

Function of:

basophils

A

mast cells

release histamine

68
Q

Function of:

lymphocytes

A

participate in adaptive immune response

69
Q

T/F White blood cells called leukocytes are important in immunity.

A

TRUE

70
Q

T/F Mast cells are only found in the blood.

A

FALSE

71
Q

T/F Lymphocytes are the cells primarily responsible for the specific immune responses.

A

TRUE

72
Q

T/F Lymphocytes that mature in the bone marrow are called T cells.

A

FALSE

73
Q

T/F Gram-negative bacteria are less susceptible to complement lysis than Gram-positive
bacteria.

A

FALSE

74
Q

T/F Interferon directly interacts with and destroys viruses.

A

FALSE

75
Q

T/F Neutrophils are the second phagocytic cell to respond to an infection.

A

FALSE

76
Q

T/F Fever often enhances bacterial survival during an infection.

A

FALSE

77
Q

T/F Defensins are short antimicrobial peptides found within mucus membranes and
phagocytes.

A

TRUE

78
Q

List the outcomes of complement fixation (3)

A

Inflammation
Opsonization
Lysis of foreign cells

79
Q

List the 7 steps that occur during the process of phagocytosis

A
  1. Chemoattractants, such as C5a, attract phagocyte to organisms to be ingested.
  2. C3b coats organisms and attaches to C3b receptors on phagocyte.
  3. Organism is engulfed into a phagosome.
  4. Phagosome fuses with lysosome to produce phagolysosome.
  5. Organism is killed within the phagolysosome.
  6. Digestion and breakdown of organism within phagolysosome.
  7. Contents of phagolysosome eliminated by exocytosis.
80
Q

List 3 phagocytic cells

A

Neutrophils, Macrophages, and Monocytes

81
Q

What are the signs of inflammation?

A

Pain (chemical release),
swelling (influx of fluid into damaged region),
redness (vasodilation),
heat (increase of blood flow),
lost of function (increased swelling and pain)

82
Q

Antibody

A

Antibody – immunoglobulin will recognize an antigen in a specific manner and will bind + destroy it

83
Q

Antigen

A

Antigen – foreign molecules that belongs to pathogen and is detected by immune cells

84
Q

Primary Response

A

Primary Response – exposure produces memory cells

85
Q

Memory Cells

A

Memory Cells – B and T cells have memory cells in case of reinfection for a faster and more efficient immune response

86
Q

Cells only involved in innate immunity. (5)

A 
Inflammation – Innate
Basophils – Innate
Mast cells – Innate
Eosinophils – Innate
Complement – Innate
Interferon fever – Innate
87
Q

Cells only involved in adaptive immunity. (5)

A 
Antibodies – Adaptive
Antigens – Adaptive
Memory Response – Adaptive
B cells – Adaptive
T cells – Adaptive
88
Q

Cells involved in both adaptive & innate immunity. (3)

A

Neutrophils – Both
Macrophages – Both
Natural killer (NK) cells – both

89
Q

Write the function of the following specific regions of an antibody.

A

Fab region – antigen binding, variable region

Fc stem region – self molecules, constant region

90
Q

Chemotaxis

A

Chemotaxis – phagocytes are attracted to pathogens by chemotaxis

91
Q

Phagolysosome

A

Phagolysosome – phagosome fuses with lysosome

92
Q

Opsonization

A

Opsonization – allows the receptor on phagocyte to bind to the c3b which facilitates phagocytosis to make pathogen more susceptible to phagocytes

93
Q

Compare humoral immunity and cell-mediated immunity

A

Humoral
•Lead to production of antibodies (Ab) aka Ig (immunoglobulins)
•1 antibody = 1 antigen
•B lymphocytes aka B cells produce antibodies
Cell mediated Immunity
•Activate Tc Cells which destroy infected self cells

94
Q

Which cells are involved in the adaptive immune response.

A

ADAPTIVE
• Humoral immunity – involves the production of antibody molecules in response to an antigen and is mediated by B-lymphocytes
• Cell-mediated immunity – involves the prodcution of cytotoxic T-lymphocytes, activated macrophages, activated NK cells, and cytokines in response to an antigen and is mediated by T-lymphocytes

95
Q

Which cells are involved in the innate immune response

A

INNATE
• phagocytic cells (neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages);
• cells that release inflammatory mediators (basophils, mast cells, and eosinophils);
• natural killer cells (NK cells); and
• molecules such as complement proteins, acute phase proteins, and cytokines.

