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PAS 506 > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Nucleolus function

A

ribosome synthesis

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2
Q

G1 phase

A

first growth phase

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3
Q

s phase

A

DNA duplicated

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4
Q

G0 phase

A

cell resting period

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5
Q

CDK2-Cyclin E

A

G1/S checkpoint.
checks nutrients, growth factors, DNA damage and response to decide to divide

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6
Q

CDK1-Cyclin B

A

G2/M checkpoint.
checks cell size and DNA replication to commit to mitosis

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7
Q

Cyclin B 3

A

Late metaphase (spindle) checkpoint

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8
Q

Unregulated cell division

A

cancer

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9
Q

Mitotic inhibitors

A

Freeze cells in mitosis by inhibiting microtubule dynamics

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10
Q

Antimetabolites

A

Prevent cells from replicating DNA by inhibiting synthesis of thymidine

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11
Q

DNA damaging agents

A

damage DNA to overwhelm cancer cell because cancer cell might not have G2/M checkpoint that monitors for damage

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12
Q

Three types of chemotherapeutics

A
  1. mitotic inhibitors
  2. antimetabolites
  3. DNA damaging agents
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13
Q

Ion-channel linked receptor

A

Neurotransmitter binds to receptor and changes protein structure during signal transduction in a neuron

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14
Q

Enzyme linked receptors

A

cell surface receptors with intracellular domains

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15
Q

Juxtracrine

A

Signal producing cell makes direct contact with target cell

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16
Q

Endocrine

A

Signal-producing cells (endocrine cells) release signaling molecules (hormones) that act on distant target cells

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17
Q

Paracrine

A

Signal producing cells release signaling molecules that act on proximal cells (throwing skittles)

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17
Q

autocrine

A

signal producing cell is also the target cell

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18
Q

Myasthenia Gravis

A

Ion channel disfunction.
Autoimmune disease which the body makes antibodies against nicotinic acetylcholine receptor.
Prevents signaling at neuromuscular junctions resulting in muscle weakness

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18
Q

What method do half of all known medications use

A

GPCR

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18
Q

What is the basement membrane made of

A

basal lamina (made of lamina densa and lamina lucida with collagen fiber makeup), reticular lamina (reticular fiber makeup)

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19
Q

What type of diffusion happens in gas exchange

A

simple (passive)

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20
Q

Does facilitated diffusion require ATP

A

no

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21
Q

Carrier proteins

A

Bind molecules to be transported then change shape to release in facilitated diffusion

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22
Q

Forms of channel proteins

A

ligand gated, voltage gated, or always open

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23
Q

Why does sodium potassium pump pump out NA and in K

A

To maintain osmotic balance and cell volume

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24
Q

What causes cell differentiation

A

All cells have same DNA, It’s based on what parts of the DNA is read in each cell causing different genes to be expressed via proteins

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25
Q

Totipotent cells

A

Stem cell that gives rise to ANY cell type

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26
Q

Pluripotent cells

A

Stem cell that can five rise to all cells (endoderm, mesoderm, or ectoderm lineages) except the placental cells.

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27
Q

Multipotent

A

Stem cell that can only develop into a limited number of cells in that lineage

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28
Q

Hypertrophy

A

cells increase size, not number.
Pathologic enlargement of heart from hypertension.
Physiologic hormone induced in uterus during pregnancy

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29
Q

Hyperplasia

A

Cells increase in number.
Physiologic from hormones or increase in tissue masss after partial resection,
Pathologic from excess amount of growth factors or viral incfections

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30
Q

Atrophy

A

Reduced size of organ or tissue from decrease of cell size and number

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31
Q

Causes of atrophy

A

-Loss of endocrine stimulation (happens in menopause)
-Decreased workload of muscle
-Diminished blood supply
-Tumor exerting pressure

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32
Q

Extrinsic Apoptosis pathway

A

uses TNF receptor

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33
Q

Intrinsic Apoptosis pathway

A

Growth factor withdrawal, DNA damage, or protein misfolding sensed by Bcl-2 and mitochondria releases proapoptotic proteins

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34
Q

MitoA and Bendavia

A

Drugs used to reduce toxic reactive oxygen species in mitochondria

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35
Q

Cyclosporin A

A

Drug that inhibits mitochondrial permeability transition pore.
Used during immunosuppression, psoriasis, dry eyes, dermatitis, uticaria.
-

