EXAM 3: GI Anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

History of GI Endoscopic Procedures & Sedation:

____ used to administered Demerol and Versed - PACU backed up with over sedated patients

Patients were often under or over sedated - which led to poor outcomes (injury if moving, airway compromise if over-sedated).

Procedures were simple and quick.

2012 estimated over half of colonoscopies performed under ____.

A

Nurses

MAC

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2
Q

Why are CRNAs necessary for GI procedures?

1) Need for more advanced sedation - ____ sleep, wakeup, and recovery. _____ is the ideal anesthetic for GI outpatient procedures offering a fast recovery & discharge. It has quick on/off w/ little to no drowsiness so you can d/c from PACU quicker. It also allows less wrestling w/ patients potentially causes injury to the patient and/or staff.
2) Non-anesthesia providers are unable to administer ____ levels of propofol.
3) Some GI procedures are more complex, challenging, and longer.
4) Anesthesia providers offer advanced sedation WITHOUT _______.
5) Anesthesia providers are competent _______ managers and rescuers.

A

1 - RAPID, propofol
2 - anesthetic
4 - oversedation
5 - airway

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3
Q

GI procedures can be performed ______ (hospitals, specialty LTAC facilities, rehab, remote bedside procedures) and ______ (offices, clinics, outpatient surgery centers).

A

inpatient

outpatient

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4
Q

GI procedures in the inpatient setting can perform/be performed on:

1) ASA __-__
2) BMI policies vary but many state > ___ (class III) and some > ___
3) Complex procedures even ________ approach
4) ERCPs requiring deeper sedation and ______
5) ____ procedures and ____ cases
6) Cases requiring general anesthetics and intubation
7) Endoscopic ultrasound _____ (EUS) procedures

A
1 - 1-4
2 - >45, >50
3 - percutaneous 
4 - intubation
5 - longer, prone
7 - guided
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5
Q

Pre-Evaluation for GI Procedure:

1) What BMI is acceptable?
2) Are sleep apnea patients acceptable?
3) Risk of ______ exists. Some proceduralists want ____ before EGD.
- colonoscopy preps are sometimes not finished until hours before procedure
- deep sedation more than moderate/conscious sedation increases risk d/t loss of _______
4) Bloodwork: based on ______ (not routinely done unless indicated)

A

1 - varies
2 - yes
3 - aspiration - Bicitra - reflexes
4 - comorbidities

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6
Q

GI procedures in the outpatient setting can perform/be performed on:

1) ASA __-__
2) BMI ____
3) _____ EGDs, ______ colonoscopies, and ______
4) Increasingly seeing CRNA only practices in outpatient GI clinics
5) Large volume of procedures in short amount of time - rapid turnover and discharge expected

A

1 - 1-3
2 - <45
3 - simple, screening, doubles

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7
Q

GI endoscopic equipment includes a fiberoptic scope w/ extra lumens for _____ and _____ devices/wires, air ____ and _____ buttons, irrigation and washing, suction traps for ______.

A
biopsy
treatment
pressure
suction
biopsies
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8
Q

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) Indications:

  1. ______ pain
  2. ______
  3. ulcers
  4. ______
  5. dysphagia
  6. esophageal ________ with _____
  7. food bolus
  8. Halo for ______
  9. stent for ______
  10. ___ insertion
  11. EUS w/ biopsy
  12. double balloon
    - Etc.
A
  1. abdominal
  2. reflux/GERD
  3. ulcers
  4. H. pylori
  5. dysphagia
  6. esophageal strictures w/ dilation
  7. food bolus
  8. Barret’s esophagus
  9. gastric stenosis
  10. PEG
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9
Q

Outpatient EGD Indications:

  1. _____ problems - not screening based
  2. _______ pain
  3. ______
  4. Evaluating
    -
    -
    -
    - _____ response to treatment
  5. biopsies for ____
A
  1. diagnosing
  2. abdominal
  3. dysphagia
  4. Evaluating
    • GERD,
    • NV,
    • blood in GI tract
    • gastric ulcer response to treatment
  5. H pylori bacteria
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10
Q

Anesthesia Equipment for EGD:

1) _____ setup at bedside
2) ____ ____ for airway rescue if necessary (usually no anesthesia machine)
3) _____ at bedside but typically not needed - may be shared w/ GI equipment cart
4) ______ ______ since 2011 (new standard)

A

1 - GETA (laryngoscope, ETT)
2 - ambu bag
3 - suction
4 - ETCO2 monitor (capnography)

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11
Q

Side stream ETCO2-measuring nasal cannula is ________! Document ETCO2 detection w/ ____ not _____ value.

A
required
plus sign (+)  - not number value (inaccurate d/t contaminated sample)
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12
Q

ETCO2 monitoring is a standard of practice per AANA and ASA for ______ to _____ sedation. Malpractice coverage is based on accepted standards of practice.

