Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Biochemistry > Exam 3 - Multiple Choice > Flashcards

Exam 3 - Multiple Choice Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following descriptions characterizes the symport transporter?
Select one:
a. One molecule being moved in one direction.
b. Two molecules moved through in opposite directions.
c. Two molecules moved through in one direction.
d. None of these

A

c. Two molecules moved through in one direction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following cation is present in a higher concentration in an intracellular fluid?
Select one:
a. Calcium
b. Potassium

A

b. Potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When a molecule requires a transporter to be transferred across the lipid bilayer, which of the following categories of transport does it fall under?
Select one:
a. Facilitated
b. Simple

A

a. Facilitated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The sodium potassium ATPase pump does not do which of the following?
Select one:
a. Pump 3 moles of Na+ out and pump 2 moles of K+ in
b. Pump Na+ out and pump K+ ions in
c. Pump 3 moles of K+ ion in and pump 2 moles of Na+ in
d. Pump 2 moles of K+ in and pump out 3 moles of Na+

A

c. Pump 3 moles of K+ ion in and pump 2 moles of Na+ in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q 
Rapid uptake or release of glucose takes place in the liver. Which of the following glucose transporters facilitates the bidirectional transport of glucose?
Select one:
a. GLUT 1
b. GLUT 2 
c. GLUT 3
d. GLUT 4
e. GLUT 5
A

b. GLUT 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following has a higher permeability through a lipid bilayer?
Select one:
a. An electrolyte (or charged ion)
b. An uncharged molecule

A

b. An uncharged molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following molecules are very easily transported through the plasma membrane?
Select one:
a. Lipid soluble
b. Water soluble

A

a. Lipid soluble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q 
Sodium is pumped out of the cell while Potassium is pumped into the cell. Which of the following ports would be able to undertake that operation?
Select one:
a. Uniport
b. Symport
c. Antiport
A

c. Antiport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following ions are present in a higher concentration in intracellular fluids?
Select one:
a. Phosphate
b. Chloride

A

a. Phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
Which of the following membranes has a higher Lipid to protein ratio?
Select one:
a. Mitochondrial
b. Myelin 
c. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
d. Retinal rods
e. None of these
A

b. Myelin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following hormones requires a cell surface receptor?
Select one:
a. Group I hormones
b. Group II hormones

A

b. Group II hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q 
In the transcellular movement of glucose in a intestinal cell, Glucose follows which of the following ions across the luminal epithelial membrane?
Select one:
a. Ca+2
b. K+
c. Na+ 
d. Cl-
e. PO4-3
A

c. Na+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Lipophilic hormones molecules are classified as
Select one:
a. Group I hormones
b. Group II hormones

A

a. Group I hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Active transport is down an electrochemical gradient or against an electrochemical gradient?
Select one:
a. Down an electrochemical gradient
b. Against an electrochemical gradient

A

b. Against an electrochemical gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following requires energy for transport of molecules?
Select one:
a. Active transport
b. Passive transport

A

a. Active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following hormones act via an intracellular receptor?
Select one:
a. Group I hormones
b. Group II hormones

A

a. Group I hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q 
Small molecules will transfer through the lipid bilayer by which of the following processes?
Select one:
a. Simple diffusion
b. Facilitated diffusion
c. Active transport
A

a. Simple diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q 
Which of the following is not classified as a co-transport mechanism of transport of molecules?
Select one:
a. Symport
b. Antiport
c. Uniport
A

c. Uniport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following descriptions represents the stoichiometry of a Na+-K+ ATpase?
Select one:
a. 3 Na+ ions moving in and 1 K+ ions out.
b. 3 Na+ ions moving out and 1 K+ ions moving in.
c. 3Na+ ions moving out and 2K+ ions moving in.
d. 3Na+ ions moving out and 2K+ ions moving out.
e. 3Na+ ions moving in and 2K+ ions moving out.