96
Q

Mucociliary Escalator

A

The cilia are continually beating, pushing mucus up and out into the throat. The mucociliary escalator is a major barrier against infection. Microorganisms hoping to infect the respiratory tract are caught in the sticky mucus and moved up by the mucociliary escalator; cilia release chlorine and water flows through

97
Q

Role of Capsid/Envelope in Virus

A

Protection
Delivery Vehicle during transmission & spreading through host to target cells
Mediate interaction between virus and target cell

98
Q

What happens if the outer package of a virus is inactivated or disrupted?

A

the virus becomes inactivated

99
Q

3 Granuloytes

A

Basophils, Eosinophils, & Neutrophils

100
Q

function of neutrophils

A

first to arrive from blood circulation during immune response
phagocytize cells

101
Q

function of monocytes

A

migrate from outside of the blood to go into tissues, phagocytize and
digest, can be macrophage or dendrites

102
Q

function of macrophages

A

first to arrive via tissue (intracellular), not in blood but in the lymph
nodes, aerobic manner of killing, travel to site of infection, send cytokines to lymphocytes,
present antigens and phagocytize

103
Q

function of lymphnodes

A

very specific (adaptive immune response), identify and destroys pathogen

104
Q

What are the functions of the following specific regions of an antibody; Fab & Fc regions

A

Fab region – antigen binding, variable region

Fc stem region – self molecules, constant region

105
Q

Ig A

A

(dimer in secretions) – prevents attachment of pathogen on tissue or surface of cell, most
predominant, found in mucus and breast milk

106
Q

Ig M

A

(pentamer) – has 10 variable regions that detects more than others and complement
activation

107
Q

Ig G

A

(monomer) -surrounds pathogen, most numerous during infection, cross placenta and go
to the fetus (ONLY one that can do this), does opsonization, ADCC (antibody dependent cellular
cytotoxicity) and compliment activation

108
Q

Ig E

A

(monomer) – sits on basophils and mast cells (inflammation/allergic reactions), blood
circulation

109
Q

Ig D

A

(monomer) – occurs on B cells, involved with development and maturation of antibody
response

110
Q

Glycoproteins that react specifically with the chemical structures in the antigen that induced them are called

    	a. determinants.
    	b. antibodies.
    	c. proteases.
    	d. macroproteins.
A

antibodies

111
Q

Antibodies are made by

    	a. red blood cells.
    	b. macrophages.
    	c. B cells/plasma cells.
    	d. T cells.
A

B cells/plasma cells

112
Q

T cells primarily are responsible for

    	a. humoral immunity.
    	b. cell-mediated immunity.
    	c. anamnestic immunity.
    	d. producing haptens
A

cell mediated immunity

113
Q

Macrophages and dendritic cells are

    	a. T cells.
    	b. B cells.
    	c. antigen-presenting cells.
    	d. antibody-producing cells.
A

antigen presenting cells

114
Q

Epitopes or antigenic determinants

    a. are parts of the antibody molecule.
    b. are T cell receptors.
    c. are a portion of antigen recognized by antibody.
   d. may be approximately 10-25 amino acids in length.
   e. c and d
A

area a portion of antigen recognized by antibody

may be approximately 10-25 aa in length

115
Q

The humoral immune response involves the manufacture and use of

    	a. antibodies.
    	b. T cells.
    	c. lymphokines.
    	d. antigens.
A

antibodies

116
Q 
Specific chemical groups on an antigen molecule to which the immune response is directed
are
        	a. antigenic determinants.
        	b. an autoimmune response.
        	c. monomers.
        	d. allergens.
A

antigenic detereminants

117
Q

A term synonymous with antibody is

    	a. antigen.
    	b. epitope.
    	c. determinant.
    	d. immunoglobulin.
A

immunoglobulin

118
Q

Secondary lymphoid organs

    	a. are strategically located in the body.
    	b. facilitate interactions between cells.
    	c. are hematopoietic.
    	d. are the site of T cell maturation.
            e. a, b
A

are strategically located in the body

facilitate interactions between cells

119
Q

Which of the following do not induce a strong immune response?

    	a. lipids
    	b. proteins
    	c. polysaccharides
    	d. nucleic acids
    	e. a and d
A

lipids and nucleic acids

120
Q

The chains of an antibody molecule are bonded to one another by

    	a. disulfide bonds.
    	b. hydrogen bonds.
    	c. ionic bonds.
    	d. oxygen bonds.
A

disulfide bonds

121
Q

Which of the following antibodies is a pentamer?

    	a. IgA
    	b. IgD
    	c. IgM
    	d. IgE
A

IgM

122
Q

Which of the following antibodies is a dimer?

