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ED Basic School > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

(3.4.1) A software intensive system is a system in which one or more of the following is a major risk driver:

A

Development cost
Development process
Development time
System Functionality

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2
Q

(3.4.1) What are the classifications of software-intensive systems and how real-time is their data updated?

A

Weapon systems: real-time
C4ISR systems: near real-time
Defense business systems (DBS): not real-time

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3
Q

(3.4.1) Which law is the major driver in DoD software acquisition policy?

A

Clinger-Cohen Act of 1996

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4
Q

(3.4.2) What is the cost estimating approach is used when a detailed analysis of all materials is required?

A

Bottom-up/Engineering approach

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5
Q

(3.4.2) List the 3 software development models and whether they are most suited for precedented or unprecedented systems.

A

Waterfall- precedented
Incremental- unprecedented
Spiral- unprecedented

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6
Q

(3.4.2) What are the 3 categories of software metrics?

A

Process
Quality
Management

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7
Q

(3.4.2) Post-deployment software support is approximately what percentage of total LCC?

A

67%

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8
Q

(5.1.8) What preference types describe how we energize?

A

E: energy focused outward; form ideas by talking.
I: energy focused inward; reflective before sharing.

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9
Q

(5.1.8) What preference types describe how we collect data?

A

S: rely on senses; pay attention to facts and details.
N: rely on intuition; pay attention to big picture.

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10
Q

(5.1.8) What preference types describe how we evaluate?

A

T: first decision approach is objective; logical analysis.
F: first decision approach is impact on people.

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11
Q

(5.1.8) What preference types describe how we adapt?

A

J: organize life through plans and structure.
P: prefer to keep options open and flexible.

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12
Q

(3.5.7) What is the purpose of dock trials? (BDT or ABT)

A

Conducted pier-side to evaluate systems prior to getting underway for risk reduction.

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13
Q

(3.5.7) What is the purpose of builder’s trials and who presents to whom?

A

Builder’s trials is a demonstration of systems and equipment and preparation for Acceptance Trials (AT)

Shipbuilder presents to SUPSHIP

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14
Q

(3.5.7) What is the purpose of the acceptance trials and who presents to whom?

A
  • It is total ship testing to determine if the Navy should accept the ship from the shipbuilder and identifies deficiencies
  • SUPSHIP presents to INSURV
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15
Q

(3.5.7) What is the difference between Submarine SUBSAFE certification during new construction and overhaul/repair?

A

-During Overhaul/repair, NAVSEA only certifies SUBSAFE material condition of the work performed.

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16
Q

(3.5.7) When does Builder’s Dock Trials begin?

A

completed when major systems are ready for light-off and need to demonstrate system interoperability

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17
Q

(3.5.7) When do Builders Sea Trials (BST) begin and what is the purpose?

A

Vessel ready for sea is when

Purpose is to demonstrate system requiring deep water and preps acceptance trials and INSURV

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18
Q

(3.5.7) When do Acceptance Trials begin and the purpose?

A

When: Prior to acceptance and delivery
Purpose: Total ship system testing and integration

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19
Q

(3.5.7) What is special about IAT and when is the trial implemented?

A

It is a consolidated BT and AT and it is used for ships with mature production lines

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20
Q

(3.5.7) What is Final Contract Trials and when does it occur?

A

It is the trial when the CO and naval crew takes control and finds the defects from the ship-builder. (CO presents to INSURV)

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21
Q

(3.5.7) When is Shock Trials and what is the purpose?

A

When: Prior to Post-Shakedown Availability

Demonstrates capability to fight the ship.

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22
Q

(3.4.1) List weapon system software characteristics.

A
  • Software specificallydesignedfor thesystem
  • Performshighlyspecificfunction
  • Normallyembeddedintothe hardware
  • Uniqueand/orproprietary architecture
  • Safetyisprimarydesignfeature
  • real‐timedata
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23
Q

(3.5.6) Define Test and Evaluation Master Plan (TEMP).

A

TEMP provides an overall test management plan and framework within which detailed T&E plans are contained.

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24
Q

(3.5.6) Which document requires that a TEMP be produced for all programs regardless of ACAT to support Milestone decisions?

A

DoDI 5000.02

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25
Q

(3.5.6) Which documents are the PRIME source of testable parameters for OT&E?

A

CDD and CPD

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26
Q

(3.5.6) Which test is performed on prototypes to help decision makers assess the proposed concepts?

A

Early Operational Assessment (EOA).

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27
Q

(3.5.6) Which test is conducted during EMD phase to assess the system’s potential to meet mission requirements and supports a Low Rate Initial Production (LRIP) decision?

A

Operational Assessment (OA)

28
Q

(3.5.6) Which test is conducted on production or production representative articles to support a Full Rate Production Decision Review?

A

Initial Operational Test and Evaluation (IOT&E)

29
Q

(3.5.6) Which test is conducted after the system is in production and may continue throughout the lifecycle?

A

Follow-on Operational Test and Evaluation (FOT&E)

30
Q

(3.5.6) What provide the mechanism for management of technical performance risk?