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36
Q

List the three important types of bonds strongest to weakest

A

Covalent > Ionic > Hydrogen

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37
Q

List of monosaccharides

A

Ribose
Fructose
Glucose
Galactalose

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38
Q

List of Disaccharides

A

Lactose
Trehalose

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39
Q

Maltose

A

Disaccharide found in grain

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40
Q

Lactose

A

Disaccharide found in cow’s milk

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41
Q

Trehalose

A

disaccharide found in sunflower seeds, shrimp, and mushrooms

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42
Q

Maltose

A

Disaccharide found in grain

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43
Q

Sucrose

A

Disaccharide that is table sugar

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44
Q

Glycogen

A

Storage form of glucose.
Helps maintain blood-glucose levels

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45
Q

Starch

A

-Primary carb in diet
-Cellulose
-Branched is amylopectin
-Unbranched is amylose

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46
Q

Where is glycogen stored

A

liver and muscle

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47
Q

Liver importance with glycogen

A

Liver does the synthesis and degradation of glycogen

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48
Q

What lipids are used in signaling

A

Eicosanoids and hormones

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49
Q

What are the two essential fatty acids

A
  1. linoleic acid (omega-6 fatty acid)
  2. alpha-linolenic acid (omega-3 fatty acid)
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50
Q

Eicosanoid

A

2 carbon fatty acid used in signaling and gene regulation

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51
Q

Examples of eicosanoids

A

-Prostaglandins
-Prostacyclins
-Thromboxanes
-Leukotrienes

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52
Q

Prostaglandin

A

Eicosanoid used in inflammation

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53
Q

Prostacyclin

A

Eicosanoid that breaks up platelets

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54
Q

Thromboxane

A

Eicosanoid that causes platelet aggregation

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55
Q

Leukotrienes

A

eicosanoid that causes inflammation but causes pulmonary inflammation and anaphylaxes

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56
Q

What is the building block for steroid hormones

A

cholesterol

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57
Q

Bile salts

A

-Produced in liver from cholesterol
-Solubilize dietary fat in small intestines

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58
Q

What hormones are produced from cholesterol

A

mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, androgens, progesterone, estrogen

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59
Q

Vitamin D

A

-Acts as a hormone in the body
-cholesterol is converted to vitamin D with help of sunlight, liver, skin , and kidney

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60
Q

Calcitiol

A

Active form of vitamin D

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61
Q

Essential Amino Acids

A

Phenylalanine
Valine
Threonine
Tryptophan
Isoleucine
Methionine
Histidine
Lysine
Leucine

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62
Q

Transferin

A

Glycoprotein that transports iron

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63
Q

Protein function in homeostasis

A

Albuin helps with osmotic pressure.
Other proteins help with pH balance

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64
Q

How do proteins help with transport

A

Oxygen binds to hemoglobin

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65
Q

How are proteins used in signaling

A

As hormones and neurotransmitters

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66
Q

-ase

A

enzyme

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67
Q

enzymes that don’t end in “-ase”

A

trypsin, pepsin, thrombin

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68
Q

Competitive inhibition

A

inhibitor binds on enzyme’s active site so substrate can’t bind

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69
Q

Noncompetitive inhibition

A

inhibitor binds so site other than active site on enzyme causing active site to change shape and be unable to bind to substrate.

70
Q

Allosteric regulation

A

Noncompetitive inhibition

71
Q

What cells are actin and myosin found in

A

all of them

72
Q

What does actin do

A

cell motility, wound healing, cytokinesis, skeletal muscle contractions, smooth muscle intercellular signaling,

73
Q

Tubulin

A

Makes up microtubules, structural parts of flagella and cilia, non motile cilia (rods in eyes), mspindle fibers

74
Q

Glycosaminoglycan

A

repeating disaccharide chains of modified glucose and/or galactalose

75
Q

Glycosaminoglycans examples

A

Heparin, Chondroitin, Hyaluronic acid (longest)

76
Q

Hyaluronic acid

A

Glycosaminoglycan. Extracellular matrix of joints, binds to collagen in cornea, and is a component of proteoglycan binding to collagen

77
Q

Chondroiton

A

Glycosaminoglycan. Structural component and attachment point to collagen in joints and bones

78
Q

Heparin

A

Glycosaminoglycan. Regulates immune response and blood clot formation from mast cells and liver cells.

79
Q

What does purine cataboism cause

A

Uric acid –> Kidney Stones

80
Q

What are the pyrimidines

A

Cytosine, Thymine, Uracil

81
Q

What are the purines

A

Adenosine, Guanine

82
Q

Nucleoside

A

Nitrogenous base + sugar. NO PHOSPHATE

83
Q

Nucleotide

A

Sugar + nitrogenous base + phosphate group

84
Q

What links nucleotides

A

Phosphodiester bonds making a phosphate backbone

85
Q

Azidothymidine

A

Nucleoside analog of thymidine that is used in treating retroviral infections

86
Q

Acyclovir

A

Nucleoside analog of guanosine.
Treats retroviral infection

87
Q

mRNA

A

carries genetic code from DNA to ribosomes for translation

88
Q

tRNA

A

Carries amino acids to location of protein synthesis

89
Q

rRNA

A

combines AA to form proteins

90
Q

P arm

A

Short arms of chromosome

91
Q

Q arm

A

Long arms of chromosome

92
Q

Telomer

A

End of arms of chromosome

93
Q

Centromere

A

Middle of chromosome

94
Q

Mitochondrial DNA

A

In a circle. From mom.

