Anesthesia Techniques for EP Lab Flashcards

1
Q

Cardiac Electrophysiology lab began in the late 1960s as a _____ specialty to identify arrhythmogenic foci. It then evolved into ____ for cardiac conduction defects:

  • catheter ablations of _______
  • device management for bradyarrhythmias (_____) and tachyarrhythmias (________)

It is the fastest growing subspecialty in the field of cardiology. (revenue producing)

A

diagnostic
treatment

tachyarrhythmias
brady - pacemakers
tachy - ICD implantation for lethal tachyarrythmias

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2
Q

Anesthesia is now involved as procedures are more complex and offsite.

______ duration require patients to remain motionless (complex a-fib cases can be 6-8 hours!)

Patients have more ______ and higher _____.

Arrhythmias are now sought & provoked - mapped/identified to fix the problem.

*Published studies addressing EP & Anesthesia are lacking.

A

**patients are typically cardiac unstable so can be tense environment.

LONGER duration

comorbidities/higher acuity - they depend on anesthesia to artificially prop up hemodynamically

**every cardiologist wants a different anesthetic setup - this lecture is just the basics.

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3
Q

Review Pacemaker AP vs. Ventricular AP on slide 5:

Remember that ____ and ____ have a lot to due w/ APs and that nodal tissue is very different than ventricular tissue.

Electrophysiologists can fix nodal, ventricular, or both.

A

K+, Ca++

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4
Q

Autonomic Neurohormonal Influences:

1) ______ is sensitive to autonomic NTs (which effect autonomic tone). _____ tissue is MOST affected. Changes in autonomic tone affect cardiac _____ and impacts ____.
2) PSNS: _____ directly impacts nodal tissue - _____ rate, contractility, and propagation of electrical impulse. _______ can also affect this (tell surgeon before you give).
3) Sympathetic: ______ directly impacts nodal tissue via ___ __ - _____ rate, contractility, and propagation of electrical impulses. If the patient is too light, this may come into play.

A

1 - Calcium - nodal tissue - conduction, rhythm

2 - acetylcholine - decreased - antimuscarinics

3 - norepinephrine via beta 1 - increases

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5
Q

There are 3 primary mechanisms of arrhythmias:

1) ______ most common cause of _______ (the current jumps to an accessory pathway and then back).
2) Abnormal _______ less common (i.e. cells spontaneously firing)
3) ______ activity

A

1 - reentry - tachyarrhythmias (electrical signal comes down the normal path, hits ischemic tissue/block, and jumps to alternate path)
2 - automaticity
3 - triggered activity

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6
Q

Reentry Mechanisms:

1) Circuit pathways are initiated between different connected tissues within regions of myocardium.
- Normal current enters refractory tissue and then jumps to an ______ pathway then enters refractory tissue and jumps BACK into normal conduction pathway.
- The abnormal routing of electrical signals in endocardial tissue are near ____ and ____ walls.
- The GOAL is to stimulate a foci ____/_____ node and work ____ tissue until duplicated in a process of elimination to identify problematic tissue.

2) Newly created _____ pathways or _____ pathways (WPW)
3) Different conduction _____ and _____ times.

A

1 - accessory pathway
atrial and ventricular walls
above/around node - working down

2 - micro-circuit pathways, anatomical

3 - velocities, refractory times

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7
Q

_____ and ____ ______ are 2 common treatments in the EP lab.

A

ablations of tachyarrhythmias

device implantation

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8
Q

Ablations for tachyarrhythmias can include:

1) _____: normal QRS: AVNRT (atrial ventricular nodal reentry tachycardia), A-flutter, SVT, WPW
2) _____: normal QRS: a-fib, MAT (multiple atrial tach)
3) _____ ____: Vtach, SVT w/ BBB or aberrant conduction pathway

A

regular
irregular (*ablation for A-fib is about 50% effective)
wide QRS

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9
Q

Device implantations can include:

1) Cardiac _____ _____: cardiomyopathy (RV or LV) & poor LV function
2) ____ ______: symptomatic bradyarrhythmias & heart block
3) ____: prevent lethal arrhythmias in patients w/ severely reduced LV function
4) Implantation of ____ _____ in left atrial appendage

A

1) cardiac resynchronization therapy (CRT) - heart is out of sync, leads to low EF, low BP
2) permanent pacemaker (PPM)
3) ICD
4) Watchman Device - used in patients who can’t take blood thinners - stops up the appendage to keep blood from clotting

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10
Q

EP Lab Setup:

1) Multiple fluoroscopy arms & multiple large screen displays - HIGH levels of _____ exposure.
2) ______ mapping screens
3) ___ lead EKG (EGM) screens
4) Intra-cardiac ______ (ICE) screens
5) Computer and electrical ____ wires & machines

A
1 - radiation
2 - electroanatomic mapping
**can change w/ varying respirations/coughing/bucking - makes surgeon mad (have to remap to avoid ablating wrong area)
3 - 12 lead
4 - echocardiography 
5 - mapping
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11
Q

The EP lab is a _______ _____ anesthesia location. There is not as much access to the patient, and we may not have our normal equipment.

Slide 13 for more info.

A

non-operating room

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12
Q

Pre-procedure Evaluation:

1) Most have damaged conduction systems from a damaged heart. The patient will have a 12-lead EKG _____ and _____ assessment.
2) ______ results including ___ ____ and ___ function.
3) _____ studies (many are _____)
4) Use of anti-hypertensive agents including ___ ____ that may affect rhythm.

A

1 - conduction, arrhythmias
2 - echocardiographic - EF and valve
3 - coagulation (anticoagulated)
4 - beta-blockers

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13
Q

Anesthesia Monitoring in EP Lab (Similar to Typical Anesthesia Monitoring)

1) _____, ____ ___, ______, and ____-______ ____ (4)
2) ____ ____ if hemodynamically instability is expected (& for frequent blood draws).
3) ____ if frequent blood draw & secure access is required (used less frequently).
4) Esophageal temperature monitoring for ____ ablations - may require frequent adjustment of probe.

A

1 - 5-lead EKG, pulse ox, capnography, non-invasive BP
2 - art line
3 - CVL
4 - a-fib

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14
Q

EP Procedure:

1) Access via ____, ____, _____, or ____ VEIN to RIGHT side of heart.

2) Access via _____ ARTERY to LEFT heart or _____ VEIN to RIGHT heart.
- _____ access across aortic valve
- _____ puncture from right to left atrium using fluoroscopic guidance

3) ______required d/t prothrombotic nature of procedure.
- _____ infusions & frequent activated clotting times (ACT) > ____ seconds preferred.
- We may or may not be performing the ACTs

4) Separate ______ catheter probe inserted to identify chambers.
5) Various catheters positioned to identify ablation targets for mapping.

A

1 - femoral (*most common), SC, brachial, IJ veins

2 - femoral artery for LEFT heart, femoral vein for RIGHT heart

  • retrograde access
  • transseptal puncture

3 - anticoagulation
- heparin
> 300 seconds

4 - ultrasound

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15
Q

Ablation Electrode Catheter Location & Placement:

1) _____ identifies catheter position inside of cardiac chambers.
2) _____ provides intra-cardiac chamber view for precise location. It can capture right to left transeptal puncture * detect entrance of intra-chamber ____.
3) _____ _____ _____ (ACL): 3 ____ on chest/back forms a matrix surrounding cardiac chambers & uses electrical impedance for location. Catheter location can be pinpointed to w/in __mm of accuracy. This prevents having to use fluoroscopy.
4) ____ _____ image of the heart chamber.

A

1 - fluoroscopy
2 - ICE (intra-cardiac echo) - AIR
3 - advanced cardiac location: magnets - 1 mm (new w/in 5 years - being used more now b/c way less radiation)
4 - 3D mapping

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16
Q

Mapping points are aligned using computer coordinates from heart ___ or ____.

Red is ____ to electrical activity (see picture on slide 21)

A

CT or MRI

red is dead (ablated points)
purple (slower conduction)

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17
Q

Inducing arrhythmias is also known as _______.

Induction, identification, and mapping of the arrhythmia is the goal. This is accomplished by:

1) ____ _____ at various fixed cycle lengths

2) _____ _____ ______:
- 8 beat heart rate at 100 bpm followed by premature beats
- premature beats move closer to refractory period until arrythmia is stimulated
- induces both supraventricular and ventricular beats
- electrical impulse signal can identify alternative conduction pathway

3) _____ infusion: ______ is the most commonly used. It is a is a CNS ______ that _____ MAC and _____ BIS score

A

arrhythmogenesis

1 - burst pacing

2 - programmed electrical stimulation

3 - catecholamine - isoproterenol (CNS simulant - increased MAC, and elevates BIS)

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18
Q

Thermoablation (HEAT) Procedure:

______ energy is the treatment of choice. It is delivered to the identified tissue. The electrode contacts tissue forming a _____. They then heat tissue around the ____ ____ creating a circular scar (to prevent afferent impulses). The lesions stop irregular beats by creating a __-____ _____ in tissues with abnormal electrical activity.

These catheter electrodes are _______ - the damaged tissue can ____.

Lesion size is controlled by power, _____, and _____ of RF.

A
radiofrequency (RF)
lesion
pulmonary vein
non-conductive barrier 
prothrombotic - clot 
power, temp, duration
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19
Q

Heat Ablation Catheter Specifics:

1) Monitor for electrical _____ of blood & tissue. Assess adequacy of electrode-tissue contact. Monitoring is deficient in its ability to accurately assess lesion ____.

2) The catheter tip electrode is cooled w/ saline to decrease tissue damage:
- ____ cc for every ___ dot burn made
- reduces _____ and _____ formation on tip
- may require ____ at end of procedure if a lot is given
- _____ can be caused by temps exceeding ___F at electrode-tissue interface
- A rise in electrical impedance inhibits the ability to ____ tissue.

A

1 - impedance (tissue may stick to catheter and cause impedance/false reading)
- DEPTH (can burn a hole straight through the chamber - can cause pericardial effusion)

2 - 14 cc for every blue dot

  • impedance and coagulum
  • Lasix (may use up to 1500 cc - may cause overload)
  • thrombus - 100 F
  • ablate
  • tip also needs to be cool to decrease likelihood of puncturing chamber.
20
Q

______ uses cold (lower than ___degree) temps w/ ____ lesions created.

It is considered SAFER than heat b/d heat can burn and injure the ____ _____ transmission to the point where it is unrecoverable.

There are normally ___ pulmonary veins feeding the heart. Sometimes accessory branches feeding the heart may also requiring ablating.

A

cryoablation - <30 degrees - larger

phrenic nerve
*can be easy to hit on accident - must monitor - damage can result in diaphragm injury (can’t extubate)

4 pulm veins

21
Q

Cryoablation Procedure:

1) Catheter tip w/ _____ _____ is inserted into each pulmonary vein ONE at a time.
2) The balloon is inflated w/ refrigerant to “freeze” tissue which causes the tissue to stop ______.
3) Cryo balloon makes contact w/ pulm. vein creating a _____ _____.
4) _____ of the pulmonary vein does occur when the balloon is inflated.

A

inflatable balloon

conducting

circular scar

occlusion

22
Q

Pacing the Phrenic Nerve During Cryoablation:

  • Testing of phrenic nerve when ____ pulm. veins are cryoablated.
  • Almost CONTINUOUS phrenic nerve pacing when _____ pulm. vein.
  • Pacing assesses phrenic nerve function _____ pulm. vein.
  • _____ to _____ indicates phrenic nerve is stunned. Nerve transmission reoccurs after nerve rewarms. It can take minutes to hours for transmission to return to pre-cryo function.
  • Phrenic pacing is NOT necessary w/ ___ pulm. veins as they are away from the phrenic nerve.
A

**May be asked to reverse NMBA so they can find where it is to pace.

RIGHT
ABOVE
BELOW
failure to capture

LEFT

23
Q

Implications for Cryoablation:

1) ___ _____ to allow for continuous phrenic nerve testing
2) will have to ____ anesthetic to keep patient motionless. This may require ___ support w/ Neo, vasopressin, Epi to maintain acceptable ___.
3) _____ and ____ will be affected when balloon is INFALTED.
4) Pacing phrenic nerve can interfere significantly w/ ______. It can also move ____ and cause _____ which can alter EP ____.

A

1 - NO paralytic
2 - deepen, BP, BP (**freezing is painful/stimulating)
3 - ETCO2 & BP
4 - ventilation, ETT, coughing, map

24
Q

External Epicardial Ablation Procedure:

1) 2 fly swatter paddles are used and applied to ______ region outside of heart. They enter through the ______ area.
2) ____ moves to inside of heart.

Long-term ____ can be correct.

A

epicardial
subxiphoid

ablation

A-fib

25
Q

Post-Ablation Procedure/Testing:

This is a trial to induce arrhythmias using: (3)

A

burst pacing
programmed electrical stimulation
catecholamine infusion (Isopril)

**same as before

26
Q

There is very little research regarding anesthesia’s effect on arrhythmogenicity.

Patients w/ _____ conditions w/ potential _____ _____ can affect our choice of anesthetic agent. They may require artificial support of the CV system.

GOAL: ____ anesthesia footprint BUT prevent moving, coughing, bucking.

A

comorbid - hemodynamic instability

small

27
Q

SUPRAVENTRICULAR tachyarrhythmias ablations require/prefer as _____ an anesthetic footprint as possible at the START of the procedure for:

  • induction/identification of arrhythmia
  • theorized that a deeper level of anesthetic impairs induction of arrhythmia
  • some cardiologists prefer ____ _____ over GA.

Then a _____ level of anesthesia after arrhythmia induction.

  • NO movement preferred during ____ and _____ of arrhythmias.
  • coughing/bucking can lose map and require remapping.
A

LIGHT at start

  • some may want moderate sedation
  • deep anesthesia CAN impair SVT/arrhythmias from coming forward - esp. volatiles)

DEEP
mapping, ablation

28
Q

V-TACH ablations require ____ anesthetic at the START during induction of arrhythmias. The patient may not even be able to tolerate _____ anesthesia. Avoid ______ at beginning for phrenic nerve identification to avoid ablating.

Many w/ V-tach dysrhythmias have significant ____ _____: ischemic/non-ischemic cardiomyopathies, LV dysfunction, decompensated cardiac function w/ hemodynamic instability. Symptomatic ventricular ectopy may not be tolerated.

**There are varying opinions regarding GA effect on inducibility of V-TACH arrhythmias. One source says GA does NOT affect inducibility of VT.

A

lighter at start
deeper
paralytic

heart disease

29
Q

V-TACH ablations:

  • _____ ARTERY access up to left side of heart
  • _______ access is more painful requiring deeper sedation
  • GREATER risks of myocardial ______, ______, and _____. An art line is preferred when unstable and for frequent blood sampling.
A
  • femoral
  • pericardial
  • perforation, effusion, tamponade
30
Q

ATRIAL FIB ablations are _____ and more _____ procedures (6-8 hours) - these require greater time for catheter placement, mapping, and ablation procedure.

A-fib is 90% ____ side while a-flutter is mostly ____ side but could be both.

A ____ is performed prior to procedure to identify ____.
____ _____ is REQUIRED.
__-__ weeks of ______ required prior to cardioversion OR ablation.

A

longer and more complex

FIB: left
FLUTTER: right (flutter is in a continuous loop)

TEE - clots (*if clots found, ablation is postponed so pt. can start anticoagulation therapy)
tracheal intubation
3-4 anticoagulation

31
Q

ATRIAL FIB Ablation:

1) _____ must be timed based on phrenic nerve identification.
2) The ablation of the posterior wall of the atria is in close proximity to the ______ wall - ____ _____ REQUIRED even if LMA is used & can be monitored by cardiologist. Excessive heat can perforate!
3) _____ has been successful - minimizes cardiac movement. However, _____ is required d/t unreliability of volatile anesthetics.

A

1 - paralytic
2 - esophageal - esophageal temp probe (can cause atrio-esophageal fistula & food/contents can get directly in heart)
3 - high frequency jet ventilation (HFJV) - short bursts of breaths; PROPOFOL required

32
Q

Biosense electrophysiology catheter w/ auto ID technology allows for precision movement of _____ ____ ____ and allows the cardiologist to watch where it is at all times. **NO fluoroscopy is necessary.

A

esophageal temp probe

33
Q

Device Implantation:

BIVENTRICULAR pacemakers have a ____ generator and ___ leads: ___, ____, and ____ (which allows for pacing of LV).

The coronary sinus is in close proximity to the ____ ____. It is _____/_____ aspect of the LV. Too high voltage on LV pacer lead will stimulate the phrenic nerve causing diaphragmatic ______. Initially, NMBs should NOT be used to allow for phrenic assessment.

  • 3-lead procedure more lengthy than 2-lead procedure.
  • Population usually display significant heart failure w/ low EF.
A

pulse, 3 leads: RA, RV, coronary sinus

phrenic nerve - posterior/lateral aspect of LV - hiccup

don’t want them hiccupping when they are walking around being paced later lol

34
Q

ICD implantation requires _____ anesthesia d/t testing of device - ____ w/ LMA or ETT is preferred.

3rd ____ ____ pacer lead is inserted near the ____ _____ (can have ____ ____ pacing via the 3rd lead).

Testing involves R on T using ventricular lead to induce ____ and ____. The ICD is triggered to deliver a shock which should terminate the arrhythmia. An external pacer is used as backup if the device fails.

A

deeper - GA

coronary sinus - phrenic nerve - phrenic nerve pacing

V-tach, V-fib

35
Q

SICD (subcutaneous) can be used if no _____ is needed. The generator is at the ___ area. Electrodes are NOT inserted via the central venous system (fewer complications). The electrode is tunneled from the _____ up to the mid chest region. The current path is from the chest lead down to the generator.

A

pacing
V5
xiphoid

36
Q

LMA vs. ETT

Constant ____ ____ & _____ preferred for mapping & ablations. Variable ____ affect intrathoracic pressure & heart movement (cardiac chamber size, catheter contact points may be affect - better catheter/contact under GA).

Cardiologist may ask for temporary _____ in rest. rate and volume (gating). EP will watch thoracic movement during respiration to see catheter movement and variations in mapping points. It also ______ the heart chambers and enhances mapping point precision & accuracy.

**Most prefer ____ Vt and ___ w/ higher ____ b/c it decreases movement w/ respirations.

A

respiration rate and volume preferred (variations affect precision)

rates -

temp. increase in rate/volume
expands

small Vt/RR w/ higher PEEP

37
Q

GA vs. MAC

____ ____ w/ MAC can add motion to map.

_____ is shown to reduce procedure time and improve outcomes. It also improves catheter stability and mapping precision.

1 year ablation outcomes for A-fib:

  • sedation: 70% freedom from arrhythmia
  • GETA: 90% freedom from arrhythmia
A

airway obstruction

GETA

38
Q

Effects of OPIOIDS:

  • vagotonic produce _____ (esp. _____)
  • Ca++ current _____ via K+ channels ______ action potentials
  • may ____ QT interval & nodal recovery time
  • Remifentanil has a short half-life but ____ SA and AV node conduction (hinders induction of tachyarrhythmias and conduction measurements).
A

bradycardia - fentanyl
reduction, prolongs
prolong
slows

39
Q

Effects of DEXMEDATOMIDINE (Precedex):

______ SA & AV node function!!!

______ norepi release (may cause transient _____ OR _____)

Enhanced ____ tone = ______

Anti-arrhythmogenic effects make it _______

A

Reduced SA/AV node function
decreases - hypo or hypertension
vagal tone = bradycardia
non-preferred!

40
Q

Effects of KETAMINE:

_______ effects can _____ HR/BP

*little evidence exists on cardiac conduction effects - some centers report successful sedation given in low-dose infusions.

A

sympathomimetic - increase

no problems w/ inducing arrhythmias

41
Q

Effects of BENZOS:

Some degree of autonomic _____.

Vaso_____ leads to ____ SVR.

_____ myocardial contractility.

Effect on cardiac conduction is NOT known

*Typically stay away from these - it can have synergistic effects with volatiles on diminishing hemodynamics in a population that’s has a fragile hemodynamic state

A

suppression
dilation - decreased
reduced

42
Q

Effects of Volatile Inhalational Anesthetics:

There is conflicting evidence regarding AEs - clinical significance is minimal.

Cardiac conduction is _____, _____ QT, _____ contractility and automaticity of secondary atrial pacer is ______.

Using gas can cause more difficult cases & poorer outcomes than using TIVA - general consensus is that volatiles should not be used for these cases.

  • _______ suppression of SVT re-entrant tachycardia
  • _________ shortens atrial action potential and refractory
  • ________ minimal effect on conduction of AV, SA, & accessory pathway; causes autonomic suppression, prolongs QT and action potential which may affect arrhythmogenicity.
A

altered, prolonged, reduced
enhanced

Isoflurane
Desflurane
Sevoflurane

43
Q

Effects of PROPOFOL:

Sympathetic nervous system ______ may cause _______.

May cause _____ OR _____.

No measurable effect on accessory, SA, or AV nodal pathway.

Rapid onset and recovery.

A

inhibition - hypotension
bradycardia, tachycardia

*rapid recovery unless for prolonged duration

44
Q

Effects of NMBAs:

Mild indirect effects on _____ via ____ & ____

_____-induced vasodilation is a transient effect (_____)

Rocuronium can be utilized w/out directly effecting _____.

_______ is recommended when phrenic nerve assessment is required. Stimulation allows nerve ID - maintain spontaneous ventilation to monitor nerve.

A

conduction via PSNS, SNS

histamine (atricurium)

conduction

Succs

45
Q

Complications CAN occur!

1) Transient hemodynamic _____ during arrhythmia induction
2) Cardiac ______ results in _____ w/ _____ (1-2%) - confirm w/ fluoroscopy or US catheter
3) ____ from vascular site or vascular damage, _____ (3-4%)
4) ______ heart ____ formation (1-2%)
5) Atrioesophageal fistula (0.01-0.2%) - may go undetected for ___ days (100% mortality)
6) ____ ___ injury!
7) Valvular or septal injury from catheter
8) ___ embolism w/ transeptal communication to L side of heart
9) ______ vein damage & stenosis
10) Hematoma & bleeding at vascular access (femoral/subclavian) sites
11) ______ at device pocket site
12) ______ stroke is rare but most often w/ ____ side catheters.

A
1 - instability
2 - perforation - effusion w/ tamponade 
3 - bleeding, hematoma
4 - complete heart block
5 - 3 days
6 - phrenic nerve
8 - AIR
9 - pulmonary (may increase BPs)
11 - pneumothorax 
12 - thromboembolic stroke
46
Q

Anesthesia Implications:

1) Expect to _____ w/ cardiologist & make collaborative changes. Sometimes they are busy ablating and unaware of problems developing - most important thing is ______ well w/ cardiologist & know expectations.
2) Sustained ______ unresponsive to ______ can indicate cardiac ______ w/ _______ requiring pericardiocentesis.
3) ______ is a class IB antiarrhythmic and in theory may impede arrhythmogenesis.
4) Airway access is LIMITED d/t multiple fluoroscopy arms.
5) Diligent ____ monitoring during A-fib ablations.
6) Strick measurement of fluid _____ including catheter tip saline irrigation.
7) Purge ALL IV air for patient’s undergoing _____ puncture.
8) Cardiac compromised patients w/ low EFs need LESS anesthesia - do not allow coughing or bucking or re-mapping will be necessary.
9) Keep _____ consistent to avoid intrathoracic pressure changes.
10) Know specific events in each procedure to tailor your anesthetic.
11) Anesthesia depth & other drugs can hinder arrhythmogenicity - manipulation of ___ and ___ has been considered to aid in arrhythmia induction.

A
1 -COMMUNICATE
2 - hypotension, vasopressors, perforation w/ tamponade
3 - lidocaine
5 - temperature
6 - intake 
7 - transeptal puncture 
9 - respirations (rate, Vt)
11 - Ca++ & K+