A

c. 3Na+ ions moving out and 2K+ ions moving in.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hydrophilic hormone molecules are classified as
Select one:
a. Group I hormones
b. Group II hormones

A

b. Group II hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following category of molecules would be transported using the facilitated method?
Select one:
a. Hydrophobic
b. Hydrophilic

A

b. Hydrophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following molecules is transported very easily through the lipid bilayer?
Select one:
a. O2
b. Na+

A

a. O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q 
Large molecules will transfer through the lipid bilayer by which of the following processes?
Select one:
a. Simple diffusion
b. Facilitated diffusion 
c. Active transport
A

b. Facilitated diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following cation is present in a higher concentration in extracellular fluids?
Select one:
a. Sodium
b. Magnesium

A

a. Sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q 
Glucose and Na+ ions enter a cell via a port. Which of the following ports would you classify that port as?
Select one:
a. Uniport
b. Symport
c. Antiport
A

b. Symport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

An amine-imine tautomerism is exhibited by which of the following groups in purines and pyrimidines?
Select one:
a. Oxo group
b. Amino group

A

b. Amino group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q 
In DNA repair, occasionally a wrong base is introduced. For example a deaminated product of cytosine is introduced in DNA. Which of the following is the deaminated product of cytosine?
Select one:
a. Thymine
b. Adenine
c. Guanine
d. Uracil 
e. None of these
A

d. Uracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q 
The mature m-RNA is capped by which of the following heterocyclic bases (or which of the following heterocyclic bases are present on the cap of a mature m-RNA?
Select one:
a. 5-methyguanine
b. 7-methylcytosine
c. 7-methylguanine
d. 5-methylcytosine
A

c. 7-methylguanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q 
Humans catabolize purines to which of the following metabolized products?
Select one:
a. Argionine
b. Xanthine
c. Uric acid 
d. Beta-alanine
e. Beta-aminobutyrate
A

c. Uric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q 
In a nucleotide, which carbon of the sugar is the phosphate group attached to?
Select one:
a. 1’
b. 2’
c. 3’
d. 4’
e. 5’
A

e. 5’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In DNA replication process, in which of the following strands is the Okazaki fragments formed?
Select one:
a. Leading strand
b. Lagging strand

A

b. Lagging strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Pseudouridine is which of the following?
Select one:
a. The sugar is attached to C-4 of the heterocyclic base
b. The sugar is attached to C-5 of the heterocyclic base
c. The sugar is attached to the C-6 of the heterocyclic base
d. The sugar is attached to N-1 of dihydrouracil

A

b. The sugar is attached to C-5 of the heterocyclic base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q 
Which of the following arms of t-RNA is required for recognition of the t-RNA by its proper aminoacyl t-RNA synthetase?
Select one:
a. D arm 
b. T(psi)C arm
c. Acceptor arm
d. Anti-codon arm
A

a. D arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Proteins are formed in what order?
Select one:
a. N-terminal to C-terminal
b. C-terminal to N-terminal

A

a. N-terminal to C-terminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

In a DNA molecule, the bases are in which of the following stable conformation?
Select one:
a. Syn
b. Anti

A

b. Anti

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q 
Which form of DNA has 12 base pairs in a 360o turn?
Select one:
a. A
b. B
c. Z
A

c. Z

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following combinations is known as a nucleoside?
Select one:
a. Base+sugar
b. Base+sugar+phosphate

A

a. Base+sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q 
Which of the following motifs contains 2 cysteine and (or) 2 Histidine residues in the same chain held together by a metal ion?
Select one:
a. Leucine zipper
b. Zinc finger
c. Helix-turn-helix
A

b. Zinc finger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which conformer of the heterocyclic bases exists predominantly in nature?
Select one:
a. Syn
b. Anti

A

b. Anti

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q 
Which of the following names is not a possible structure?
Select one:
a. 7-methyladenine
b. 7-methylguanine
c. 5-methylthymine
d. 5-methylcytosine
e. 4-methyladenine
A

e. 4-methyladenine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following mutation description refers to the transversions type?
Select one:
a. Single base change where A is replaced by G
b. Single base change where a A is replaced by C
c. Single base change where C is replaced by T

A

b. Single base change where a A is replaced by C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q 
Which of the following is one of the intermediates in the biosynthesis of Pyrimidines?
Select one:
a. Beta-Alanine
b. Inosine monophosphate
c. Orotic acid 
d. Xanthine
e. None of these
A

c. Orotic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In the biosynthesis of Pyrimidines, which of the following amino acids combines with CO2 to form carbamoylphosphate?

