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ED Basic School > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

18 Testable Sections Covered Before Exam 1

1
Q

What are the colors of money?

A 
MILPERS
O&M
MILCON
RDT&E
Procurement
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2
Q

(3.3.2) The ICD and AoA study guidance and plan are necessary for entry into what point of the Acq. Framework?

A

MDD

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3
Q

(3.3.2) At what point does the MDA give permission to enter the P&D phase?

A

M/S C

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4
Q

(3.3.2) Prior to what point must all sources of program risk be adequately mitigated?

A

M/S B

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5
Q

(3.3.2) In which phase does system disposal occur?

A

O&S

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6
Q

(3.3.2) During the MSA phase, what is approved besides the Acquisition Strategy?

A

AoA

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7
Q

(2.1.3) What are the 3 PEO’s in the SPAWAR Enterprise?

A

C4I
Space Sysyems
EIS

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8
Q

(2.1.3) What is the mission of SPAWAR?

A

Identify, develop, deliver, and sustain information warfighting capabilities.

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9
Q

(2.1.3) What are the SPAWAR Competancies?

A
  1. 0 Finance
  2. 0 Contracts
  3. 0 Legal
  4. 0 Logistics & Fleet Support
  5. 0 Engineering
  6. 0 Program Management
  7. 0 Science and Technology
  8. 0 Corporate Operations
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10
Q

(3.3.2) What are the two phases of the Acquisition Life-cycle that make up “Pre-Systems Acquisition?”

A

MSA and TMRR

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11
Q

(3.3.2) What are the uses of the AoA?

A 
Assess preliminary materiel solutions
Identify key technologies
Estimate life-cycle costs
Conduct tradespace
Consider joint environment
Incentivize industry
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12
Q

(3.3.2) What are the two phases of the Acquisition Life-cycle that make up “Systems Acquisition?”

A

EMD and P&D

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13
Q

(2.1.3) What are the two subdivisions of the SPAWAR Fleet Readiness Directorate

A

FRD 100: Fleet Support

FRD 200: Installation

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14
Q

(2.1.3) What is the focus of SPAWAR Systems Center Pacific?

A

Research, development, testing and evaluation and life cycle support of C4ISR systems

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15
Q

(2.1.3) What is the focus of SPAWAR Systems Center Atlantic?

A

Enterprise information systems and life cycle support of C4I systems

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16
Q

(2.1.4) What is the Role of the Warfare Centers?

A

Do things the industry won’t do, shouldn’t do, and can’t do.

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17
Q

(3.3.1) What are the three general rules and regulations that authorizes DOD to conduct system acquisition?

A

1) Laws: Title X, Goldwater-Nichols (DoD Reorganization Act of 1986), DAWIA
2) Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR)
3) DoD and DoN Acquisition Policy Documents (DoD 5000 series)

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18
Q

(2.1.4) What is the mission for NAVSEA Undersea Warfare Center?

A

RDT&E, engineering and fleet support center for subs, unmanned vehicles, offensive and defensive weapons systems associated with USW.

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19
Q

(3.3.1) What are the Key Decision Drivers of Defense Acquisition?

A

1) Planning, Programming Budgeting & Execution (PPBE): Funds
2) Defense Acquisition System (DAS): Materiel
3) Joint Capabilities Integration & Development System (JCIDS): Requirements

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20
Q

(3.3.1) What are the three general rules and regulations that authorizes DOD to conduct system acquisition?

A

1) Laws: Title X, Goldwater-Nichols, DAWIA
2) Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR)
3) DoD and DoN Acquisition Policy Documents (DoD 5000 series)

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21
Q

(2.1.4) Who do the Warfare Centers report to?

A

COMNAVSEA (SYSCOM)

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22
Q

(3.3.1) What does the Defense Acquisition Executive (DAE) do?

A
  • Top-level official for all defense acquisitions and is responsible for supervising the DAS
  • Act as MDA for Major Acquisition Programs (MDAPS) and Major Automated Information Systems (MAIS)
  • Takes precedence after SECDEF and Deputy SECDEF in acquisition matters
  • May delegate authority to act as the MDA to the head of a DoD Component and further delegates to Component or Service Acquisition Executive
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23
Q

(2.1.4) What is the mission of NRL?

A

research & advanced technology development for FUTURE Navy and maritime applications

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24
Q

(2.1.4) Who does NRL report to?

A

ONR

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25
Q

(3.1.2) What is the purpose of the Budget Resolution?

A

Set spending ceilings

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26
Q

(2.1.4) What are the technical leadership areas of NSWC Port Hueneme Division?

A

UNREP test site, surface missile and launch systems

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27
Q

(3.3.1) What are the 3 Areas of Risk Management in Acquisition?

