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PAS 506 > Exam 3 (Neuro and EENT) > Flashcards

Exam 3 (Neuro and EENT) Flashcards

1
Q

Efferent

A

Motor.
Send signals from CNS to effector organs

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2
Q

Afferent

A

Sensory.
Sends signals to CNS

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3
Q

Visceral stimuli

A

Internal organs and mucosal surfaces

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4
Q

Sensory stimuli

A

External sources.
Like touching a hot stove

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5
Q

Somatic nervous system

A

Conscious, voluntary, controlled function.
Direct connection from CNS to skeletal muscle (no ganglia).
Myelinated

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6
Q

Autonomic nervous system

A

Automatic.
Unconscious, involuntary, regulatory functions.
Broken up into sympathetic and parasympathetic
Cholinergic and adrenergic neurons innervate various target organs.

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7
Q

Preganglionc neurons

A

Cell body originates in CNS from brainstem or spinal cord.
Form synaptic connection in ganglia.
Myelinated

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8
Q

Postganglionic neurons

A

Cell body begins in ganglia.
Ends on effector organ.
Nonmyelinated.

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9
Q

Ganglia

A

Synaptic relay station between neurons.

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10
Q

Sympathetic nervous system

A

Fight or flight.
Release energy.

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11
Q

Sympathetic nervous system neuron lengths

A

Short preganglionic and long postganglionic.

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12
Q

Is sympathetic or parasympathetic considered a complete system

A

Sympathetic

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13
Q

Sympathetic nervous system effects

A

Pupil dilation through contraction of iris radial.
Bronchiole dilation.
Secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Relaxation of detrusor, contraction of trigone and sphincter in bladder.
Blood vessels of skeletal muscle dilate.
Increased HR.
Thick secretion from salivary glands.
Decreased GI motility

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14
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system

A

Rest and digest.
Conserves energy.

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15
Q

Parasympathetic neuron lengths

A

Long preganglionic and short post ganglionic.

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16
Q

Where do parasympathetic neurons originate

A

Cranial nerves III, VII, IX, X, and sacral region of spinal chord.

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17
Q

Where do sympathetic neurons originate

A

Thoracic and lumbar regions (T1-L2)

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18
Q

Parasympathetic effects

A

Pupil contracts from contraction of iris sphincter.
Bronchioles constrict.
Detrusor contracts, trigone and sphincter relax of bladder.
Increased GI motility.
Decreased HR.
Watery secretion from salivary glands.
Production of tears

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19
Q

Glutamate

A

Most common excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain.

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20
Q

GABA

A

Major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain.
Uses Cl ligand gated channels to devrease cAMP and increase K channels

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21
Q

Glutamate and GABA relationship

A

Most and least excitatory neurotransmitters.
Balance each other

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22
Q

Epinephrine and norepinephrine receptors

A

alpha and beta adrenergic receptors

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23
Q

Dopamine receptors

A

D receptors

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24
Q

Serotonin receptor

A

5-HT receptors

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25
Q

GABA receptor

A

NMDA, AMPA

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26
Q

Acetylecholine receptors

A

Nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic receptors

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27
Q

Glutamate receptor

A

NMDA, AMPA,mGLuR

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28
Q

Endorphin receptors

A

Opioid receptors

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29
Q

What are good drug targets

A

enzymes

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30
Q

Cholinergic nerve fibers in preganglionic autonomic neurons

A

Release ACh taht binds to nicotinic receptors

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31
Q

Cholinergic nerve fibers in somatic motor neurons

A

Release ACh whcih binds to nicotinic receptors on skeletal muscle cell.

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32
Q

Cholinergic fibers in parasympathetic postgalnglionic neurons

A

Release ACh that binds to muscarinic R

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33
Q

Adrenergic Nerve fibers

A

Release NE from sympathetic postganglionic neurons to adrenergic receptors on effector organ cells.

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34
Q

What releases epinephrine (a catecholamine) into blood

A

Adrenal medulla

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35
Q

Types of cholinergic receptors

A

Nicotinic and muscarinic

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36
Q

Nicotinic receptor

A

Ligand gated.
Ion channel
Faster than muscarinic
Ionotropic

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37
Q

Muscarinic receptors

A

G protein-coupled receptor.
Uses second messsenger system.
Slower than cholinergic
Matabotropic

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38
Q

Adrenergic receptor

A

On effector organs of sympathetic system.
G-protein coupled receptors
Uses secondary messenger system
Metabotropic.