A

moderate to deep

Standard 9: Ventilation: continuously monitor ventilation by clinical observation and confirmation of continuous expired CO2 during moderate sedation, deep sedation, or GA…….

*enhances safety - not just relying on O2 sat which is often a late response

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13
Q

Various GI Societies:

2012: Universal adoption of capnography for moderate sedation in adults undergoing endoscopy and colonoscopy has NOT been shown to improve patient safety or clinical outcomes and significantly increases costs for moderate sedation - currently no data that supports ASA’s recommendation for use of capnography during endoscopic procedures in adults where moderate sedation is targeted.
2018: New Guideline - capnography has been demonstrated to detect depressed respiratory activity before transient hypoxemia, but a clear link between transient hypoxemia and serious cardiopulmonary unplanned events during sedated endoscopy has NOT been establish. Integrating capnography into patient monitoring protocols for endoscopic procedures w/ _____ sedation has NOT been shown to improve patient safety; however, there is evidence supporting its use in procedures targeting ____ sedation.

A

moderate
deep

**they distinguish moderate from deep sedation but from an anesthesia perspective, they are both MAC sedation and require ETCO2 monitoring

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14
Q

Medicare Definitions of Sedation: Slide 19

Monitored Anesthesia Care (MAC): Indications for MAC depend on the nature of the procedure, patient’s clinical condition, and/or the potential need to convert to a general or regional anesthetic

  1. ________ sedation/analgesia is included in MAC.
  2. W/ ____ sedation/analgesia, a drug induced depression of consciousness during which patients cannot be easily aroused but respond purposefully following repeated or painful stimulation.

The ability to independently maintain ventilatory function may be impaired - patients may require assistance in maintaining a patent airway and spontaneous ventilation may be inadequate.

  1. ________ sedation/analgesia: a drug induced depression of consciousness during which patients can respond to verbal commands either alone or accompanied by light tactile stimulation
  2. __ _____ are required to maintain a patient airway and spontaneous ventilation is adequate. CMS & ASA does NOT define moderate or conscious sedation as ________.
  3. ______ : drug induced state during which patients respond normally to verbal commands. Although cognitive function and coordination may be impaired, ventilator and cardiovascular functions are unaffected…again, not anesthesia
A
  1. deep anesthesia/analgesia
  2. deep anesthesia/analgesia
  3. Moderate
  4. NO interventions
    • anesthesia
  5. minimal sedation

Slide 19

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15
Q

Review slide 20 - Becker’s GI & Endoscopy guidelines for sedation/anesthesia

  1. All pts undergoing endoscopic procedures should be evaluated to assess their risk of sedation related to ________.
  2. Use a combo of an ____ & ____ for a safe and effective regimen for achieving minimal to moderate sedation for upper endoscopy and colonoscopy in pts without risk factors for adverse events related to sedation.
  3. In certain clinical circumstances, practitioners should also use an agent like ______, ____, or ____ in combo with conventional sedative drugs.
  4. Providers should undergo specific training in administering endoscopic sedation. Providers should have the necessary skills for the dx and mngt of sedation related adverse events, including rescue from a level of sedation deeper than intended.
A
  1. pre-existing medical decisions
  2. opioid and benzo
  3. diphenhydramine, promethazine, or droperidol
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16
Q

8 guidelines for sedation and anesthesia in GI endoscopy continued…

  1. Routine monitoring of _____, ____, and ______ in addition to clinical observation for cardiopulmonary status changes during all endoscopic procedures under sedation. Providers should consider ______ administration for mod. sedation, during deep sedation and if hypoxemia is anticipated or develops
  2. Consider _______ monitoring for patients undergoing endoscopy targeting deep sedation
  3. Consider anesthesia provider-administered sedation for patients with multiple ________ or risk of ________ during complex endoscopic procedures.
  4. Endoscopists should use _____ based sedation when it is expected to improve patient safety, comfort, procedural efficiency and successful completion of the procedure.
A
  1. blood pressure, oxygen saturation, heart rate
    - supplemental oxygen
  2. capnography
  3. cormorbidities, airway compromise
  4. propofol
17
Q

Points from the 2018 GI Sedation Guidelines:

1) Balanced sedation using benzos, opioids, and smaller amount of Propofol (moderate sedation) administered by ____, shown to be safe & effective.
2) Anesthesia provider-administered sedation is more expensive (large amounts of Propofol) and does ___ result in improved safety.
3) Higher _____ risks with deep sedation administered by anesthesia providers compared to lighter sedation via –endoscopists-directed propofol by RNs.
4) Anesthesia providers are _____ for more complex and/or long procedures, deep sedation, ASA IV &V, high tolerance patients.
5) Despite no safety benefit, use of anesthesia providers continue to _____ for low-risk endoscopy and colonoscopy procedures - use of anesthesia providers appears to be associated with ______ practices

A
1 - RN
2 - NOT
3 - aspiration
4 - needed
5 - increase - reimbursement
18
Q

Who cares about moderate vs. deep anesthesia?