A

Technical Performance Measure (TPM)

31
Q

(3.5.6) PMs must manage 3 basic program elements. What are they?

A

Cost, Schedule, Performance

32
Q

(3.5.6) TPM is an umbrella term that covers……. and ……….

A

Critical Technical Parameters (CTPs) and Critical Operational Issues (COIs). CTPs and COIs are derived from KPPs.

33
Q

(3.5.6) Who develops and coordinates CTPs?

A

PMO

34
Q

(3.5.6) Who approves CTPs?

A

MDA

35
Q

(3.5.6) Who develops COIs?

A

OTA

36
Q

(3.5.6) Who coordinates COIs?

A

PMO

37
Q

(3.5.6) Who approves COIs?

A

MDA

38
Q

(3.5.6) Which measures are assessed throughout development to help ensure successful Operational Test?

A

Measures of Effectiveness (MOEs) and Measures of Suitability (MOSs).

39
Q

(3.5.6) Which T&Es is conducted prior to Milestone B?

A

EOA, LFT&E Waiver, TEMP

40
Q

(3.5.6) Which T&Es is conducted prior to Milestone C?

A

OA, PQT&E(Pre-production)

41
Q

(3.5.6) Which T&Es is conducted prior to FRP?

A 
Interoperability Cert
PQT&E (First article)
IOT&E
LFT&E Report
BLRIP Report
42
Q

(3.5.6) Which T&Es is conducted after FRP?

A

PAT&E

43
Q

(3.5.6) What are the key differences between DT&E and OT&E?

A

Table on page 40!

44
Q

(4.1.3) What is the Navy’s fleet maintenance policy?

A

OPNAVINST 4700.7L

Maintain ships in highest practical level of readiness to meet required Ao while minimizing lifecycle costs.

45
Q

(4.1.3) What are the two maintenance principles?

A

Condition Based Maintenance

Reliability Centered Maintenance

46
Q

(4.1.3) What does federal law say about the division of Department of the Navy maintenance?

A

No less than 50% must be accomplished by public shipyards.

No more than 50% can be accomplished by private sector.

47
Q

(4.1.3) What is the exception to the 50/50 split calculation?

A

Aircraft carrier refueling (RCOH)

48
Q

(4.1.3) What are the maintenance philosophies and to what ships do they apply?

A 
Engineered Operating Cycle: 688 class
Progressive Maintenance: classes with reduced manning (LCS), ships that are forward deployed.
Phased Maintenance: LPD, LSD
Incremental Maintenance: CVN
49
Q

(4.1.5) What is NRRO and what is their primiary mission?

A

Naval Reactors Representative Office.

Reactor Safety

50
Q

(4.1.5) What programs did the Thresher accident lead to?

A

SUBSAFE

Deep Submergence Systems

51
Q

(4.1.5) What is the difference between the SUBSAFE and DSS programs?

A

SUBSAFE: preclude flooding, ensure operability of systems and components to recover from a flooding casualty
DSS: Material failure that can imperil ocupants will not occur.

52
Q

(4.1.5) What instruction did the sinking of the Guitarro lead to and when does it apply?

A

6010 Manual
Provides specific requirements for control or work and testing that affect: Bouyance, List, Trim, Watertight integrity, and Stability. (BLT WIth Salt)

53
Q

(4.1.5) What instruction came as the result of the Miami fire and when does it apply?

A

8010 Manual

All ship types in all kinds of availabilities.

54
Q

(4.1.5) What two things are needed to perform work during an availability?

A

Technical Work Document (TWD)

Authorization (WAF)

55
Q

(4.1.5) What types of systems require double barrier protection?

A

High temp, 200 F

High pressure, 1000 PSI

56
Q

(3.1.6) What is the definition of Life Cycle Cost?

A

total cost to the government of a program over its full life (cradle to grave)

57
Q

(3.1.6) What is total ownership cost?

A

TOC = Life Cycle Cost + distributed indirect cost impact on other programs

58
Q

(3.1.6) What are the 4 cost estimating techniques?

A

Analogy
Parametric
Engineering Method
Extrapolation from Actuals

59
Q

(3.1.6) When would the Analogy cost estimating technique be used?

A

very early in the life cycle - as an initial estimate

60
Q

(3.1.6) Which cost estimating technique is the most accurate? Which is the least?

A

Extrapolation from actuals - most accurate, compares cost of previous unit.
Analogy - least accurate, one-to-one comparison with similar system

61
Q

(3.1.6) What two factors must be accounted for when escalating “then year” dollars to “constant year” dollars?

A

Inflation and outlay rates

62
Q

(3.1.6) To which costs does the learning curve theory apply?

A

Labor costs for repeatable processes

63
Q

(3.1.6) Describe the learning curve theory

A

As the quantity of a product doubles, the per unit production hours decrease at a fixed rate

64
Q

(3.1.6) What is “will cost”?

A

“Funded to” level. what the program will cost without cost saving measures

65
Q

(3.1.6) What is “should cost”?

A

desired cost of program with saving initiatives

should cost = will cost + management initiatives

ED Basic School (5 decks)

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