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39
Q

Botulinum toxin

A

Block release of ACh.

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40
Q

Actions of acetylcholine

A

SLUDGE
Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Deification/diaphoresis
GI
Emesis

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41
Q

Acetylcholineesterase (AChE)

A

Breaks down ACh

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42
Q

What does nicotinic receptors bind to

A

Nicotine, ACh.
Weakly to muscarine

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43
Q

Three functionally characterized muscarinic receptors

A

M1 - on gastric parietal cells
M2 - cardiac cells and smooth muscle
M3 - on bladder , exocrine glands, and smppthe muscles

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44
Q

What does muscarinic receptors bind to

A

muscarine and ACh
Weak affinity for nicotine

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45
Q

Direct acting cholinergic agonists

A

ACh itself.
Little specificity
Quickly broken down
Not much clinical use

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46
Q

Indiract acting cholinergic agonists

A

AChE inhibitors.
Prevent ACh breakdown thus increasing ACh concentration

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47
Q

Antimuscarinics

A

Cholinergic antagonist that is selective for muscarinic receptors. (ex. Atropine)

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48
Q

Ganglionic blockers

A

Cholinergic antagonist that prefers nicotinic receptors, limited clinical use

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49
Q

Neuromuscular blocking agents

A

Cholinergic antagonist, mostly nicotinic antagonists that interrupt efferent impulses to skeletal muscles.
Used in surgery

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50
Q

Synthesis of epinephrine

A

Tyrosine –> DOPA –> Dopamine –> Norepinephrine –> Epinephrine

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51
Q

What is the rate limiting step of the creation of epinephrine

A

Hydoxylation of tyrosine by tyrosine hydroxylase

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52
Q

Reserpine

A

Stops the carrier system that transports dopamine into the synaptic vesicles to be treansformed into NE

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53
Q

COMT, MAO-

A

matabolize NE

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54
Q

Soma

A

Neuron cell body

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55
Q

Neurite

A

Process extending from cell body of neuron

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56
Q

Dendrite

A

Receives impulses from other neurons

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56
Q

Axon

A

carries action potentials away from soma

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57
Q

how many cranial nerves`

A

12 pairs

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58
Q

How many spinal nerves

A

31 pairs
8 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral
1 coccygeal

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59
Q

Cerebrum job

A

Generate motor function.
Process info.
Higher order thinking

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60
Q

Cerebellum job

A

equilibrium
coordination
muscle tone
achieve motor learning tasks.

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61
Q

Brainstem jobs

A

Flow of info between cerebrum and spinal chord.
Breathing,
Consciousness.
BP.
HR.
Sleep.

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62
Q

Cortex of brain

A

gray matter surface of brain

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63
Q

Gyri

A

Folds of brain

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64
Q

Sulci

A

Fissures of brain

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65
Q

Interneurons

A

In the gray matter of the spinal chord.
Translate between afferent and efferent nerves

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66
Q

White matter

A

Axons

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67
Q

Gray matter

A

cell bodies

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68
Q

What column of spinal chord is only sensory

A

Dorsal column

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69
Q

What column of spinal chord is both sensory and motor

A

Ventral and lateral

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70
Q

Three extracellular fluid compartments of CNS

A

Inside vascular system (blood plasma).
Between neural and glial cells (interstitial fluid).
In ventricular system and subarachnoid space (CSF)

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71
Q

Why is regulation of brain fluids important

A

Increased pressure leads to decreased perfusion.
Increased pressure can cause herniation.
Ionic environments effects neuronal firing.

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72
Q

Where does CSF come from

A

Derived from blood plasma.
Continuously secreted by choroid plexus.
Exits fourth ventricle into subarachnoid space and drains into venous system through arachnod granulations.