Select one:

a. Asparagine
b. Glutamine
c. Lysine
d. Aspartate
e. Glutarate

A

b. Glutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

In DNA replication, synthesis of the new daughter strand is towards the replication fork in case of which of the following strands?
Select one:
a. Leading
b. Lagging

A

a. Leading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q 
Amplification of DNA sequences is conducted using which of the following processes?
Select one:
a. Replication
b. Translation
c. Polymerase chain reaction
d. Transcription
A

c. Polymerase chain reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

In DNA repair mechanism, which of the following mechanism removes several nucleotides at a time?
Select one:
a. Base Excision repair
b. Nucleotide excision repair

A

b. Nucleotide excision repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q 
Which of the following is the anti-codon present on the t-RNA that carries fMet to the start codon?
Select one:
a. UAC 
b. TAC
c. CUA
d. CAT
A

a. UAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q 
UV light causes damage to a DNA molecule. Which of the following dimers are formed by long exposure of UV rays?
Select one:
a. AA dimer
b. GG dimer
c. GC dimer
d. AT dimer
e. TT dimer
A

e. TT dimer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which of the following is the correct name for Thymine?

Select one:

a. 5-methyluracil
b. 3-methyluracil
c. 2-methyluracil
d. 1-Methyluracil

A

a. 5-methyluracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q 
In DNA replication, which of the following enzymes initiates synthesis of RNA molecule that is essential for priming DNA synthesis?
Select one:
a. Helicase
b. DNA Pol III
c. DNA pol II
d. Primase 
e. Gyrase
A

d. Primase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q 
Which of the following types is a description of Two base alteration of DNA?
Select one:
a. Depurination
b. UV light induced Pyrimidine dimer 
c. Ionizing radiation
d. Deamination of Cytosine to Uracil.
A

b. UV light induced Pyrimidine dimer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The Syn and Anti conformers are interconvertible (can switch easily). Is this statement true or false?
Select one:
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q 
Which of the following nucleotides act as secondary messengers?
Select one:
a. ATP
b. CDP
c. CDP-galactose
d. cAMP 
e. None of these
A

d. cAMP

54
Q 
In the biosynthesis of purines, which of the following is the second amino acid to be incorporated onto the phosphoribosylamine molecule?
Select one:
a. Glycine 
b. Glutamine
c. Aspartate
A

a. Glycine

55
Q

In DNA replication process, in which of the following cases is the DNA synthesized continuously?
Select one:
a. Leading strand
b. Lagging strand

A

a. Leading strand

56
Q 
Which of the following pyrimidine contains a free NH2 group attached to the heterocyclic ring?
Select one:
a. Cytosine 
b. Uracil
c. Thymine
A

a. Cytosine

57
Q

In DNA replication, synthesis of the new daughter strand is away from the replication form in case of which of the following strands?
Select one:
a. Leading
b. Lagging

A

b. Lagging

58
Q 
An amino acid is connected to the t-RNA by which of the following functional groups?
Select one:
a. Amide
b. Ester 
c. Ether
d. Carbamate
A

b. Ester

59
Q

In the biosynthesis of Pyrimidines, UMP is converted to CTP using which of the following amino acids?

Select one:

a. Asparagine
b. Glutamine
c. Lysine
d. Aspartate
e. Glutarate

A

b. Glutamine

60
Q 
In DNA repair mechanism involving methyl directed mismatch repair, which of the following nucleotides has a methyl group attached to it?
Select one:
a. G
b. T
c. A 
d. C
A

c. A

61
Q 
Which of the following nucleotide derivatives act as intermediates for lipid biosynthesis?
Select one:
a. UDP-Glucose
b. CDP-Acylglycerol 
c. cAMP
d. ATP
e. None of these
A

b. CDP-Acylglycerol

62
Q 
Which of the following amino acid is acetylated when DNA is unwound from histones?
Select one:
a. Lysine 
b. Arginine
c. Asparagine
d. Glycine
A