A
  • Cost
  • Schedule
  • Performance
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28
Q

(3.3.1) What are some of the Key Acquisition Reform Initiatives

A

–FARandDFARSrevisedandstreamlined
–NewDoD5000series –MilSpecuseisevaluatedtoassesscosteffectiveness –AdvancedConceptTechnologyDemonstrations(ACTDs)toreducerisks
–ControlofTotalOwnershipCostversusprocurementcostalone –IntegratedProductandProcessDevelopment(IPPD) –IntegratedProductTeams(IPTs)toaddressmultipledisciplines –CostasanIndependentVariable(CAIV)totradecostforcost/perf –SingleProcessInitiative(SPI)toreduceprocessduplication –OpenSystemsArchitectureforstandardizationandmodernization –*SimulationBasedAcquisitiontoreducecostsandshortentime

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29
Q

(2.1.3) What is the focus of the SPAWAR Systems Space Field Activity?

A

Facilitate interaction between the DoN and the National Reconisance Office and coordinate R&D and aquisition functions.

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30
Q

(3.1.2) What is the purpose of Authorization?

A

to allow programs to exist

to set policy

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31
Q

(3.3.1) What are the parameters for ACAT I programs and the 2 subcategories?

A

-Require expenditure of >$480M in RDT&E
>$2.79B Procurement
-Designated by USD (A&S)

Two Types:

  • ACAT 1D:”D” refers to USD (A&S) as MDA
  • ACAT 1C: “C” refers to CAE as MDA
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32
Q

(3.3.1) What are the parameters for ACAT IA (MAIS) programs and MDA delegation?

A 
-Require expenditure of
>$520M Total Life costs
>$165M Total Program Costs
>$40M Program Costs in any single year
DoD CIO designates

Two Types
ACAT 1AM- MDA is USD A&S
ACAT 1AC-MDA is Component or ASN (RDA)

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33
Q

(3.1.2) What is the purpose of a Continuing Resolution?

A

“Stopgap”

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34
Q

(3.3.1) What is the definition of Defense Acquisition System?

A

“Process”

The management process by which DoD provides effective, affordable, and timely systems to the users.

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35
Q

(3.3.1) What is the definition of an acquisition program?

A

“Thing”

A directed, funded effort that provides a new, improved, or continuing materiel, weapon or information system or service capability in response to an approved need

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36
Q

(3.3.1) What does the Defense Acquisition Executive do?

A

-Top-level official for all defense acquisitions and is responsible for supervising the DAS
-Act as MDA for Major Acquisition Programs (MDAPS) and Major Automated Information Systems (MAIS)
-

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37
Q

(3.3.1) What does the Component /Service Acquisition Executive (CAE) do?

A

-Senior Official in each DoD component responsible for all acquisition functions within that component

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38
Q

(3.3.1) What are the roles of the Milestone Decision Authority (MDA)?

A
  • Designated individual with overall responsibility of a program
  • Approves entry of an acquisition program into the next phase of the acquisition process
  • Determines entry point of a program in the acq. process
  • Reports to Congress
  • PM reports to MDA
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39
Q

(3.3.1) What are the roles of the Program Executive Office (PEO)?

A
  • Directing several Major Defense Acquisition Programs (MDAPs) and assigned major and non-major system acquisition programs
  • Reports to DoD CAE
  • CAE may delegate PEO as MDA for ACAT II, III, IV programs
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40
Q

(3.3.1) What are the roles of the program manager?

A

Day-to-Day responsibilities of a program

  • responsibility for and authority to accomplish program objectives for development, production, and sustainment to meet user’s operational needs
  • Reports to MDA for cost, schedule, and performance
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41
Q

(3.3.1) What are the Key Defense Acquisition Players and their main function?

A
  1. USD Acquisition and Sustainment (A&S)-serves as DAE, makes milestone decisions for MDAPs, chairs the Defense Acq. Board (DAB)
  2. USD Research and Engineering (R&E)-Chief technical officer in DoD, mission to advance tech and innovation, advises SECDEF of future interoperability and cyber capability issues
  3. DoD Chief Information Officer (CIO)-supports and informs USD A&S on all IT and cyber-infrastructure acquisition matters especially MAIS programs
  4. DOT&E-provides independent assessment of the operational effectiveness and suitability of the new weapon systems, approves Live-Fire testing strategy and operational testing plans
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42
Q

(3.2.1) Why are contracts needed by DoD?

A

To protect the government and contractor during the acquisition process.

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43
Q

(3.2.1) What are the five essential elements of a contract?

A 
Offer
Acceptance
Consideration
Legal Binding
Competent Parties
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44
Q

(3.2.1) What regulations does the contracting officer use to carry out the contracting process?

A

the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR)
the DoD FAR Supplement (DFARS)
Agency supplements and acquisition regulations

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45
Q

(3.2.1) What are the three types of contracting officers?