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73
Q

Functions of CSF

A

Protection
Homeostasis
Waste removal

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74
Q

Choroid Plexus

A

Network of blood vessels in each ventricle.
Made of pia mater CT and epithelial cells.
Filters blood plasma to make CSF.
Tight junctions to maintain blood-CSF barrier.
Similar to plasma but less protein

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75
Q

Where on the spine is a lumbar puncture done

A

Between L3 and L4

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76
Q

Blood brain barrier (BBB)

A

Highly selective semipermeable border of endothelial cells.
Small lipophilic substances can go through.
Glucose enters through facilitated diffusion with GLUT-1 protein

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77
Q

Things that can disrupt BBB

A

Hypertension
Hyperosmolality
Microwaves
Radiation
Infection
Trauma

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78
Q

Unipolar neuron

A

one neurite

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79
Q

Bipolar neuron

A

Two neurites

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80
Q

Multipolar neurons

A

Three or more neurites

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81
Q

Golgi Type I

A

Longer axon.
Connect different parts of system.
In pyramidal cells of cerebral cortex, motor cells of spinal chord

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82
Q

Golgi type II

A

Shorter axon.
In local v

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83
Q

Glial cells

A

Support cells that provide nutrients and energy to neurons.
10x more glial cells than neurons in brain.
Ependymal cells, astrocytes, microglia, and myelinating glia (oligodendrocytes and schwann cells)

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84
Q

Ependymal cells

A

Ciliated epithelial glial cells.
Line ventricles/central canal.
Produce CSF

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85
Q

Astrocytes

A

Glial cell that maintains BBB.
Provides structural scaffold for neurons.
Stores glycogen and provides neurons with lactate for energy.
Maintains stable K in brain.
Removes neurotransmitters from extracellular fluid.

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86
Q

Microglia

A

Glial cell that functions like macrophage in immune respnse of the brain

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87
Q

Oligodendrocyte

A

Glial cell that produces myelin sheaths in the CNS.
Myelinate multiple neurons

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88
Q

Schwann cell

A

Glial cell that produces myelin sheaths in the PNS.
Only myelinate one axon

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89
Q

necrosis

A

Cell lysis and inflammation usually a rapid process.
Seen in acute trauma or stroke

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90
Q

Apoptosis

A

Programmed cell death that does not cause inflammation

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91
Q

Gliosis

A

Proliferation of astrocytes secondary to CNS injury (scarring).
Long term effect of stroke, MS, Alzheimer’s

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92
Q

Gliosis

A

Scar tissue in brain

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93
Q

Generation of action potential steps

A
  1. Threshold met.
  2. Na channels open and Na goes into cell (depolarization).
  3. K channels open and K goes out of cell (repolarization).
  4. Voltage drops below resting potential (Hyperpolarization)
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94
Q

Glycine

A

Most common inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord.
Binds to Cl- ligand gated channels

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95
Q

Serotonin

A

Important in limbic function

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96
Q

Chatecholamines

A

Function as neurotransmitters and hormones.
Dopamine
Epinephrine
Norepinephrine

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97
Q

What releases norepinephrine

A

postganglionic neurons of sympathetic nervous system

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98
Q

Mu opiod receptor

A

Bind to beta endorphins causing inhibition of substance P protein (pain protein). Also inhibiting the release of GABA which results in excess dopamine

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99
Q

What are the attributes of stimulus

A

MILD
Modality (taste, smell touch, vision, hearing)
Intensity
Location
Duration

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100
Q

Merkel’s disk

A

Sense steady pressure.
Slowly adapting

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101
Q

Messiner’s corpuscle

A

Sense light pressure.
Rapidly adapting

102
Q

Ruggini endings

A

Sense stretching skin.
Slowly adapting

103
Q

Pacinian corpuscle

A

Sense vibrations.
Very rapidly adapting

104
Q

Spinotharamic tract

A

Sensory.
3 neuron chain.
Decussation at spinal cord.
Temp, pain, and localizing touch.

105
Q

Where is the primary somatosensory cortex

A

Postcentral gyrus

106
Q

Secondary somatosensory cortex

A

Posterior parietal cortex.
Integrates touch with other sensations (recognizing objects).

107
Q

Where is pain felt during myocardial infarction

A

All over left side above abdomen.