95
Q

Introns

A

noncoding (only in eukaryotes)

96
Q

Exons

A

Coding (in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes)

97
Q

Histones

A

Proteins that function in the packaging of DNA.
Results in higher level of gene expression

98
Q

Chromatin

A

Form of DNA packing

99
Q

Heterochromatine

A

Highly condensed (packed)
10% of an interphase

100
Q

Euchromatin

A

Less condensed, more extended state.
90% of interphase

101
Q

X-chromosome inactivation

A

In females, one copy of X is packaged into heterochromatin and shut down. Which one is selected early in embryogenesis

102
Q

What type of RNA is translated

A

mRNA

103
Q

Gene

A

Segment of DNA that functions as a unit to generate RNA product

104
Q

What direction is RNA sytnthesized

A

5’-3’

105
Q

TFIID

A

Transcription factor
TBP (Tata-Binding-Protein)
Co activator to help get RNA polymerase onto the DNA for transcription
Binds to TATA box

106
Q

RNA polymerase

A

enzyme that uses DNA as template to synthesize RNA molecule

107
Q

Three main domains of mRNA

A

-Leader sequence
-Coding region
-Trailer sequence

108
Q

Leader sequence

A

mRNA domain that starts with Guanosine cap at 5’ end

109
Q

Coding region

A

mRNA domain from start codon to stop codon (termination signal)

110
Q

Trailer sequence

A

mRNA domain that terminates at the 3’ end with a poly(A) tail.

111
Q

RNA splicing

A

cutting out introns

112
Q

Cap on 5’ end of RNA

A

-Guanosine
-Decreases rate of degradation
-Recognition site for binding of ribosome

113
Q

Where does transcription occur

A

Nucleus

114
Q

Where does translation occur

A

Cytoplasm

115
Q

Where is rRNA produced

A

Nucleolus

116
Q

What structure brings mRNA and tRNA together

A

ribosome

117
Q

aminoacyl-tRNA

A

a three nucleotide codon (tRNA) attached to an amino acid made in aminoacyl-tRNA

118
Q

A-site

A

aminoacyl site.
Binds appropriate aminoacyl-tRNA determined by codon=anticodon base pairing.
Where release factor binds to sto codon

119
Q

P-site

A

Peptidyl site.
Binds to peptidyl tRNA

120
Q

E-site

A

Ejection site,
Binds the tRNA without amino acid before it leaves the ribosomes.

121
Q

Depurination

A

Spontaneous mutation.
Does not break phosphodiester backbone.
Results in loss of nitrogen base

122
Q

Deamination

A

Spontaneous mutation,
Does not brak phosphodiester backbone.
Converts C–>U

123
Q

X-rays effect on genome

A

Makes hydroxyl radicals that clave DNA strands

124
Q

Huntington’s disease

A

Caused by trinucleotide expansion. Longer expansion means younger age of onset. Expansion of CAG sequence.
Resulting in

125
Q

UV light effect on genome

A

Cause formation of pyrimidine dimers

126
Q

Translocation

A

Chromosome breaks and reattaches segment to another chromosome

127
Q

Xeroderma pigmentosum

A

Defect in nucleotide excision repair.
Unable to fix UV damage to genes.
High risk of skin cancer

128
Q

Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer

A

Lynch Syndrome.
Due to mutation of MSH2 or MLH1

129
Q

Nonhomologus end joining

A

Most common mechanism for fixing double strand breaks.
Could introduce mutations.
Commonly used by cells in G1 phase.

130
Q

When does Crossing over occur

A

After replication (G2-M)

131
Q

Achondroplasia

A

Dwarfism.
Autosomal dominant mutation in fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR3)

132
Q

Cystic Fibrosis

A

One of the most common autosomal recessive disorders.
Deletion in gene that encodes for chloride channel (CFTR) resulting in buildup of mucus in lungs, pancreatic insufficiency, and infertility

133
Q

Hemophilia A

A

X-linked recessive mutation in blood clotting factor VIII

134
Q

VItamin D-resistant rickets

A

X-lined dominant. Mutations in PHEX gene effecting phosphate balance.