    	a. IgA
    	b. IgD
    	c. IgM
    	d. Ig
A

IgA

123
Q

The immunoglobulin monomer consists of

    	a. 4 large chains.
    	b. 2 heavy and 2 light chains.
    	c. 5 light chains.
    	d. 3 heavy and 3 light chains
A

2 heavy and 2 light chains

124
Q

Which class of antibody accounts for the bulk of the circulating antibody?

    	a. IgA
    	b. IgD
    	c. IgG
    	d. IgE
A

IgG

125
Q

An IgG molecule has two

    	a. heavy chains.
    	b. light chains.
    	c. antibody binding sites.
    	d. antigen binding sites.
    	e. a, b and d
A

heavy chains
light chains
antigen binding sites

126
Q

Antigens interact with antibodies at

    	a. the outer end of each arm of the Y.
    	b. the junction of heavy and light chains.
    	c. different regions depending on the class of antibody.
    	d. the bottom stem of the heavy chain of the Y.
A

the outer end of each arm of the Y

127
Q

The only class of antibody that can cross the placenta is

    	a. IgA.
    	b. IgD.
    	c. IgG.
    	d. IgE.
A

IgG

128
Q

Which is the first antibody class made during the primary response to an antigen?

    	a. IgA
    	b. IgM
    	c. IgG
    	d. IgE
A

IgM

129
Q

Which of the following is the most abundant immunological class produced?

    	a. IgA
    	b. IgD
    	c. IgG
    	d. IgE
A

IgA

130
Q

Which of the following class of antibody is primarily found in external secretions?

    	a. IgA
    	b. IgD
    	c. IgG
    	d. IgE
A

IgA

131
Q

The immunoglobulin that is important in hypersensitivity reactions is

    	a. IgA.
    	b. IgD.
    	c. IgG.
    	d. IgE.
A

IgE

132
Q

The cells that actually secrete antibodies are

    	a. plasma cells.
    	b. natural killer cells.
    	c. phagocytes.
    	d. T cells.
A

plasma cells

133
Q

CD4 cells are often

    	a. T helper cells.
    	b. T suppresser cells.
    	c. T cytotoxic cells.
    	d. T hypersensitivity cells.
A

T helper cells

134
Q

CD8 cells are often

    	a. T helper cells.
    	b. T suppresser cells.
    	c. T cytotoxic cells.
    	d. T hypersensitivity cells.
A

T cytotoxic cells

135
Q

Antigens may be processed for presentation by

    	a. macrophages.
    	b. dendritic cells.
    	c. erythrocytes.
    	d. T cytotoxic cells.
    	e. a and b
A

macrophages

dendritic cells

136
Q

Class II MHC molecules are found primarily on

    	a. macrophages.
    	b. dendritic cells.
    	c. erythrocytes.
    	d. T cytotoxic cells.
    	e. a and b
A

macrophages

dendritic cells

137
Q

The stimulation of B cells to divide and mature is provided by

    	a. T helper cells.
    	b. macrophages.
    	c. T cytotoxic cells.
    	d. plasma cells.
A

T helper cells

138
Q

Which is involved in reacting to virus- infected cells?

    	a. cell-mediated immunity
    	b. T cytotoxic cells
    	c. B cells
    	d. MHC I
    	e. a, b and d
A

cell mediated immunity
T-cytotoxic cells
MHC Class I

139
Q

CD4 bind

A

MHC II

140
Q

CD8 bind

A

MHC I

141
Q

Perforin is produced by

    	a. B cells.
    	b. macrophages.
    	c. NK cells.
    	d. T helper cells.
    	e. b and c
A

NK cells

142
Q

Apoptosis

a. is a form of cell suicide.
b. is induced in target cells by effector T cytotoxic cells.
c. results in T cell death.
d. refers to the transformation of B cells into plasma cells.
e. a and b

A

a form of cell suicide

is induced in target cells by effector T cytotoxic cells

143
Q

agglutinates antigens

A

IgM or IgG

144
Q

found on surface of B cells

A

IgD

145
Q

first antibody produced during primary response

A

IgM

146
Q

protects mucous membranes

A

IgA

147
Q

involved in hypersensitivity

A

IgE

148
Q

T/F T cells are responsible for directly manufacturing antibodies.

A

FALSE

149
Q

T/F T cell receptors are identical to antibodies.

A

FALSE

150
Q

T/F Antibody and antigen are held to one another by covalent bonds.

A

FALSE

151
Q

T/F Gene rearrangement is responsible for the generation of the various antibody molecules.

A

TRUE

Medical Microbiology (4 decks)

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