108
Q

Where is pain from hepatitis felt

A

Right shoulder

109
Q

Where is pain from ruptured spleen flet

A

Left shoulder

110
Q

Where is. pain from stomach ulcer or cancer felt

A

Midback between scapula or epigastrium

111
Q

Where is pain from lower lobe pneumonia felt

A

Upper quadrant of abdomen on same side as pneumonia

112
Q

Where is pain from appendicitis from

A

Periumbilical area

113
Q

Where is pain from kidney stone felt

A

Flank radiating to groin

114
Q

Pain gating

A

Interneuron in spinal cordreleases enkephalins (opioids) to inhibit pain pathways between first and second order neurons so you can run away when hurt.

115
Q

Upper motor neurons

A

Regulate voluntary movements.
Mostly inhibitory making your body not over do movements or overreact
Cell bodies in brain or brainstem.
Lesions cause spastic paralysis, hyperreflexia, positive babinski, increased tone, stroke

116
Q

Spinal neurons

A

May be excitatory or inhibitory.
Form extensive circuits.

117
Q

Type Ia sensory fibers

A

Muscle spindles
Very fast conduction.
Conveys info about muscle STRETCH and SPEED.

118
Q

Gama motor neurons

A

Innervate intrafusal muscle fibers.
Cell bodies in ventral grey matter of spinal chord.
Regulate muscle spindle sensitivity.

119
Q

Type Ib sensory fibers

A

In the tendons.
Provide info about muscle FORCE

120
Q

Myotatic Reflex

A

Tapping on tendon makes muscle stretch (like patellar reflex)

121
Q

Flexor-Withdrawal reflex

A

Rapidly removes limb from pain and sticks out opposite limb for support.

122
Q

Corticospinal tract (pyramidal)

A

Lateral descending motor pathway.
Originate in motor cortex and crosses at medullary pyramids.
Lesions above medullary pyramids result in contralteral weakness.
Lesions below medullary pyramids result in ipsilateral weakness.

123
Q

Rubrospinal tract

A

Lateral descending motor pathway.
Originates in red nucleus of midbrain and crosses immediately.
Controls muscle tone in flexor groups.
Decorticate posturing indicates damage immediately rostral to red nucleus.
Decerebrate posturing indicates midbrain lesion that involves red nucleus

124
Q

Decerebrate posture

A

Lesion includes red nucleus.
Extensors predominate.

125
Q

Decorticate posture

A

Lesion rostral to red nucleus.
Flexors predominate

126
Q

Ventromedial pathways

A

provide info from vestibular and visual system about body position and balance.
Neurons DO NOT cross.

127
Q

Vestibulospinal

A

Ventromedial pathway that does posture and equilibrium.

128
Q

Tectospinal

A

Ventromedial pathway that makes head and eyes move in direction of stimulus.

129
Q

Reticulospinal

A

Venntromedial pathway that does posture

130
Q

Lower motor neurons

A

Cell bodies in anterior horn of spinal chord.
Lesion causes Flaccid paralysis, areflexia, decreased tone, atrophy, fasiculatoins, polio

131
Q

Basal Ganglia job

A

inhibit unwanted movement

132
Q

Direct pathway of motor loop

A

Inhibitory via GABAergic neurons

133
Q

Indirect pathway of motor loop

A

Excitatory.

134
Q

Cerebellum fuctions

A

Coordinate

135
Q

Hypothalamus job

A

Control homeostatic functions.
Eating.
Circadian rhythms.
Sex drive.
Temp regulation,

136
Q

Reticular formation job

A

Level of consciousness and general arousal (how awake they are).
releases neurotransmitters that regulate wakefulness (serotonergic), arousal (noradrenergic), attention and memory (cholinergic), and voluntary movement and rewards (dopaminergic)

137
Q

Limbic system job

A

Emotions

138
Q

What temp is considered a fever

A

100.4ºF

139
Q

Peripheral thermoreceptors

A

In the skin.
Info about body surface temp.

140
Q

Central thermoreceptors

A

In the hypothalamus.
Info about core temp.