a. Lysine

63
Q 
Hyperuricemia is characterized by which of the following?
Select one:
a. High level of pyrimidines
b. High level of uric acid 
c. High levels of orotic acid
d. High levels of uracil
A

b. High level of uric acid

64
Q 
Which of the following enzymes will form the m-RNA molecule?
Select one:
a. RNA Pol I
b. RNA pol II
c. RNA pol III
d. DNA polymerase
A

b. RNA pol II

65
Q 
Xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) is an inherited defect that is related to inability to remove which of the following?
Select one:
a. TT dimer 
b. AT dimer
c. GC dimer
d. AA dimer
A

a. TT dimer

66
Q 
Which of the following is the action of SnRNA (snurps)?
Select one:
a. Important in growth and development
b. Knocks out a portion of the gene
c. Splices the introns out of m-RNA 
d. Splices out the exons out of m-RNA
A

c. Splices the introns out of m-RNA

67
Q

Which of the following descriptions refer to the Leucine Zipper Motif?
Select one:
a. Consists of three antiparallel beta sheets and three alpha helices.
b. Consists of closely spaced Cysteine-Cysteine residues followed by 12 to 13 amino acids later by histidine-histidine pair.
c. Consists of a beta sheet in which there is a periodic repeat of leucine residues at every 7th position.
d. Consists of an alpha helix in which there is a periodic repeat of leucine residues at every 7th position.

A

d. Consists of an alpha helix in which there is a periodic repeat of leucine residues at every 7th position.

68
Q

Beta-hydroxyaciduria is the result of excretion of catabolism of which of the following?
Select one:
a. Purines
b. Pyrimidines

A

b. Pyrimidines

69
Q

In the DNA replication process, synthesis of daughter strands are formed in which direction?
Select one:
a. 3’ → 5’
b. 5’ → 3’

A

b. 5’ → 3’

70
Q

In the t-RNA molecule the amino acid is attached to which end of the molecule?
Select one:
a. 5’ end
b. 3’ end

A

b. 3’ end

71
Q 
In the biosynthesis of purines, the N#9 atom is contributed by which amino acid?
Select one:
a. Glycine
b. N5,N10-Methenyltetrahydrofolate
c. Glutamine 
d. Aspartate
e. None of these
A

c. Glutamine

72
Q 
In which of the following bases is the amino group (-NH2) at the #2 carbon of the fused heterocyclic ring ?
Select one:
a. Adenine
b. Guanine 
c. Cytosine
d. Uracil
e. Thymine
A

b. Guanine

73
Q 
Which form of DNA has a left handed helix?
Select one:
a. A
b. B
c. Z
A

c. Z

74
Q 
In nucleosides, which carbon of the sugar is the Nitrogen of the base linked to?
Select one:
a. 1’ 
b. 2’
c. 3’
d. 4’
e. 5’
A

a. 1’

75
Q 
In the biosynthesis of purines, the N#1 atom is contributed by which amino acid?
Select one:
a. Glycine
b. N5,N10-Methenyltetrahydrofolate
c. Glutamine
d. Aspartate 
e. None of these
A

d. Aspartate

76
Q

In the catabolism of pyrimidines, which of the following is one of the products that is formed?

Select one:

a. Xanthine
b. Orotic acid
c. Beta alanine
d. Uric acid
e. None of these

A

c. Beta alanine

77
Q 
In the biosynthesis of TMP, which of the following intermediates is required?
Select one:
a. UDP 
b. UTP
c. CTP
d. None of these
A

a. UDP

78
Q 
Human tissues can synthesize purines and pyrimidines from which of the following molecules(or intermediates)?
Select one:
a. Amphoteric
b. Amphipathic
c. Amphiprotic
d. Amphibolic
A

d. Amphibolic

79
Q 
In the DNA replication process, which of the following enzymes can create a linkage between the 5’ phosphate and the 3’ OH groups in the Okazaki fragments?
Select one:
a. DNA topoisomerase
b. DNA ligase 
c. Helicase
d. Primase
e. Endonuclease
A

b. DNA ligase

80
Q 
Caffeine is considered a derivative of Xanthine. How many methyl groups are present in Caffeine?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Three 
d. Four
e. None of these
A

c. Three

81
Q 
Which form of DNA has alternating purines and pyrimidines?
Select one:
a. A
b. B
c. Z
A

c. Z

82
Q 
Uric acid is a derivative of which of the following heterocyclic bases?
Select one:
a. Adenine
b. Cytosine
c. Uracil
d. Thymine
A

a. Adenine

83
Q

The E,P and A site for protein synthesis are present on which of the following subunits?
Select one:
a. Smaller subunit
b. Larger subunit