Medicare defines the difference: ______ models can be influenced by sedation differences and ______ drives decisions about who should do GI anesthesia.

GI societies care: 2018 GI Endoscopy Guideline Position Statement addresses sedation - it also recommends what they think is safest and most cost-effective sedation.

A

reimbursement, reimbursement

19
Q

EGD Anesthetic Technique:

1) You are sharing the _____ with the endoscope. If masking is needed, the procedure must be temporarily ________.
2) Assess bite block placement - propofol _____ may displace prior to scope insertion.
3) Timing is crucial to avoid _____ and ______ - you want to ensure the ___ ____ is eliminated prior to procedure.
4) GOAL: eliminate ____ WITHOUT eliminating ______
5) Administer systemic _______ (suppresses cough some)
6) Cetacaine spray??
7) ______ can help prevent gag/cough/bucking but use w/ caustion.

A

airway - interrupted

yawn

coughing, bucking, gag reflex

gag, respirations

lidocaine

fentanyl

20
Q

Using cetacaine spray during EGD can be problematic:

1) It can cause _______.
2) The aerosolized version can cause potential _____ from the hot scope light.

There is a non-aerosolized form of benzocaine hurricane spray that can be squirted into the back of the patient’s throat instead of the spray.

A

methemoglobinemia

FIRE (no risk w/ the non-aerosolized form)

21
Q

LONGER EGD are required for multiple _____, burning _____, clipping ____ _____, and Barrett’s treatment.

A

biopsies
ulcers
bleeding tissues

22
Q

EGD complications include:

1) ______ after polyp removal or biopsy
2) ______ of esophagus (possibly d/t coughing)
* perforation & bleeding more common during _____ sedation.
3) ______: most important sedation related complication - can be d/t _____ and/or actively ______
4) _______ damage
5) ____, ____, ____, ____ damage

A
1 - bleeding
2 - perforation - propofol
3 - aspiration - vomiting, bleeding
4 - laryngopharyngeal damage
5 - tooth, lip, mouth, tongue
23
Q

EGD Anesthetic Technique Pearls

1) Once beyond the larynx, _____ anesthesia is required.
2) _____ based on biopsies - do not want to over sedate.
3) Run the O2 flows up to ___-___L/min (nasal burns, ulcerations can occur) - during _____ events, the higher O2 flows keeps the patient oxygenated (but poor ventilation).
4) Know your GI doctors and the difference in their _____ and procedures. Some GI doctors will check before starting but others proceed w/out checking w/ you.
5) Using only Propofol sedation keeps patients rolling into and out of PACU _____

A

1 - LESS
2 - timing
3 - 6-10 L/min - apneic
4 - timing - some docs may use a lot of lube which can cause more coughing/gagging
5 - rapidly (Fort uses lidocaine & propofol)

24
Q

Outpatient Colonoscopy Indications:

1) Age 50 colorectal cancer ______ to detect & _____ potentially cancerous polyps (younger if family history of colorectal cancer).
2) ____ bleeding - ____ is likely but definitive diagnosis is still needed.
3) Change in ____ ____
4) ____ pain
5) Unresolved _____
6) evaluation of _____ or ______
7) _____ mass for resection

A
1 - screening - biopsy
2 - rectal - hemorrhoids 
3 - bowel habits
4 - diverticular 
5 - diarrhea
6 - Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis 
7 - tattooing
25
Q

Colonoscopy Anesthetic Technique:

1) Will NOT require diminishing the ___ ____ - coughing and bucking are _____
2) can produce greater ____ for the patient from pressure/blowing air
3) The doctor is heading toward the cecum - staff tracks the time the cecum is reached until the end of the procedure (typically ___ minutes from the time they reach the cecum until the end unless there are polyps)
4) Some identify and remove polyps on the way in AND out, some just on the way out.
5) you can begin exam with much ____ sedation than w/ EGD - but requires ____ sedation w/ abdominal pressure/scope manipulation.

A

1 - gag reflex, uncommon
2 - discomfort
3 - 6 minutes (watch markings on scope to know when they are backing out/near end)
5 - LESS at beginning, more later

26
Q

Colonoscopy may be delayed (last longer if:

1) there are _____ _____ to remove and/or biopsy
2) poor prep
3) poor vision from bubbles - ____ added to irrigation to help
4) ____ colon
5) hard to reach ___
6) Bovie pad required for hot biopsy

A
  1. multiple polyps
    3 - simethicone
  2. spasming
  3. polyps
27
Q

Review pictures on slides 35-37.

snare technique &hot biopsy

A

snare technique & hot biopsy

28
Q

Colonoscopy Anesthetic Technique Pearls:

1) May do a brief ___ _____ before inserting endoscope - this will tell you whether the patient is deep enough to proceed.
2) Repeatedly watch the endoscope _____ - it’s unreliable to identify where you’re at in the colon.
3) Know your GI doctor & their preferences - they may be slow in, quick out or vice versa.
4) Retroflex hemorrhoid eval at the end can _____ if patient is too light.
5) Abdominal pressure required to aid in getting to cecum can be pain inducing requiring extra _____
6) Waking up w/ less than ___ cm of scope is not a problem - don’t give more propofol - whisper that the procedure is ending and to remain still and they will be still.

