Exam 3 MoA Flashcards

1
Q

Biguanide drug

A

Metformin

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2
Q

Sulfonylureas drug

A

Glipizide

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3
Q

which drug stimulates pancreatic islet beta cell insulin release through calcium dependent pathway

A

Glipizide

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4
Q

which drug activates AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) which ____ hepatic gluconeogenesis and intestinal glucose absorption and ____ insulin sensitivity

A

Metformin; supressess; increases

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5
Q

which three classes of diabetes drugs does NOT produce weight gain

A

Biguanides, DPP-4 inhibitors, GLP-1 agonists

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6
Q

which Thiazolidinedione/Glitazone drug SELECTIVELY stimulates PPAR gamma which increases insulin sensitivity in the liver?

A

Pioglitazone

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7
Q

what else could PPPAR activation effects cause?

A

pro-inflammitory mediator production

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8
Q

which diabetes drug is unique in its use for polycystic ovary syndrome as well as DM-II?

A

Metformin

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9
Q

which drug INHIBITS DPP-4?

A

Sitagliptin

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10
Q

inhibition of DPP-4 by Sitagliptin has what effects on incretin, insulin, and glucagon?

A

slows incretin breakdown, increases insulin synthesis/release, and decreases glucagon levels

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11
Q

which drug INHIBITS sodium-glucose contransporter-2 (SLGT-2), reducing glucose reabsorption?

A

Canagliflozin

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12
Q

SLGT-2 inhibition does what to urinary glucose secretion?

A

increases urinary glucose secretion

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13
Q

which drug activates glucagon-like-peptide-1 receptor (GLP-1) on ___ cells which _____ insulin secretion and ___ glucagon secretion?

A

Dulaglutide; beta; increases; decreases

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14
Q

which drug is a slow release insulin analog drug for long day blood sugar regulation through stimulating peripheral glucose uptake and inhibiting gluconeogenesis/lipolysis/proteolysis?

A

Insulin Glargine

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15
Q

anticoagulant drug that prevents reduced form of Vit-K which stops activation of factors II, VII, IX, X

A

Coumadin

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16
Q

anticoagulant drug that is a fractionated, heterogeneous low molecular weight form of heparin that IRREVERSIBLY binds to antithrombin to inactivate factor Xa (and a little of factor IIa/thrombin)

A

Enoxaparin

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17
Q

drug that binds to the active site of factor Xa to prevent coagulation

A

Rivaroxaban

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18
Q

ADP receptor blocker drug that IRREVERSIBLY blocks activation of GP IIb/IIIa receptors and prevents platelet formation

A

Clopidogrel

19
Q

GP IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that binds to GP IIb/IIIa receptor which inhibits platelet aggregation by preventing binding of fibrinogen

A

Abciximab

20
Q

drug that competitively INHIBITS HMG-CoA Reductase, thus stopping an early, rate-limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis

A

Atorvastatin

21
Q

drug that increases hepatic LDL receptors and decreases VLDL synthesis from liver

A

Atorvastatin

22
Q

drug that stimulates nuclear receptor PPAR (alpha) which increases transcription of insulin sensitive genes in the liver, muscle, and adipose tissue (which decreases the amount of lipid in blood stream)

A

Fenofibrate

23
Q

drug that inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissue, decreasing hepatic VLDL synthesis, decreasing LDL levels, and increasing HDL

A

Nicotinic Acid

24
Q

drug that inhibits dietary and biliary cholesterol absorption at small intestine brush border

A

Ezetimibe

25
Q

drug that IRREVERSIBLY inhibits gastric parietal cell proton pump which inhibits gastric acid secretion

A

Esomeprazole/Omeprazole

26
Q

4 things that stimulate gastric acid secretion

A

acetylcholine, histamine, prostaglandin E2, and gastrin

27
Q

drug that SELECTIVELY antagonizes gastric parietal cell H2 histamine receptors, thus blocking gastric secretion

A

Cimetidine

28
Q

drugs that work through chemical neutralization of gastrointestinal acids, but do not treat production of gastric acid (symptom relief only)

A

Antacids

29
Q

drug that inhibits combination of protein backbone and iodine, which prevents formation of thyroid molecules T3 and T4

A

PTU/Methamizole (for hyperthyroidism)

30
Q

drug that creates synthetic T4

A

Synthroid Levothyroxine sodium (for hypothyroidism)

31
Q

which drug binds to estrogen receptors, developing and maintaining female sex characteristics and reproductive systems?

A

Estrone

32
Q

decline in estrogen leads to decline in ___ into bones, which increases chances of concomitant ______ when women develop menopause

A

Calcium deposition; osteoperosis

33
Q

drug that suppresses LH and FSH, inhibiting ovulation, and also alters cervical mucus and endometrium

A

Yaz

34
Q

drug that SELECTIVELY binds to estrogen receptors, producing estrogenic and anti-estrogenic effects

A

Tamoxifen (Selective estrogen receptor modulator or SERM)

35
Q

drug indicated for metastatic breast cancer

A

Tamoxifen

36
Q

which drug has a high affinity for calcium, and works by inhibting HMG-CoA later in the pathway, causing osteoclast cell death, which thus decreases bone reabsorption

A

Alendronate (osteoperosis)

37
Q

which drug is a nitrogen biphosphate?

A

Alendronate

38
Q

which drug acts as a folic acid analogue–>which INHIBITS dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)–> which prevents formation of tetrahydrofolate (FH4)–> which INHIBITS lymphocyte proliferation?

A

Methotrexate

39
Q

what 4 things play a key role in stimulating emesis?

A

Serotonin and dopamine (D2) in the chemoreceptor trigger zone; histamine (H1) and muscarinics (M1) through vestibular pathways

40
Q

antihistaminics, benzodiapenes, anticholinergics, corticosteroids, and serotonin antagonists all can have what kind of effects on vomiting center?

A

anti-emetic effects

41
Q

M1 antagonist drug example that works as an anticholinergic?

A

Scopolamine

42
Q

which drug is a NON-selective central and peripheral H1 ANTAGONIST (and a small D2 antagonistic effect)?

A

Promethazine (anti-emetic)

43
Q

which drug is a SELECTIVE D2 antagonist?

A

Chlorpromazine (anti-emetic)

44
Q

which drug SELECTIVELY ANTAGONIZES 5-HT3 (serotonin) receptors?

A

Ondansetron