135
Q

Fragile X Syndrome

A

Trinucleotide expansion of CGG in FMR1 gene.
Intellectual disability

136
Q

Ataxia Telangiectasia

A

Mutated ATM impairs DNA damage response.
Susceptible to double stranded breaks

137
Q

DNA methylation

A

Turning off a gene

138
Q

What cell cycle checkpoint is most critical

A

G1/S (CDK4/6-CyclinD, CDK2-Cyclin, p53)

139
Q

Tumor suppressor

A

The “brakes” of the cell cycle. (ex. p53, Rb)

140
Q

protooncogene

A

Noncancerous cells that drive the cell cycle forward. (ex. Cyclins)

141
Q

Anti-apoptosis protein examples

A

Bcl-2
Bcl-XL
Mcl-1

142
Q

Pro-apoptotic proteins examples

A

NOXA, PUMA, BAX, BIM, BID

143
Q

Number one contributor to cell immortality

A

Cancer cells activate telomerase to keep telomeres long

144
Q

VEGF

A

Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor secreted from tumors to promote blood vessel formation

145
Q

Epithelial-Mesenchymal Transition

A

Cancer cells acquire abiliity to migrate by MMPs facilitating invasion through extracellular matrix. and disabling e E-Cadherin

146
Q

E-cadherin

A

Protein that holds cells together so stuff can’t get through extracellular matrix

147
Q

Where do solid tumors originate

A

Carcinomas originate from endothelium (endoderm or ectoderm)
Sarcomas originate from mesenchymal cells (mesoderm

148
Q

Where do liquid cancers originate

A

Bone marrow

149
Q

Examples of liquid cancer

A

Leukemias
Multiple Myelomas
Lymphomas

150
Q

DNA methylation

A

Silences tumor suppressor genes

151
Q

What do non-coding RNAs do

A

Regulate oncogenes and tumor suppressors

152
Q

Tumor suppressor mutation

A

Autosomal Recessive
Loss of functoin

153
Q

oncogenes

A

Mutated forms of proto-oncogenes
Autosomal dominant
Gain of function

154
Q

TP53

A

Tumor suppressor gene
Mutation in this gene causes 50% of all cancer by disabling p53

155
Q

Caretaker gene

A

Involved in genomic repair and genome stability/integrity

156
Q

Caretaker gene mutation

A

Causes loss of function
Causes aneuploidy

157
Q

Caretaker gene example

A

BRCA-1

158
Q

General sequence of tumorigenesis

A
  1. Oncogene activation
  2. Mutation accumulation
  3. Tumor suppressor gene inactivation
  4. complete loss of growth control
159
Q

PDL-1

A

Expressed on cancer cells to make it invisible to immune system

160
Q

Cancer Associated Fibroblasts

A

Promote tumor growth through secretion of growth factors and remodeling of extracellular matrix

161
Q

Warbug Effect

A

Tumor prefer glycolysis over oxidative phosphorylation even if oxygen present allowing for rapid ATP production and intermediates for biosynthetic pathways

162
Q

BRCA 1/2 mutations

A

Increased risk of breast and ovarian cancers

163
Q

Kinases

A

Enzyme that phosphorylate proteins

164
Q

Phosphatase

A

Enzyme that takes off phosphate

165
Q

RAS pathway

A

-GF binds to RTK receptor activating RAS (G protein)
-RAS phosphorylates/activates RAF
-RAF phosphorylates/activates MEK
-MEK phosphorylates/activates ERK
-ERK regulates transcription factor in the nucleus

166
Q

What happens when there is a mutation in RAS

A

Cell is constantly told to divide even if no GF present.

167
Q

What happens when there is a BRAF mutation

A

MEK-ERK always activated. Most common in thyroid cancer

168
Q

PI3K pathway

A

-Growth factor binds to RTK receptor activating PI3K
-PI3K converts PIP-2 to PIP-3.
-PIP3 activates AKT
-AKT activates mTOR
-mTOR promotes proliferation

169
Q

WNT/B-Catenin pathway

A

-WNT bind to GPCR inhibiting B-catenin destruction complex (APC) allowing B-catenin to accumulate in cytoplasm and translocate to nucleus
-B-catenin activates transcription factors in nucleus promoting proliferation

170
Q

Retinoblastoma

A

-Childhood eye cancer in retinal tissue.
-Caused by gene mutation that causes person to not have Rb protein (tumor suppressor)

171
Q

How does colon cancer happen

A

APC mutation in WNT/B-catenin pathway.
Epithelial cells can’t shed, so cells bunch up forming polyps (hyperplasia.
This causes continued mutations

172
Q

What is the guardian of the genome

A

P53

173
Q

P21

A

Tumor suppressor at G1/S checkpoint and G2/M checkpoint.
Transcribed by p53.
Binds and inhibits CDK Cyclin halting the cell cycle to give time to repair DNA

174
Q

PTEN

A

Inhibits PI3K/AKT signaling pathway.
Loss of PTEN leads to unregulated cell growth.

175
Q

Apoptosis pathway

A

-pro-apoptotic proteins more present than anti
-Cytochrome C released from mitochondria
-Caspase 9 activated
-Apoptosis

176
Q

Metastasis steps

A

-Invasion
-Detatchment
-Intravasation
-Circlation
-Extravasation
-Colonization

PAS 506 (9 decks)

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