A

b. Larger subunit

84
Q 
In the DNA replication process, DNA pol III has not only a chain elongation activity, it also has a proof reading ability. Which of the following is the proof reading ability of DNA Pol III?
Select one:
a. 3’ → 5’ exonuclease 
b. 5’ → 3’ exonuclease
c. 5’ → 3’ polymerase
d. 3’ → 5’ polymerase
A

a. 3’ → 5’ exonuclease

85
Q

Von Gierke disease is the over production of which of the following?
Select one:
a. Purines
b. Pyrimidines

A

a. Purines

86
Q 
How many codons do not code for specific amino acids?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Three 
d. Four
A

c. Three

87
Q 
Which of the following enzymes will cleave the heterocyclic base from the sugar?
Select one:
a. DNA ligase
b. Exonuclease
c. Beta N-glycosidase 
d. Endonuclease
A

c. Beta N-glycosidase

88
Q 
In the biosynthesis of purines. Inosine monophosphate (IMP) is converted to AMP in a two step process using which of the following amino acids?
Select one:
a. Glutamine
b. Glutamate
c. Arginine
d. Aspartate 
e. None of these
A

d. Aspartate

89
Q 
Pol II is active when its tail is phosphorylated. Which of the following amino acids is present in the tail that gets phosphorylated?
Select one:
a. Serine 
b. Cysteine
c. Tyrosine
d. Tryptophan
A

a. Serine

90
Q 
How many hydrogen bonds are present between Adenine and Thymine?
Select one:
a. Two 
b. Three
c. Four
d. One
A

a. Two

91
Q

Histones are _____ charged molecules
Select one:
a. positively
b. Negatively

A

a. positively

92
Q 
The oxo group of purine and pyrimidines exhibit which of the following tautomerisms?
Select one:
a. Keto-enol 
b. Amine-imine
c. None of these
A

a. Keto-enol

93
Q 
In DNA replication process, the key step in opening up the superstructure is acetylation of an amino acid residue in histones. Which of the following amino acids is acetylated?
Select one:
a. Lysine 
b. Asparagine
c. Glycine
d. Glutamine
e. None of these
A

a. Lysine

94
Q

Which of the following is an example of an unacceptable missense?
Select one:
a. Hb A, is converted to Hb M (Boston) where the alpha chain Histidine at #58 is replaced by Tyrosine.
b. HbA is converted to Hb Hikari, where the beta chain Lysine at #61 is replaced by Asparagine.
c. Hb A is converted to Hb S, where the beta chain Glutamate at #6 is replaced by Valine.

A

a. Hb A, is converted to Hb M (Boston) where the alpha chain Histidine at #58 is replaced by Tyrosine.

95
Q

Gout is a metabolic disorder of the catabolism of which of the following?
Select one:
a. Purines
b. Pyrimidines

A

a. Purines

96
Q

In DNA repair mechanism involving methyl directed mismatch repair, which of the following strand contains the methyl group attached to one of the nucleotides (or a methyl substituted nucleotide)
Select one:
a. Daughter strand
b. Parent strand

A

b. Parent strand

97
Q 
In a DNA structure, how many hydrogen bonds exist between Guanosine and Cytosine?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Three 
d. Four
e. Five
A

c. Three

98
Q

In DNA replication process, which of the following enzyme initiates nascent daughter strand synthesis?