A

Procuring Contracting Officer (PCO)
Administrative Contracting Officer (ACO)
Termination Contracting Officer (TCO)

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46
Q

(3.2.1) Which type of contracting officer can serve in all three roles?

A

Procuring Contracting Officer (PCO)

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47
Q

(3.2.1) What are the responsibilities of the contracting officer?

A

ensures contract performance and compliance
serves as the contract advisor for the program
prepare solicitations and contracts
communicate with potential offers
negotiate contracts
legally bind the government

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48
Q

(3.2.1) Where is the authority derived from, and what is the responsibility, background/training, guiding directives, and organization of the PM?

A 
Authority derived from charter
Responsible for entire program
technical background
DoD 5000 series provides guiding directives
Program Office (IPT) organization
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49
Q

(3.2.1) Describe the relationship between the PM and KO

A

PMs and KOs have complementary roles and responsibilities and maintain a partnership throughout the acquisition process

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50
Q

(3.2.1) Where is the authority derived from, and what is the responsibility, background/training, guiding directives, and organization of the PM?

A 
Authority derived from charter
Responsible for entire program
technical background
DoD 5000 series provides guiding directives
Program Office (IPT) organization
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51
Q

(2.1.5) What is the definition of technical authority?

A

Authority, Responsibility, and Accountability to establish, monitor, and approve technical products and processes in conformance to higher authority policy, requirements, architectures, and standards

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52
Q

(2.1.5) Who is the ultimate technical authority for ships and weapon systems?

A

COMNAVSEA

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53
Q

(2.1.5) Who is the ultimate technical authority for C4ISR, IA/Cyber, and IT systems?

A

COMSPAWAR

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54
Q

(2.1.5) What are the five types of Engineering Agents (EA)?

A
  • Technical Direction Agent (TDA)
  • Design Agent (DA)
  • System Integration Agent (SIA)
  • Acquisition Engineering Agent (AEA)
  • In-Service Engineering Agent (ISEA)
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55
Q

(2.1.5) What are the seven types of Technical Warrant Holders (TWHs)?

A
  • Ship Design Manager (SDM)
  • Chief Systems Engineer (CSE)
  • Systems Integration Manager (SIM)
  • Cost Engineering Manager (CEM)
  • Technical Area Experts (TAE)
  • Technical Process Owner (TPO)
  • Chief Engineer (CHENG)
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56
Q

(3.3.1) Why do we use ACATs?

A

Categories established to facilitate decentralized decision-making and execution and compliance with imposed requirements

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57
Q

(3.3.1) How are ACAT categories defined?

A

Programs are divided into acquisition categories based primarily on program cost (dollar value, location in the acquisition framework, MDA special interest or National Defense Strategy). Oversight increases with cost.

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58
Q

(3.3.1) Why are there different categories of ACAT?

A

ACAT designation allows DoD to appropriately adjust requirements for Program oversight and control.

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59
Q

(3.3.1) What are the parameters for ACAT I programs and the 2 subcategories?

A

-Require expenditure of >$480M in RDT&E
>$2.79B Procurement
-Designated by USD (A&S)

Two Types:

  • ACAT 1D:”D” refers to DAB and USD (A&S) as MDA
  • ACAT 1C: “C” refers to CAE
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60
Q

(3.2.1) Where is the authority derived from, and what is the responsibility, background/training, guiding directives, and organization of the KO?

A 
Authority derived from warrant
responsible for contract
business background
FAR system provides guiding directives
Matrix (IPT) organization
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61
Q

(3.2.1) What are the requirements of the competition in contracting act?

A

Full and Open Competition
Allowance for F & O competition after exclusion of sources
7 exceptions to F & O
Requirement for approval for anything other than F & O competition

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62
Q

(3.2.1) What is Justification and Approval used for?

A

Sole Source Contracts

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63
Q

(3.2.1) The requirements associated with pursuing competition are implemented by _______

A

The Competition in Contracting Act

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64
Q

(3.2.1) Define responsiveness with respect to contracting

A

Bid conforms to all aspects of the Invitation for Bid and is submitted by the deadline

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65
Q

(3.2.1) How is a prospective contractor determined responsible?

A

Have adequate financial resources or the ability to obtain them
Able to comply with required delivery schedule
Have satisfactory performance record
Record of Integrity and Business Ethics
Have necessary organization, experience, and equipment
Are eligible to receive an award

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66
Q

(3.2.2) What are the 2 contract solicitation methods?

A

Sealed Bidding and Negotiations [page 5]

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67
Q

(3.2.2) How is Sealed Bidding different from Negotiations?

A

Sealed Bidding seeks lowest cost from responsive and responsible bidder via Invitation For Bid (IFB). Negotiations uses a Request For Proposal (RFP) when the criteria for Sealed Bid can’t be met: time, price info, requirements, or competition are lacking. RFP winner awarded based on evaluation criteria contained therein. [page 5]

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68
Q

(3.1.1) What is the role of the PBBE process?