A
1 - digital exam
2 - markings
4 - stimulate 
5 - propofol
6 - <20 cm
29
Q

Colonoscopy Complications:

1) _____ d/t pressure to aid in preventing loops on way to cecum (most of the time, you never treat - just tell doctor)
2) _____ colon from large loops in colon
3) _______: air under pressure fills stomach causing vomiting of gastric contents; prolonged colonoscopy w/ large amounts of air travels up through GI tract
4) ___ especially from long procedures requiring a lot of pressure for cecum destination

A

1 - vagal
2 - perforated colon
3 - aspiration
4 - pain

30
Q

Positioning for endoscopy:

___ ____ position regardless of colonoscopy or EGD

NO _____/_____ roll required.

Slight ___ ___ for EGDs and colonoscopy to aid in _____ prevention.

Knees slightly ____.

A

left lateral

no chest/axillary roll

head up - aspiration

bent

31
Q

Most Common Drugs Used During Endoscopy:

1) Levsin IV Push: ______, ______ (dosage per GI doc)
2) Glucagon IV Push: GI ____ _____ _____ (dose usually __mg IV push)
3) Robinul IV Push: GI ______, _______ (__-__ mg IV push given prior to procedure to dry oral cavity)
4) Simethicone irrigation: reduces ___ _____ (given by endoscopist through endoscope to increase visualization)

A

1 - anticholinergic, antispasmodic
2 - smooth muscle relaxant - 1 mg
3 - anticholinergic, antisialogogue - 0.2-0.4 mg
4 - gas bubbles

32
Q

Sleep apnea patients are challenging but manageable. You can use a ____ ____ w/ endoscope through cut hole but can be difficult and most doctors do not like that.

There is a specific ____ w/ bag and _____measurement available.

_____ is also an option, but secretions may necessitate Robinul first.

A

face mask
CPAP - ETCO2
ketamine

33
Q

Will high flow O2 help us during EGD? (Review)

  1. Oxygen flows of __ L/min nasal prongs increased the period of saturation greater than 95% in obese patients.
  2. Preoxygenation immediately ____ to endoscopy scope insertion.
  3. Saturation can remain high until ____________.
  4. Some studies use 5 L/min some have used 10 L/min via nasal cannula. BEWARE: Patients report nasal passage___, ____, ____ with too high of flows

Some use high flow nasal cannula (HFNC) delivering oxygen up to 70 L/min.

A

Slide 45-46 are review of apneic oxygenation in man (study) and apneic mass flow of oxygen diagram.

  1. 5
  2. prior
  3. redistribution of propofol
  4. burn, ulceration, irritation
34
Q

Endoscopic ultrasound (EUS) and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) procedures can become _____ but most are under 30 minutes.

These may require multiple _____ w/ differing specimen processing which can prolong the procedure.

These are mostly performed under ____ ____.

EUS patients can benefit from ____ to control post-op pain if multiple biopsies are taken.

A

lengthy

biopsies

deep sedation

fentanyl

35
Q

Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) can be a lengthy procedure).

It is most often performed in ____ positioning (some perform in supine). It can be done under ____ _____ or ____ _____.

You may or may not administer opioids before or after ____ testing.

A spy glass can be utilized for ___ ____ exploration (smaller scope - long procedure).

A

prone
deep sedation, tracheal intubation

pressure

bile duct

36
Q
  1. _____ is the goal (especially outpatient).
  2. GI docs have double digit cases to do so slow recovery means ____ cases.

Quick evals, quick asleep, quick awake, quick report in recovery is the expectation.

  1. Our goal is to ensure the ____ of our patient as we provide sedation.
A
  1. SPEED
  2. delayed
  3. SAFETY
37
Q

Flexible sigmoidoscopy is a procedure from the rectum to the _____ - it usually only lasts a few _____ and requires very LITTLE sedation.

A

sigmoid

seconds

38
Q

REMEMBER:

1) You’re an anesthesia provider and delivering anesthesia so use ______.
2) You are the only one who can completely manage the patient’s ______.
3) You are the safest and most cost-effective sedation option they have.
4) The _____ start and recovery requires anesthesia providers.

A

1 - capnography
2 - airway
4 - fastest