Select one:

a. Helicase
b. DNA polymerase
c. Primase
d. Gyrase

A

b. DNA polymerase

99
Q 
Which form of DNA has 11 base pairs in a 360o turn?
Select one:
a. A 
b. B
c. Z
A

a. A

100
Q 
Which of the following groups from the incoming amino acids at the “A” site attacks the polypeptide chain) at the “P” site on a rRNA?
Select one:
a. Amine group 
b. Carboxyl group
c. Ester group
d. Amide group
A

a. Amine group

101
Q

Which of the following heterocyclic base is a derivative of Uracil and vice-versa?

Select one:

a. Cytosine
b. Adenine
c. Guanine
d. Thymine

A

a. Cytosine

102
Q 
Which of the following is the correct way that heterocyclic bases are paired between two polypeptide chains of DNA?
Select one:
a. Purines-Purine
b. Pyrimidines-Pyrimidines
c. Purine-Pyrimidine 
d. Sugar-Phosphate
A

c. Purine-Pyrimidine

103
Q

In the helix-turn-helix how many alpha helices and how many beta pleated sheets are present?
Select one:
a. Three alpha helices and three parallel beta pleated sheets
b. Three alpha helices and three anti-parallel beta pleated sheets
c. Two alpha helices and two anti-parallel beta pleated sheets
d. Two alpha helices and two parallel beta pleated sheets

A

b. Three alpha helices and three anti-parallel beta pleated sheets

104
Q

Which of the following is the correct way that a polypeptide chain is put together in one DNA strand?
Select one:
a. 3’ OH of the sugar from one nucleotide attacks the 5’ Phosphate of the next nucleotide to form the phosphate diester bond.
b. 5’ OH of the sugar from one nucleotide attacks the 3’ Phosphate of the next nucleotide to form the phosphate diester bond.
c. 5’ phosphate of the sugar from one nucleotide attacks the 3’ OH of the next nucleotide to form the phosphate diester bond.
d. 3’ phosphate of the sugar from one nucleotide attacks the 5’ OH of the next nucleotide to form the phosphate diester bond.

A

a. 3’ OH of the sugar from one nucleotide attacks the 5’ Phosphate of the next nucleotide to form the phosphate diester bond.

105
Q

Which of the following reactions listed against each enzyme is false?
Select one:
a. DNA ligase catalyzes bonds between DNA molecules
b. Exonuclease III removes nucleotides from the 3’ ends of DNA
c. S1 nuclease degrades double stranded DNA
d. Lambda Exonuclease removes nucleotides from the 5’ ends of DNA

A

c. S1 nuclease degrades double stranded DNA

Degrades SINGLE-stranded DNA

106
Q

In base excision repair mechanism, which of the following enzyme forms the phosphate diester bond?

Select one:

a. Exonuclease
b. Endonuclease
c. Beta N-glycosidase
d. DNA ligase

A

d. DNA ligase

107
Q 
In a DNA structure, how many hydrogen bonds exist between Adenosine and Thymine?
Select one:
a. One
b. Two 
c. Three
d. Four
e. Five
A

b. Two

108
Q

In DNA replication process, which of the following enzymes initiates nicks on one strand to remove supercoils and supertwists?
Select one:
a. DNA topoisomerase I
b. DNA toposiomerase II

A

a. DNA topoisomerase I

109
Q

In DNA proof reading or DNA repair processes, an exonuclease will cleave at which of the following positions?
Select one:
a. End of the chain
b. Within the chain

A

a. End of the chain

110
Q

In the biosynthesis of purines, Inosine monophosphate is converted to GMP in a two step process using which of the following amino acids?

Select one:

a. Glutamine
b. Glutamate
c. Arginine
d. Aspartate
e. None of these

A

a. Glutamine

111
Q 
In DNA replication process, the phosphodiester bonds are formed between which two carbons of the adjacent ribose sugars?
Select one:
a. 3’ and 5’ 
b. 3’ and 4’
c. 3’ and 2’
d. 3’ and 1’
A

a. 3’ and 5’