141
Q

What causes fever

A

Cytokines released by immune cells bc of infection.
Capilary endothelial cells in BBB release prostaglandin E2 that stimulates hypothalamus to raise set-point temp

142
Q

Non REM sleep

A

HR and RR reduces.
Muscles relax
Three stages.
Stage three is most restful

143
Q

REM

A

Dreaming.
Awake brain in paralyzed body

144
Q

Contigulate cortex

A

Part of limbic system.
Highest levels of cognition.
Sensations of emotions are perceived.

145
Q

Hippocampus

A

Part of limbic system.
Conversion of short-term to long-term memory.
Does negative feedback on fear response in response to increased cortisol levels.

146
Q

Amygdala

A

Part of limbic system.
Strong emotions like fear and agression.
Links emotions to memories

147
Q

Cognitive fear

A

Learned response that creates sensation of fear.

148
Q

Reactive fear

A

Response to direct threat

149
Q

Declarative memory

A

Facts and events that can be consciously recalled

150
Q

Nondeclarative memory

A

Not consciously recalled.
Like muscle memory.
Learned emotion.
Conditioned reflexes (Pavlov’s dogs)

151
Q

Broca’s Area

A

In frontal lobe.
Production and movement of tongue and mouth needed to speak.
Can’t find the words.

152
Q

Wernicke’s area

A

In temporal lobe.
Understanding and meaning.
Processing.
Speaking nonsense.

153
Q

Palpebral conjunctiva

A

Covers the inner side of the eyelid.

154
Q

Orbicularis oculi muscle

A

Closes the eye.
Innervated by CN VII

155
Q

Levator palpebrae superioris muscle

A

Elevates upper eyelid.
Innervated by CN III.

156
Q

Superior Tarsal Muscle

A

Elevates the eyelid.
Innervated by sympathetic nerves

157
Q

Sclera

A

“White of the eye”
Protective ehite fibrous opaque covering the eye.
Continuous with dura mater

158
Q

Only transparent regions of eye

A

Lens and cornea

159
Q

Cornea

A

Curved transparent region where light enters front of eye.
Bends to refract light onto retina
Sensory inervation from CN V

160
Q

Lacrimal gland

A

Releases Aqueous part of tears

161
Q

Conjunctiva

A

Releases Mucous part of tears

162
Q

Meimbomian gland

A

Releases Oil part of tears

163
Q

Nasolacrimal duct

A

Where tears drain into.
Why crying gives you a runny nose.

164
Q

Vascular choroid

A

Highly vascular CT between sclera and retina.
WHere everything gets its nutrients

165
Q

Iris

A

Colored part of eye.
Controls pupil size

166
Q

Pupil

A

Hole in center of eye.
Diamerter controled by muscles of iris

167
Q

Mydriasis

A

Pupil dilation to allow light into eye either bc its dark or focusing on something far away.
mediated by alpha1 andrenergic receptor stimulation

168
Q

Miosis

A

Pupil constricts in bright light or to focus on something near.
Mediated by M3 cholinergenic receptor stimulation

169
Q

Ciliary Body

A

Contains ciliary muscle and ciliary epithelium

170
Q

Ciliary muscles

A

Contract to lower tension in suspensory ligaments to cause lens to become more round.

171
Q

Ciliary epithelium

A

Secretes aqueous humor

172
Q

Uvea

A

Iris
Ciliary Body
Choroid

173
Q

Lens

A

Transparent behind the cornes.
Ciliary muscles and suspensory ligaments effect curvature to focus eyesight.

174
Q

Optic apparatus of the eye

A

Lens + Cornea

175
Q

Anterior chamber

A

Space between the cornea and lens including the iris and ciliary body filled with aqueous humor

176
Q

Aqueous humor

A

Fluid continuously being secreted and reabsorbed in the anterior chamber of the eye.
Constantly secreted from ciliary epithelial cells into the posterior compartment of anterior chamber. Flows into the anterior compartment through the pupil.
Drains into venous system via Canal of Schlemm

177
Q

Posterior chamber

A

Space behind lens that extends to the posterior side of the interior eyeball where retina is located.
Filled with vitreous humor.

178
Q

Vitreous humor

A

Fluid that Fills the posterior chamber

179
Q

Posterior compartment

A

Part of the anterior chamber.
Between iris and lens

180
Q

Anterior compartment

A

Part of anterior chamber.
Between cornea and iris.

181
Q

Intraocular pressure

A

Around 15mm Hg.
balance between secretion and absorption of aqueous humor

182
Q

Retina fovea (Fovea centralis)

A

Center of retina where light is focused.
High concentration of photoreceptors.
Highest level of visual acuity

183
Q

Macula

A

Area surrounding fovea.
Responsible for central vision

184
Q

Optic Disc

A

Blind spot (no photo receptors)
Consists of fibers from optic nerve (CN II)

185
Q

What’s weird about photoreceptors when it comes to polarization

A

They are excited by hyperpolarization instead of depolarization.
Depolarize in absence of stimuli (light) activating cGMP cation channels for Na to enter

186
Q

Scotopic

A

Low light

187
Q

Photopic

A

Well-lit

188
Q

Rods

A

Highly sensitive to light.
In periphery of retina.
Let us see in darker conditions.
Contain rhodopsin in outer segment.
Low acuity

189
Q

Cones

A

In center of retina-Retina Fovea
Outer segment has photopsin
functions best in lots of light.
High-acuity

190
Q

Three types of cone

A

Blue (S-short wavelength)
Green (M-medium wavelength)
Red (L-long wavelength)

191
Q

Optic Chasm

A

Where the optic nerves meet

192
Q

Suspensory ligaments

A

Keep lens flat and under tension.

193
Q

3 Cs of the eye mediated by parasympathetic.

A

Convergence of eyes.
Constriction of pupils
Contraction of ciliary muscles

194
Q

Myopia

A

Nearsightedness.
Light from distant object focused in front of retina.
Eyeball too long
Need concave (diverging) lense to fix

195
Q

Hyperopia

A

Farsightedness.
Short eyeball.
Need convex (converging) lens to fix.

196
Q

Presbyopia

A

Lowering in elasticity and accommodation of lens with age.
need bifocals

197
Q

Astigmatism

A

Incorrect curvature of lens.
Two different focal distances.
Blurry vision.
Need glasses with cylindrical lenses.

198
Q

papilla

A

bumps on tongue with lots of taste buds.

199
Q

Taste receptor cells

A

Have microvilla and taste pores

200
Q

Is taste transduction depolarization or repolarization

A

Depolarization that leads to Ca entry into cell,

201
Q

Salty taste

A

Senses Na concentration adn depolarization of TRC

202
Q

Sourness

A

Responds to acidic H+ concentrations.
Reduced K conductance depolarize TRC

203
Q

Bitterness

A

Direct binding to K channels and changes in second messenger pathways

204
Q

Sweetness

A

Glucose dissolved in saliva

205
Q

Umami

A

Tasted in response to amino acid (mostly glutamate

206
Q

What Cranial Nerve does anterior 2/3rd of tongue taste

A

VII - facial

207
Q

What cranial nerve does posterior 1/3rd taste

A

IX - glossopharangeal

208
Q

Primary sensory neurons of gustatory

A

Synapse of gustatory nucleus of medulla

209
Q

Second order neurons of gustatory

A

Ascend to thalamus

210
Q

Third order neurons of gustatory

A

Relayed to primary gustatory cortex

211
Q

Olfactory receptor cells

A

Bipolar
Peripheral neurite goes to nasal membrane and olfactory epithelium.
Central axon joins olfactory nerve.
Enter brain through hole in cribiform plate of olfactory foramina

212
Q

Olfactory cilia

A

On peripheral neurite.
Project into mucus which contains odorant binding proteins over nasal membrane.
Come in contact with odorant trapped in mucus

213
Q

G protein Golf

A

stimulated by olfactory receptor proteins.
Stimulates adenylyl cyclase increasing creation of cAMP.
cAMP opens channels causing depolarization..
Voltage gated Ca channels open increasing depolarization.

214
Q

Limbic System

A

Where smell becomes part of long term memory

215
Q

Vestibular aparatus

A

3 Semicircular canals + otolith organs

216
Q

Otolith organs

A

utricle and saccule has two endolymph filled chambers with labyrinth detect tilting of head and linear acceleration

217
Q

Macula

A

Where vestibular hair cells are found.

