Exam 3 MoA Flashcards

1
Q

Biguanide drug

A

Metformin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Sulfonylureas drug

A

Glipizide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which drug stimulates pancreatic islet beta cell insulin release through calcium dependent pathway

A

Glipizide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which drug activates AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) which ____ hepatic gluconeogenesis and intestinal glucose absorption and ____ insulin sensitivity

A

Metformin; supressess; increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which three classes of diabetes drugs does NOT produce weight gain

A

Biguanides, DPP-4 inhibitors, GLP-1 agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which Thiazolidinedione/Glitazone drug SELECTIVELY stimulates PPAR gamma which increases insulin sensitivity in the liver?

A

Pioglitazone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what else could PPPAR activation effects cause?

A

pro-inflammitory mediator production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which diabetes drug is unique in its use for polycystic ovary syndrome as well as DM-II?

A

Metformin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which drug INHIBITS DPP-4?

A

Sitagliptin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

inhibition of DPP-4 by Sitagliptin has what effects on incretin, insulin, and glucagon?

A

slows incretin breakdown, increases insulin synthesis/release, and decreases glucagon levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which drug INHIBITS sodium-glucose contransporter-2 (SLGT-2), reducing glucose reabsorption?

A

Canagliflozin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

SLGT-2 inhibition does what to urinary glucose secretion?

A

increases urinary glucose secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which drug activates glucagon-like-peptide-1 receptor (GLP-1) on ___ cells which _____ insulin secretion and ___ glucagon secretion?

A

Dulaglutide; beta; increases; decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which drug is a slow release insulin analog drug for long day blood sugar regulation through stimulating peripheral glucose uptake and inhibiting gluconeogenesis/lipolysis/proteolysis?

A

Insulin Glargine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

anticoagulant drug that prevents reduced form of Vit-K which stops activation of factors II, VII, IX, X

A

Coumadin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

anticoagulant drug that is a fractionated, heterogeneous low molecular weight form of heparin that IRREVERSIBLY binds to antithrombin to inactivate factor Xa (and a little of factor IIa/thrombin)

A

Enoxaparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

drug that binds to the active site of factor Xa to prevent coagulation

A

Rivaroxaban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ADP receptor blocker drug that IRREVERSIBLY blocks activation of GP IIb/IIIa receptors and prevents platelet formation

A

Clopidogrel

19
Q

GP IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that binds to GP IIb/IIIa receptor which inhibits platelet aggregation by preventing binding of fibrinogen

20
Q

drug that competitively INHIBITS HMG-CoA Reductase, thus stopping an early, rate-limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis

A

Atorvastatin

21
Q

drug that increases hepatic LDL receptors and decreases VLDL synthesis from liver

A

Atorvastatin

22
Q

drug that stimulates nuclear receptor PPAR (alpha) which increases transcription of insulin sensitive genes in the liver, muscle, and adipose tissue (which decreases the amount of lipid in blood stream)

A

Fenofibrate

23
Q

drug that inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissue, decreasing hepatic VLDL synthesis, decreasing LDL levels, and increasing HDL

A

Nicotinic Acid

24
Q

drug that inhibits dietary and biliary cholesterol absorption at small intestine brush border

25
drug that IRREVERSIBLY inhibits gastric parietal cell proton pump which inhibits gastric acid secretion
Esomeprazole/Omeprazole
26
4 things that stimulate gastric acid secretion
acetylcholine, histamine, prostaglandin E2, and gastrin
27
drug that SELECTIVELY antagonizes gastric parietal cell H2 histamine receptors, thus blocking gastric secretion
Cimetidine
28
drugs that work through chemical neutralization of gastrointestinal acids, but do not treat production of gastric acid (symptom relief only)
Antacids
29
drug that inhibits combination of protein backbone and iodine, which prevents formation of thyroid molecules T3 and T4
PTU/Methamizole (for hyperthyroidism)
30
drug that creates synthetic T4
Synthroid Levothyroxine sodium (for hypothyroidism)
31
which drug binds to estrogen receptors, developing and maintaining female sex characteristics and reproductive systems?
Estrone
32
decline in estrogen leads to decline in ___ into bones, which increases chances of concomitant ______ when women develop menopause
Calcium deposition; osteoperosis
33
drug that suppresses LH and FSH, inhibiting ovulation, and also alters cervical mucus and endometrium
Yaz
34
drug that SELECTIVELY binds to estrogen receptors, producing estrogenic and anti-estrogenic effects
Tamoxifen (Selective estrogen receptor modulator or SERM)
35
drug indicated for metastatic breast cancer
Tamoxifen
36
which drug has a high affinity for calcium, and works by inhibting HMG-CoA later in the pathway, causing osteoclast cell death, which thus decreases bone reabsorption
Alendronate (osteoperosis)
37
which drug is a nitrogen biphosphate?
Alendronate
38
which drug acts as a folic acid analogue-->which INHIBITS dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)--> which prevents formation of tetrahydrofolate (FH4)--> which INHIBITS lymphocyte proliferation?
Methotrexate
39
what 4 things play a key role in stimulating emesis?
Serotonin and dopamine (D2) in the chemoreceptor trigger zone; histamine (H1) and muscarinics (M1) through vestibular pathways
40
antihistaminics, benzodiapenes, anticholinergics, corticosteroids, and serotonin antagonists all can have what kind of effects on vomiting center?
anti-emetic effects
41
M1 antagonist drug example that works as an anticholinergic?
Scopolamine
42
which drug is a NON-selective central and peripheral H1 ANTAGONIST (and a small D2 antagonistic effect)?
Promethazine (anti-emetic)
43
which drug is a SELECTIVE D2 antagonist?
Chlorpromazine (anti-emetic)
44
which drug SELECTIVELY ANTAGONIZES 5-HT3 (serotonin) receptors?
Ondansetron