112
Q 
Which of the following amino acids has only one code?
Select one:
a. Cysteine
b. Tyrosine
c. Tryptophan 
d. Lysine
A

c. Tryptophan

113
Q 
In the biosynthesis of purines, the N#7 atom is contributed by which amino acid?
Select one:
a. Glycine 
b. N5,N10-Methenyltetrahydrofolate
c. Glutamine
d. Aspartate
e. None of these
A

a. Glycine

114
Q

Exposure to UV radiation causes cancer by dimer formation. Which of the following is the generic description of the dimer formed?
Select one:
a. Purine dimer
b. Pyrimidine dimer

A

b. Pyrimidine dimer

115
Q 
The sequence of amino acids at the 3’ end of a t-RNA molecule is which of the following?
Select one:
a. CCA 
b. AAC
c. AUG
d. UGA
A

a. CCA

116
Q 
In DNA replication process, which of the following enzymes replaces a RNA nucleotide from the primer with a DNA nucleotide?
Select one:
a. Exonuclease
b. Endonuclease
c. Primase
d. DNA Pol III
e. DNA Pol I
A

e. DNA Pol I

117
Q 
Which of the following motifs does not exist as dimers?
Select one:
a. Leucine zipper
b. Helix-turn-helix
c. Zinc finger
A

c. Zinc finger

118
Q 
In DNA replication, the replication fork is created by which of the following enzymes?
Select one:
a. DNA pol III
b. DNA pol I
c. DNA Pol II
d. Primase
e. Helicase
A

e. Helicase

119
Q 
Inosine monophosphate, is an intermediate in the biosynthesis of purines. It contains a C=O (oxo group) at what position on the fused heterocyclic ring system?
Select one:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. None of these
A

e. None of these

C=O at carbon number 6

120
Q

How many C=O group are present on Xanthine?

Select one:

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. None of these

A

b. Two

121
Q 
In the biosynthesis of purines, the N#3 atom is contributed by which amino acid?
Select one:
a. Glycine
b. N5,N10-Methenyltetrahydrofolate
c. Glutamine 
d. Aspartate
e. None of these
A

c. Glutamine

122
Q 
In the biosynthesis of Pyrimidines, which of the following amino acids combines with Carbamoylphosphate?
Select one:
a. Asparagine
b. Glutamine
c. Lysine
d. Aspartate 
e. Glutarate
A

d. Aspartate

123
Q

In the DNA replication process, the phosphodiester bond is labeled as which of the following?
Select one:
a. 3’ → 5’
b. 5’ → 3’

A

a. 3’ → 5’

124
Q 
How many hydrogen bonds are present between Cytosine and Guanine
Select one:
a. One
b. Two
c. Three 
d. Four
A

c. Three

125
Q

In the DNA replication process, DNA pol I removes the RNA nucleotide one at a time. Which of the following exonuclease activity is used for this purpose?
Select one:
a. 5’ → 3’ exonuclease
b. 3’ → 5’ exonuclease

A

a. 5’ → 3’ exonuclease

126
Q 
Which of the following is considered a secondary messenger?
Select one:
a. ATP
b. Xanthine
c. AcetylCholine
d. cAMP 
e. UDP
A

d. cAMP

127
Q

In DNA replication process, which of the following enzymes initiates nicks on both strands to remove supercoils and supertwists?
Select one:
a. DNA topoisomerase I
b. DNA toposiomerase II

A

b. DNA toposiomerase II

128
Q

In DNA repair, if guanine has been erroneously introduced, it is removed by a specific glycosylase leaving behind a a site without a base. This site is called the ?

Select one:

a. Apurinic site
b. Apyrimidinic site

A

a. Apurinic site

129
Q 
In translation of an mRNA into a protein, the first amino acid that is attached to the start codon is which of the following?
Select one:
a. Cysteine
b. O-formylmethionine
c. N-formylmethione 
d. Serine
A

c. N-formylmethione

130
Q

In pyrimidine nucleosides, which Nitrogen of the base is attached (or linked) to the sugar?

Select one:

a. N-1
b. N-3
c. N-7
d. N-9
e. None of these

A

a. N-1

131
Q 
In the biosynthesis of purines, which of the following is the first amino acid to be incorporated onto the phosphoribosylpyrophosphate molecule?
Select one:
a. Glycine
b. Glutamine 
c. Aspartate
A

b. Glutamine

Biochemistry (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions