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psych classes > exam 3, chp. 6,7,8,9 > Flashcards

exam 3, chp. 6,7,8,9 Flashcards

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1
Q

juvenile delinquency

A

imprecise, social, and legal label for abroad spectrum of law, and norm-violating behavior.

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2
Q

delinquency

A

behavior against the criminal code committed by an individual who has not reached adulthood.

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3
Q

status offenses

A

a class of illegal behavior that only persons with certain characteristics or status can commit. used almost exclusively to refer to the behavior of juveniles
EX: running away from home, violating curfew, buying alcohol, or skipping school

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4
Q

family courts

A

specialized courts dealing with issues relating to families, such as divorce and child custody, orders of protection, delinquency proceedings, and guardianship

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5
Q

probate courts

A

courts that have jurisdiction over a range of civil matters, such as wills and estates, property transfers, and in some states, divorce and child custody matters

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6
Q

parental evaluations

A

referred to custody evaluations in some jurisdictions. assessment of parenting plans is also frequently used

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7
Q

child custody evaluations (CCEs)

A

assessments prepared for courts by mental health professionals to help judges make decisions in disputed custody situations

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8
Q

termination of parental rights

A

the rare judicial determination that a parent or parents is/are not fit to care for children. legal authority for the children is removed. abandonment, serious substances abuse, and severe child abuse may be reasons

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9
Q

Best interest of the child (BIC) standard

A

the legal doctrine that the parents’ legal rights should be secondary to what is best for the child

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10
Q

tender years doctrine

A

a legal assumption, derived from the traditional belief that the mother is the parent ideally and inherently best suited to care for children in the “tender age”. The doctor is no longer officially used in virtually all states, though in many others mother is presumptively given custody of the child.

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11
Q

least detrimental alternative standard

A

in custody decisions, the standard that chooses the arrangement that would case the child the least amount of harm

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12
Q

approximation rule

A

in some jurisdictions, a judge at the amount of caretaking done by each parent before making a decision on child custody

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13
Q

friendly-parent rule

A

in the child custody determinations, the rule is in some jurisdictions that preference will be given to the parent who is most likely to nurture the child’s relationship with the other parent, provided the other parent is not abusive

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14
Q

visitation risk assessments

A

evaluations provided to family courts for help in deciding whether and how often children should be allowed to visit noncustodial parents or children.

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15
Q

parental relocation

A

an increasingly frequent topic for family courts, in which they are asked to make a decision as to whether the custodial parent should be allowed to relocate the child to a geographical area away from the noncustodial parent

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16
Q

legal parent authority

A

having the authority to make legal decisions for the child, such as medical needs and child, of educational system

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17
Q

physical parental authority

A

in custody decision-making, the right to make day-to-day decisions affecting the child, such as curfew hours or whether the child can go out with friends. Compare with legal parental authority

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18
Q

sole custody

A

when one parent has both legal and physical authority and the other does not, although the noncustodial parent usually retains visitation rights

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19
Q

divided custody

A

each parent is granted legal and physical authority on a rotating basis

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20
Q

split custody

A

One or more children go with one parent and other children go to the second parent. most likely to occur when the children are far apart in age

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21
Q

joint custody

A

Both parents share legal and physical authority, but the children live predominately with one parent who will have physical authority to make the day-to-day decisions

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22
Q

plaintiff

A

a person or party who initially brings a civil suit

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23
Q

respondent

A

another term for defendant in a civil suit

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24
Q

tort

A

the legal term for a civil wrong in which a plaintiff alleges some negligence on the part of the defendant or respondent

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25
Q

injunction

A

a court order to stop or refrain from doing something, usually based on a request form a party who is allegedly harmed by the activity

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26
Q

compensatory damages

A

one reward given in civil suits to make up for the harm that the plaintiff has suffered

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27
Q

punitive damages

A

awards in civil cases that are assessed to punish the defendant or respondent for the harm caused to the plaintiff. compare with compensatory damages

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28
Q

employment compensation claims

A

claims involving physical injuries, psychological damages, or emotional distress sustained as a result of one’s employment. employers are required to insure their workers against injury while on the job

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29
Q

forensic neuropsychology

A

the application of knowledge from the neuropsychological profession to legal matters. Neuropsychology is the study of the psychological effects of brain and neurological damage and dysfunction on human behavior

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30
Q

testamentary capacity

A

the mental ability to make a will

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31
Q

MacArthur Competence Assessment Tool - Treatment (MacCAT-T)

A

used by clinicians to evaluate ability to benefit from treatment

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32
Q

advance directives

A

documents that allow persons to make advance decisions about life-sustaining procedures in the event of a terminal condition or persistent vegetative state or any other later health care decisions.

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33
Q

Medial aid in dying

A

enables persons who are terminally ill and approaching death to request help from a physician to hastening it

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34
Q

hastened death evalutions

A

in states allowing individuals to hasten their death with the help of physician-prescribed medication, these assessments may be conducted if there are questions about the patient’s capacity to make such decisions

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35
Q

outpatient treatment (OT) orders

A

court orders that allow an individual to live in their own home alternative group or foster home on condition that the individual receives mental health treatment and usually complies with a medication regimen.

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36
Q

assisted outpatient treatment (AOT)

A

court-ordered mental health treatment in the community, on the condition that a person will be hospitalized or rehospitalized if not cooperative with treatment providers

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37
Q

preventive outpatient treatment

A

court-ordered community treatment to prevent a person from becoming dangerous. A controversial option because it does not require the high standard of dangerousness needed for other involuntary civil commitment, either to an institution or to community treatment

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38
Q

sexual harrassment

A

unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other unwanted verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature.

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39
Q

gender harassment

A

a form of discrimination and sometimes recognized in sexual harassment law, it refers to persistent, unwanted comments or behavior directed at an individual because of their gender. Distinguished from sexual harassment in that it implies the harasser has no intent in sexual contact with the target of the harassment.

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40
Q

juvenile delinquent

A

one who commits an act against the criminal code and who is adjudicated delinquent by an appropriate court. Usually for people 18 and under but can sometimes be up to 21

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41
Q

conduct disorder (CD)

A

a diagnostic label used to identify children who demonstrate habitual misbehavior
ex: stealing, running away skipping school, setting fires, destroying property, fighting

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42
Q

antisocial behavior

A

any behavior that is considered a violation of social norms in society; antisocial behaviors may or may not be defined as crimes

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43
Q

antisocial personality disorder (ASP)

A

a disorder characterized by a history of continuous behavior in which the rights of others are violated

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44
Q

four categories of ASP

A
  1. aggression to people and animals
  2. destruction of property
  3. deceitfulness
  4. serious violation of rules
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45
Q

uniform crime reports (UCR)

A

a program operated by the FBI, it is the government’s main method of collecting national data on crimes reported to police and arrests

46
Q

four offenses that qualify as violent

A
  1. murder and nonnegligent
  2. rape
  3. robbery
  4. aggravated assault
47
Q

four offenses that qualify as property

A
  1. burglary
  2. larceny-theft
  3. motor vehicle theft
  4. arson
48
Q

national incident-based reporting system (NIBRS)

A

FBI’s system of collecting detailed data from law enforcement agencies on known crimes and arrests

49
Q

executive function (EF)

A

cognitive system in the brain that is “essential for successfully navigating nearly all of our daily activities”

50
Q

working memory

A

memory that keeps information in mind so it can be out to use

51
Q

cognitive flexibility

A

the ability to think about something in more than one way

52
Q

inhibitory control

A

also known as self-regulation; being able to control one’s attention, behavior, thoughts, and/or emotions to override a strong internal predisposition or external lure, and instead do what’s more appropriate or needed

53
Q

life course-persistent offenders (LCPs))

A

offenders who demonstrate a lifelong pattern of antisocial behavior and launch the child into a career of lifetime offending

54
Q

adolescent-limited offenders (ALs)

A

individuals who usually demonstrate delinquent or antisocial behavior only during their teen years and then stop offending during their young adults years

55
Q

gendered pathways approach

A

research that indicates that girls and boys or women and men develop criminal behavior in different ways

56
Q

developmental dual systems model

A

proposed by Laurence Steinberg, it refers to the difference in cognitive and emotional brain development in adolescents, making them more prone to sensation-seeking and risk-taking behavior

57
Q

social cognition

A

how people process, store, and apply interpersonal information about other people

58
Q

externalizing disorders

A

are maladaptive processes within or directed at an individual’s environment, such as acting out, antisocial behavior, deceitfulness, hostility, violations of rules and social norms, vindictiveness, and aggression
ex: conduct disorder

59
Q

internalizing disorders

A

maladaptive processes within or directed at the self, such as depression, anxiety, suicidal thoughts, low self-confidence, or low self-esteem

60
Q

attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

A

a chronic neurological condition characterized by developmental poor attention, impulsivity, and hyperactivity. More contemporary perspectives also see behavioral patterns as a deficiency in interpersonal skills

61
Q

oppositional defiant disorder (ODD)

A

a disorder whose symptoms include arguing with adults, refusing adults’ requests, deliberately trying to annoy others, blaming others, blaming others for mistakes, and being spiteful or vindictive

62
Q

inhibitory control

A

being able to control one’s attention, behavior, thoughts, and/or emotions to override a strong internal predisposition or needed

63
Q

Moffitt Developmental Theory

A

delinquency could be best understood if we viewed it as progressing along two developmental paths, one that began early in a child’s life and launched the child into a career of lifetime offending and one that was restricted to adolescence.

64
Q

pro-social behavior

A

when people act to benefit others rather than themselves. it benefits the wellbeing of the disorder

65
Q

psychopath

A

no empathy, selfishness, poor judgment, charisma, need for thrill, deceitful or lying

66
Q

soicopath

A

can feel remorse, antisocial behavior

67
Q

violence

A

physical force exerted for the purpose of inflicting injury, pain, discomfort, or abuse on a person or persons or for the purpose of damaging or destroying property

68
Q

aggression

A

behavior perpetrated or attempted with the intention of harming another individual physically or psychologically

69
Q

ethnocentrism

A

viewing others strictly through one’s own cultural perspectives often encourages people to form stereotypes and biases that limit their ability to assess and treat those from diverse backgrounds.

70
Q

instrumental violence

A

occurs when the injury of an individual is secondary to the acquisition of some other external goal of the offender

71
Q

reactive violence

A

physical violence precipitated by hostile and angry reaction to a perceived threat or dangerous situation

72
Q

neurobiological factors

A

a wide array of neurological and neurochemical influences on the brain during the life course that may result in high levels of aggressive and violent behavior.
Malnutrition in children can cause aggressive behavior

73
Q

socialization factors

A

a person learned patterns of thinking, behavior, and feeling from their early life experiences

74
Q

cognitive factors

A

ideas, beliefs, and patterns of thinking that emerge as a result of interactions with the world during a person’s lifetime

75
Q

situational factors

A

characteristics of the environment, such as stress or aggression in others, that encourage or engender violent behavior

76
Q

direct school threat

A

specifies a target and is delivered in a straightforward, clear, and explicit manner

77
Q

veiled school threat

A

strongly implies but does not explicitly threaten violence

78
Q

conditional school threat

A

suggest that harm will result if something the threat-maker wishes is not delivered.

79
Q

four types of assailant’s relationship to the workplace

A
  1. the assailant does not have a legitimate relationship to the workplace or to the victim
  2. The assailant may be a current or former client, patient, or customer
  3. The assailant has employment-related involvement
  4. indirect involvement with the workplace because of a relationship with an employee
80
Q

man slughter

A

unintended killing that results from unjustifiable conduct that places others at risk

81
Q

murder

A

unlawful killing of one human by another with malice aforethought, either expressed or implied

82
Q

spree murder

A

killing of three or more individuals without a cooling-off period, usually at two or three different locations

83
Q

mass murder

A

killing three or more persons at a single location with no cooling-off period between the killings

84
Q

serial murders

A

incidents in which an individual separately kills a number of people over time

85
Q

homicide

A

the killing of one person by another

86
Q

visionary type

A

driven by delusions or hallucinations that compel him to kill a particular group of individuals

87
Q

mission-oriented type

A

believes there is a particular group of people who are undesirable and who must be destroyed or eliminated

88
Q

hedonistic type

A

strived for particular thrills, and in the killer’s mind, people are simply objects to use for their own enjoyment

89
Q

power-control killer

A

obtains satisfaction from the absolute life-or-death control they have over the victim

90
Q

hate crime

A

criminal offenses motivated by an offender’s bias against a group to which the victim either belongs or is believed to belong

91
Q

stalking

A

conduct directed at a person that involves repeated physical proximity, nonconsensual or threats that are sufficient to cause fear in a reasonable person

92
Q

school shootings

A

school violence, including events involving guns and other weapons

93
Q

emotional intelligence

A

the ability to know how one’s own self and others are feeling and the capacity to be able to use that information to guide thoughts and actions

94
Q

Sexual violence

A

sexual act committed against someone without their consent

95
Q

sexual assualt

A

any nonconsensual sexual act proscribed by federal, tribal, or state law, including when the victim lacks capacity to consent

96
Q

rape

A

forced penetration of vaginal, anal or oral regions of the body

97
Q

statutory rape

A

unlawful sexual intercourse with a female younger than the age of consent, which may be anywhere from 12 and 18, depending on the jurisdiction and state statute. power and control

98
Q

rape by frued

A

act of having sexual relations with a consenting adult under fraudulent conditions

99
Q

date rape
(aka: acquaintance rape)

A

Sexual assault that occurs within the context of a dating or casual relationship

100
Q

typologies

A

classification systems, based on either personality or behavior patterns of individuals

101
Q

4 types of a rapist

A
  1. displaced aggressive
  2. compensatory
  3. sexual aggressive
  4. implusive
102
Q

pedophelia

A

clinical terms for sexual attraction to children. however, it may or may not result in actual child molestation or other sexual abuse

103
Q

rape myths

A

a variety of mistaken beliefs about crime of rape and its victims held by many men and women

104
Q

opportunistic rapist

A

one who engages in sexual assault simply because the opportunity to rape presents itself

105
Q

pervasively angry rapist

A

demonstrates a predominance of global and undifferentiated anger that pervades all areas of their life

106
Q

sexually motivated rapist

A

presence of protracted sexual or sadistic fantasies that strongly influence the assault

107
Q

vindictive rapist

A

offender who uses the act of rape to harm, humiliate, and degrade their victims

108
Q

psychosexual evaluations

A

assessment of sex offenders not only to decide on a treatment plan but also to gauge their likelihood of further offending

109
Q

psychosis

A

detachment from reality
- hallucinations
- delusions
- dissociation
- abnormal speech pattern
- stop taking care of themselves

110
Q

grooming

A

pertains to an in-person or online strategy of sex offenders who use various methods to integrate themselves into their targeted victim, usually a child or adolescent

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