A

Identify the fiscal needs of the DoD and decide how to allocate resources.

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69
Q

(3.1.4) What is an Expenditure Plan?

A

Month-by-month projection of expenditures for each fiscal year of funding. The PMO must prepare an expenditure plan for all appropriation years that have not been completely expended, even if the period of obligation availability has expired

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70
Q

(3.1.4) What is the impact of the failure to execute funds IAW spend plans?

A

The comparison of actual funds execution performance to the spending plans helps indicate success or identify potential problems to the PEO, service headquarters, and OSD.

Outcomes of not executing to the spending plans:

  • Programs that fall behind in executing funds, will become a target for bill-paying exercises
  • Programs that don’t meet obligation and expenditure goals run the risk of losing funding
  • Continued poor execution over several years can also lead to future budget adjustments
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71
Q

(3.2.2) What is the RFP development sequence?

A

Pre-Solicitation Phase (Determination of capability need, Requirements package, Method of contracting)
Solicitation, Evaluation, and Award Phase (self stated)
Post-Award Phase (Contract administration, Delivery and contract closeout)
CLASS: Determine a need, Develop req’s, Determine method of contracting.
[page 21]

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72
Q

(3.2.2) When would the KO use an Invitation For Bid (IFB) as the solicitation method?

A

If contracting by sealed bidding. [page 28]

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73
Q

(3.1.3) What are the obligation window and funding policies for each MDAP?

A
  • MCN, MCNR, SCN - 5 years and full funding
  • APN, WPN, OPN - 3 years and full funding
  • RDT&E - 2 years and incremental funding
  • O&MN, O&MNR, MPN, RPN - 1 year and annual funding
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74
Q

(3.3.1) What are the parameters for ACAT IA (MAIS) programs?

A 
-Require expenditure of
>$520M Total Life costs
>$165M Total Program Costs
>$40M Program Costs in any single year
DoD CIO designates 
MDA
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75
Q 
(3.1.3) Which of these is not a funding policy?
A. Annual
B. Incremental
C. Evolutionary
D. Full Funding
A

C. Evolutionary

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76
Q

(3.1.3) Which appropriations apply to each funding policy?

A
  • Annual: MILPERS, O&M
  • Incremental: RDT&E
  • Full Funding: MILCON, Procurement
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77
Q

(3.1.3) What are the two primary exceptions to the full funding policy?

A

Advance Procurement (long lead times) and Multiyear Procurement (MYP)

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78
Q 
(3.1.3) How many phases are there in product improvement?
1
2
3
4
A

3

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79
Q

(3.1.3) What types of money go with each product improvement phase?

A

Phase 1 - RDT&E, O&M, Procurement
Phase 2 - Procurement
Phase 3 - Procurement

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80
Q

(3.3.1) What are the parameters for ACAT II?

A

ACAT II=Major Systems
Expenditure
>$185M or more of RDT&E
>$835M or more of Procurement

MDA is CAE
No ACAT II for AISs

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81
Q

(3.3.1) What are the parameters for ACAT III, IIIA, and IV?

A

-ACAT III: Does not meet criteria for ACAT I, IA, or II
MDA is designated by CAE and can be PEO or PM
-ACAT IIIA: Does not meet ACAT IA criteria, includes less-than-major AISs
MDA is designated by CAE to PEO or PM level
-ACAT IV: does not meet ACAT III
Two categories: -IVT(test)
IVM (Monitor)

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82
Q

(3.3.1) What are some of the current Navy acquisition issues?

A
  • 355 ships
  • Total Ownership costs
  • Focus on affordability
  • Restructuring of USD (AT&L)
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83
Q

(3.1.4) What is Budget Authority?

A

Authority granted by appropriation law to enter into obligations that will result in immediate or future outlays

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84
Q

(3.1.4) What is Commitment?

A

Administrative reservation of funds, usually by the local comptroller, in anticipation of a future obligation

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85
Q

(3.1.4) What is Obligation?

A

Legal reservation of funds to make a future payment of money

86
Q

(3.1.4) What is Expenditure?

A

Charge against available funds. It results from a voucher, claim, or other document approved by competent authority

87
Q

(3.1.4) What is Outlay?

A

Occurs when the vendor cashes the expenditure check and money flows from the Treasury to the vendor or supplier

88
Q

(3.1.4) What is the track of budget execution through the commitment, obligation, and expenditure process?

A

PMO - submits purchase request
Comptroller - certifies and commits funds
Contracting Officer - signs contract and obligates funds
Finance Office - sends check for expenditure
U.S. Treasury - pays cash (outlay) and issues reciepts

89
Q

(3.1.4) What are the three execution laws and what are the major provisions of each?