218
Q

Stereocilia

A

Vestibular hair cells finger like projections.
Movement of head bends them displacing the otoliths causing hair cells to be depolarized.
Same for audio receptor hairs

219
Q

Otoliths

A

Calcium carbonate crystals on top of otolithic channels.
Displaced by movement of head causing hair cells to depolarize

220
Q

What two signals are transduced by the otolith organs

A

Static angle (tilting) of head
Linear acceleration

221
Q

Three semicircular canals

A

Superior/Anterior - yes
Horizontal - no
Posterior- idk

222
Q

Cupula

A

Gelatinous mass that the sterio cilia project into.

223
Q

Scarpa’s Ganglion

A

Where primary afferent vestibular neurons are located in the swelling on vestibular nerve

224
Q

What cranial nerve travels in vestibular part of vestibular nucleus of brainstem

A

CN VIII

225
Q

Second order vestibular neurons

A

Relay to cerebellum to coordinate movements using info about body position

226
Q

Vestibuloocular reflex

A

Makes eyes turn opposite rotation of head keeping object in view.
Relies on CN III, IV, VI

227
Q

Vertigo

A

dizziness

228
Q

Ossicles

A

Malleus (hammer)
Incus (anvil)
Stapes (stirrups)

229
Q

Eustachian tube jobs

A

Links middle ear to nasopharynx.
Equalizes air pressure between middle ear and nasopharynx
Protect middle ear from reflux
Clear middle ear secretion

230
Q

Attenuation reflex

A

Tensor tympani and muscles contract and stiffen ossicles to lower transmission of vibrations to inner ear during lots of loud noise to protect hair cells from damage from excess vibration.

231
Q

cochlea

A

Auditory part of labyrinth.
Three coiled fluid filled tubes (scala vestibuli, scala media, scala tympani)

232
Q

Scala vestibuli

A

Top tube of cochlea.
Filled with perilymph
Low K high NA
continuous with scala tympani via helicotrema

233
Q

Scala media

A

Cochlear duct (middle tube)
Filled with endolymph.
Has neuro-epithelium called organ of corti
High K low NA
Stria vascularis secretes endolymph

234
Q

Scala tympani

A

Bottom tube of cochlea.
Filled with perilymph
Low K High NA.
Continuous with scala vestibuli via helicotrema

235
Q

Helicotrema

A

Apex of cochlea where ttympani and vestibuli

236
Q

Endocochlear potential difference

A

Caused by difference of K in perilymph and endolymph

237
Q

Reissner’s (vestibular) membrane

A

separates scala vestibuli from scala media

238
Q

Basilar membrane

A

Separates scala tympani from scala media

239
Q

Organ of corti

A

Locatoin for audiotry transduction above basilar membrane

240
Q

Auditory receptors (sensory hair cells)

A

Rest on basilar membrane that moves causing the hairs to bend

241
Q

Tectorial membrane

A

Gelatinous membrane where tips of stereocilia of auditory receptor hairs are embedded

242
Q

What direction does the stereocilia bend to be depolarized causing opening of Ca channels

A

Toward kinocilium

243
Q

Inner hair cells

A

Responsible for auditory transduction
Neurites from inner hair cells connect to spiral ganglion

244
Q

Outer hair cells

A

Amplify traveling wave that passes along basilar membrane.
If damaged can lead to deafness.
Aminoglycoside antibiotics can damage them

245
Q

Transmission of soudnd waves

A

TM vibrations –> ossicles –>liquid vibrations in cohclea –> transformed into nerve impulses in auditory cortex of CNS

246
Q

Where do high freq sounds make basilar membrane move

A

Base of cochlea

247
Q

Where do low freq sounds make basilar membrane move

A

apex (hericotrema)

248
Q

Amplitude

A

How high wave is
Loudness
dB

249
Q

Loudest human can hear

A

130 dB

250
Q

Frequence

A

Pitch
Waves per unit time

251
Q

Weber test

A

Stick tuning fork on head

252
Q

Rinne test

A

put tuning fork on mastoid process then put in front of ear

253
Q

Dorsal Column-Medial Lemniscus

A

Ascending tract
Three neuron chain
Crosses at medulla
Info about discriminative touch, vibration, proprioception, and pressure

PAS 506 (7 decks)

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