A
  1. Misappropriation Act: PURPOSE - Requires funds to be used only for the purposes and programs for which the appropriation was made
  2. Anti-Deficiency Act: AMOUNT - Prohibits making or authorizing an obligation in excess of the amount available, Forbids obligation to pay money from the US Treasury in advance of an appropriation, Requires agency to fix responsibility for violations of the Act
  3. Bona Fide Need Rule: TIME - Requires fund to be used only for needs or services in the year of the appropriations obligation window
90
Q

(3.1.4) What is the purpose of Spend Plans?

A

Spend plans are essential tools for managing financial performance and are based on the Budget Estimate Submission (BES).
Spend plans are required for each line item for procurement, program element for RDT&E, and sub-activity group for O&M

91
Q

(3.1.4) What is an Obligation Plan?

A

Month-by-month projection of the amount of available funds for new obligations for each fiscal year; prepared by the PMO

92
Q

(3.1.4) What is an Expenditure Plan?

A

Month-by-month projection of expenditures for each fiscal year of funding. The PMO

93
Q

(3.1.1) What are the key documents for the planning phase of the PBBE process and who signs them process?

A

Chairman’s Program Recommendation, CJCS

Defense Planning Guidance, SECDEF

94
Q

(3.1.1) Who drafts the Program Objectives Memorandum (POM)?

A

Resource Sponsors

95
Q

(3.1.1) Who reviews the POM submissions and what is generated to asses compliance with strategic guidance?

A

Joint Chiefs of Staff,

Chairman’s Program Assesment (CPA)

96
Q

(3.1.1) Who approves the POM’s as modified by the program review and what document is generated?

A

Deputy SECDEF

Program Decision Memoranda(PDM)

97
Q

(3.1.4) Name the three types of Reprogramming and explain.

A
  1. Congressional Prior Approval (“ATR”) - Required for actions involving Congressional Special Interest items, Major system procurement quantity increases, Amounts exceeding those specified for BTR
  2. Internal - Reclassification of funds; Reprog to/from transfer accts
  3. Below Threshold (BTR) - Allows transfer of funds among programs; controlled/approved by local/service/defense agency; limitations, level of control, dollar thresholds
98
Q

(3.1.1) Who prepares and signs the Budget Estimation Submission (BES)?

A

Prep: Echelon 2 Budget Submitting Office (BSO)
Sign: SECNAV

99
Q

(3.1.1) Who signs Program Budget Decisions (PDBs)?

A

Deputy SECDEF

100
Q

(3.1.4) What are the Below Threshold Reprogramming Limitations?

A

Below Threshold Reprogramming CANNOT be used to:

  • Transfer funds that require Congressional involvement
  • Change the appropriation category of any funds
  • Change the fiscal year of any funds
  • Violate Congressional intent
101
Q

(3.1.4) How do you respond to possible funding cuts and identify the potential impacts on industry?

A

Address Funding Cuts:

  • Address operational and program impacts,
  • provide specific, credible impacts
  • Use simple language
  • Be prepared to follow through with programmatic changes cited in the impact statement

Impacts on Industry:

  • Bidders may have to revise their proposals to reflect impacts on cost/schedule/performance
  • If already on contract, contractor may have to shift resources and personnel to other efforts
  • Overhead rates may go up
  • Will Cost-Should Cost analysis is a way to justify current budget by showing cost savings already implemented
102
Q

(3.2.2) What are the 3 typical contract types? Which 2 are primary?

A

Fixed Price (w/incentives), Cost Reimbursement (w/fees), Indefinite Delivery (definite or indefinite quantity). Primary 2 are Fixed Price and Cost Reimbursement. [page 7, 11, 18]

103
Q

(3.2.2) What are the Other Contract Types?

A

Time and Material, Labor-Hour (T&M minus M), Letter Contract (jump start Legal Vehicle for a short fused need, with a price ceiling) [page 19]

104
Q

(2.1.1) What are the 3 major impacts of the Goldwater-Nichols act

A
  1. Increased responsibilities of CJCS
  2. Increase authority of the Combatant Commands
  3. Instituted and established “joint-ness”
105
Q

(3.2.2) What is the RFP development sequence?

A

Pre-Solicitation Phase (Determination of capability need, Requirements package, Method of contracting)
Solicitation, Evaluation, and Award Phase (self stated)
Post-Award Phase (Contract administration, Delivery and contract closeout)
[page 21]

106
Q

(3.2.2) When would the KO use an Invitation For Bid (IFB) as the solicitation method?

A

If contracting by sealed bid. [page 28]

107
Q

(2.1.1) What Act defines our current command structure?

A

Goldwater-Nichols DoD Reorganization Act of 1986

108
Q

(2.1.1) What was the purpose of the Goldwater-Nichols Act?

A

Improve joint operations and improve DoD budget and Acquisition processes that were previously stovepiped among services.

109
Q

(2.1.1) What is the Administrative chain of command?

A 
SECDEF
Service departments (DoN, etc)
110
Q

(2.1.1) Who are SECNAVs principal Advisors?

A

Assistant Secretary of the Navy (Manpower & Reserve Affairs)
Assistant Secretary of the Navy (Installations & Environment)
Assistant Secretary of the Navy (Financial Management & Comptroller)
Assistant Secretary of the Navy (Research, Development & Acquisition)

111
Q

(2.1.1) What are the responsibilities of ASN (manpower & reserve affairs)?

A

responsible for manpower and personnel policies, personnel readiness, quality of life and healthcare programs, and issues affecting active duty, reserves, and DoN activities

112
Q

(2.1.1) What are the two chains of command?

A

Administrative (ADCON) “man, train, equip”

Operational (OPCON) “combat forces-fighting wars”

113
Q

(2.1.1) What is the operational chain of command?

A

SECDEF
JCS
Unified Combat Commands

114
Q

(2.1.1) What are the responsibilities of ASN (Research, Development & Acquisition)?

A

ASN(RD&A) is Navy’s Acquisition Executive (NAE)
responsible for all research, development, and procurement of defense systems satisfying the requirements of the Navy and Marine Corps. Responsible for all acquisitions policy and procedures.

115
Q

(2.1.1) Who are SECNAVs principal Advisors?

A

Assistant Secretary of the Navy (Manpower & Reserve Affairs)
Assistant Secretary of the Navy (Installations & Environment)
Assistant Secretary of the Navy (Financial Management & Comptroller)
Assistant Secretary of the Navy (Research, Development & Acquisition)

116
Q

(2.1.1) What are the responsibilities of ASN (manpower & reserve affairs)?

A

responsible for manpower and personnel policies, personnel readiness, quality of life and healthcare programs, and issues affecting active duty, reserves, and DoN activities

117
Q

(2.1.1) What are the responsibilities of ASN (Installations and Environment)?

A

Management of Navy and marine corps real property, housing, and other facilities; environmental protection ashore and afloat; occupational health for military civilians; and timely BRAC closures and realignments

118
Q

(2.1.1) What are the responsibilities of ASN (Financial Management and Controller)?

A

Financial Management: SECNAV’s principal financial advisor

Comptroller: Execution of Navy’s budget

119
Q

(2.1.1) What are the responsibilities of ASN (Research, Development & Acquisition)?

A

ASN(RD&A) is Navy’s Acquisition Executive (NAE)
responsible for all research, development, and procurement of defense systems satisfying the requirements of the Navy and Marine Corps. Responsible for all acquisitions policy and procedures.

120
Q

(2.1.1) Define PEO

A

Program Executive Office

121
Q

(2.1.1) Define DRPM

A

Direct Reporting Program Manager - does NOT go through PEO

122
Q

(2.1.1) What is the mission of Commander US Fleet Forces Command?

A

organize, man, train, and equip Naval Forces for assignment to Unified Command Combatant commanders (Administrative)

123
Q

(2.1.1) Define Echelon

A

Reporting chain down from CNO (down to echelon 4)

124
Q

(2.1.1) What are the three components of the Navy Business Model?

A
  1. Requirements (set by warfighters)
  2. Resources ($$)
  3. Providers (system centers PEOs)
125
Q

(2.1.1) What is the relationship of the TYCOM, provider, and resource sponsor to the warfare enterprises?

A

ENTERPRISE CONSTRUCT

triangle thingy

126
Q

(2.1.1) Which CNO Principle advisors are EDO community closely aligned to?

A

N9, N8, N2/N6

127
Q

(2.1.1) What is the mission of Commander US Fleet Forces Command?

A

organize, man, train, and equip Naval Forces for assignment to Unified Command Combatant commanders (Administrative)

128
Q

(2.1.1) What is the difference between the Numbered and Type Commanders?

A

Numbered: operational
Type: Administrative

129
Q

(2.1.1) What are the three components of the Navy Business Model?

A
  1. Requirements (set by warfighters)
  2. Resources ($$)
  3. Providers (system centers PEOs)
130
Q

(2.1.1) What is the relationship of the TYCOM, provider, and resource sponsor to the warfare enterprises?

A

ENTERPRISE CONSTRUCT

triangle thingy

131
Q

(2.1.2) What are the mission and major functions of NAVSEA?

A

Mission: design, build, deliver, and maintain ships and system on time and on cost
Major functions: research, design, acquisition, fleet support, modernization, depot maintenance and repair, disposal

132
Q

(2.1.2) What are the functions of SEA 01?

A

Comptroller: financial management accountability and budget submitting office.

133
Q

(2.1.2) What are the functions of SEA 02?

A

Contracts: contracting officer in direct support of NAVSEA, Program Managers, and PEOs
(people with authority to obligate government to spend money)

134
Q

(2.1.2) What are the functions of SEA 04?

A

Maintenance and Industrial Operations: exercises management control of Naval Shipyars, SUPSHIPS, SRF

135
Q

(2.1.2) What are the functions of SEA 05?

A

Naval Systems Engineering a.k.a. “Office of the CHENG” - technical authority for ships, submarines, craft, and ship systems (can grant technical authority warrants)

136
Q

(2.1.2) What are the functions of SEA 06?

A

Acquisition and commonality: finds things done repetitively and standardizes them

137
Q

(2.1.2) What are the functions of SEA 07?

A

Undersea warfare: provides lifecycle support to the in-service submarine and undersea force

138
Q

(2.1.2) Who is in Team Subs?

A

PEO SUBs, SEA 07, SEA 073 (Deputy commander, undersea technology), NUWC, SUBMEPP

139
Q

(2.1.2) What are the functions of SEA 08?

A

Nuclear propulsion: triple-hatted as SEA08, director naval nuclear propulsion OPNAV 00N, Deputy administrator for Naval reactors

140
Q

(2.1.2) What are the functions of SEA 10?

A

Corporate operations: operations support, command projects, customer service

141
Q

(2.1.2) What are the functions of SEA 21?

A

Surface warfare: in-service ships program office: modernization and fleet support focus
dual hatted as CNRMC

142
Q

(2.1.2) Who is team ships?

A

PEO ships and SEA 21

143
Q

(2.1.2) Which PEOs are affiliated with NAVSEA?

A

Ships, unmanned and small combatants, submarines, carriers, integrated warfare systems (IWS)

144
Q

(3.3.2) The Acquisition Strategy maximizes _______ from initiation through post-production.

A

Affordability

145
Q

(3.3.2) Which acquisition approach is the preferred strategy for rapid acquisition of mature technology?

A

Evolutionary

146
Q

(3.3.2) What are the capability documents?

A

ICD
CDD
CPD

147
Q

(3.3.2) User needs are implemented into the acquisition framework via what documents?

A

Capability documents

148
Q

(3.3.2) What must programs meet in order to transition to the next phase?

A

Exit (of current phase) and Entrance (of next phase) criteria

149
Q

(3.3.2) How does the MDA determine that risk has been sufficiently reduced for a program to enter the next phase?

A

Exit criteria of current phase

150
Q

(3.3.2) What entity conducts affordability analysis as part of M/S A?

A

The Component

151
Q

(3.3.2) KPPs and KSAs in the CDD guide efforts leading to ______ and inform the _______ Decision Point.

A

KPPs and KSAs in the CDD guide efforts leading to PDR and inform the RFP Release Decision Point.

152
Q

(3.3.2) What entity determines the preliminary LRIP quantity at Development RFP Release Decision point?

A

The MDA

153
Q

(3.3.2) What are the pros/cons of international armaments cooperative development in an acquisition strategy?

A

Pros: program stability, enables interoperability
Cons: security concerns, increases bureaucracy

154
Q

(3.3.2) What information is required for a milestone review?

A

Entrance/exit criteria, risk maturation, affordability, and program tradeoffs

155
Q

(3.3.2) What is the policy regarding postponing a PDR?

A

The MDA must approve a waiver to conduct a PDR post-M/S B.

156
Q

(3.3.2) What is the purpose of a CSB?

A 
Review requirements (post-CDD validation)
Review cost/schedule and necessary changes (only if approved funding is identified)
157
Q

(3.3.2) What additional acquisition policy has been instituted by the Navy?

A

2-pass, 6-gate

158
Q

(3.3.2) What are differences for a shipbuilding program in the execution of the acquisition framework?

A

No prototyping

1st ship is at M/S B

159
Q

(3.3.4) What is the US technology posture in relation to defense acquisition?

A

The federal government is increasingly dependent on industry investments/commercial technology.

160
Q

(3.3.4) What is the role of S&T in defense acquisition?

A

S&T performs basic/applied research to address battlefield deficiencies and mature technology to reduce risk for system integration.

161
Q

(3.3.4) What is the continuum of S&T development from the university environment to advanced technology and key traits of maturity levels?

A

Basic/applied research to demonstration to developed operational systems.

162
Q

(3.3.4) What are the R&D funding categories (budget activities)?

A

RDT&E budget activities 0601 (basic research) to 0607 (advanced technology).

163
Q

(3.3.4) What RDT&E budget activity funds ATDs and JCTDs?

A

0603

164
Q

(3.3.4) What are characteristics of ATDs?

A
  • HW and SW prototypes for refining basic/applied research
  • not meant to be fielded
  • testing a concept
  • risk reducer
  • NOT a leave behind capability
  • usually funded by ONR
  • usually pre-M/S B efforts
165
Q

(3.3.4) What are characteristics of JCTDs?

A
  • develop MUA of concepts/technology
  • maximum user involvement
  • IS leave behind capability if users like it
  • aims for early transition to acquisition/sustainment
166
Q

(3.3.4) When is new technology usually introduced into the acquisition life-cycle?

A

Usually inserted prior to M/S B

167
Q

(5.1.5) What is Integrated Product and Process Development?

A

A management technique that simultaneously integrates all essential acquisition activities through the use of multidisciplinary teams to optimizes design, manufacturing, and supportability processes.

168
Q

(5.1.5) What is an IPT? Who is on the IPT?

A

An integrated product team is a multidisciplinary group of people who are collectively responsible for delivering a defined product or process. Representatives: program management, engineering, manufacturing, logistics, T&E, contracting, customer.

169
Q

What are the barriers to IPT implementation?

A
  • unclear goals
  • lack of top cover
  • team members not empowered
  • cultural change
  • staffing requirements
  • not collocated
170
Q

(5.1.5) What are the five conflict resolution styles?

A
  1. Competing (quick decisive action)
  2. Collaborating (integrated creative solutions)
  3. Compromising (defuse a win/lose situation)
  4. Avoiding (cooling down period)
  5. Accommodating (giving in)
171
Q

(5.1.5) What are the steps of team development?

A
  1. Forming
  2. Storming
  3. Norming
  4. Performing
  5. Adjourning
172
Q

(3.2.3) What are the source selection steps?

A
  1. Compare each proposal to the RFP
  2. Perform comparative analysis ?
  3. Determine if prices are fair and reasonable
  4. Select the source for contract award
    * Steps 2 and 3 may be done in parallel.
173
Q

(3.2.3) What are the guiding documents for source selection?

A
  1. Source Selection Plan (SSP)

2. Request for Proposal (RFP)/ Invitation For Bid (IFB)

174
Q

(3.2.3) What is the term Best Value?

A

Best value is the expected outcome of an acquisition that, in the govt. estimation, provides the greatest overall benefit in response to the requirement.

175
Q

(3.2.3) What are the source selection best value policies?

A
  1. Lowest Price Technically Acceptable (LPTA)

2. Tradeoff Process

176
Q

(3.2.3) What are the roles and responsibilities of the source selection participants?

A
  1. Procuring Contracting Officer (PCO): responsible for contracting process
  2. Source Selection Authority (SSA): selects the source for contract award
  3. Source Selection Advisory Council (SSAC): performs a comparative analysis of the proposals and forwards a recommendation of the best value proposal to the SSA.
  4. Source Selection Evaluation Board (SSEB): Evaluates proposals against the requirements in the RFP
177
Q

(3.2.3) What are the various types of interaction between the govt. and contractors?

A
  1. Clarifications
  2. Communications
  3. Exchanges
178
Q

(3.2.3) How does one prepare for and conduct a fact-finding activity?

A

Fact finding is conducted to prepare pre-negotiation position.
To prepare:
-Review your contracting situation
-Familiarize yourself with legal aspects and contractual terms and conditions
-Identify team members who may assist you
-List all open issues

  • More examples on slide #21
179
Q

(3.2.3) How does one prepare for and support a negotiation? Think 5 steps!

A
  1. Prepare for the negotiation
  2. Conduct fact finding and analysis before and after the negotiation
  3. Set pre-negotiation objectives
  4. Ensure all govt. participants have sufficient negotiating skills
  5. Keep the end goal in mind
180
Q

(3.2.3) What are the roles and responsibilities of the participants in fact-finding and negotiations?

A
  1. Contracting officer (KO): leads the negotiations after determination of the competitive range.
  2. Program Management Office: supports the KO during the negotiations and provides members to the SSEB and evaluation teams
  3. SSEB and Evaluation Teams: conduct fact-finding and provide questions for the offeror (s) to the KO. Make a recommendation to the SSA.
181
Q

(3.3.3) The name of the system for institutionalizing a joint capability need and sponsoring further evaluation of a materiel solution is:

A

Capabilities Based Assessment (CBA)

182
Q

(3.3.3) The Capability Documents ICD, is used during which phases of acquisition?

A

MSA

183
Q

(3.3.3) The Capability Documents CDD is used during which phases of acquisition?

A

TMRR and EMD

184
Q

(3.3.3) The Capability Documents CPD is used during which phases of acquisition?

A

P&D and O&S

185
Q

(3.3.3) Which document defines capabilities and how is it transformed into a program start?

A

Capability Development Document (CDD). CDD is validated and approved before Milestone B by the Milestone Decision Authority (MDA), which is normally the formal initiation of an acquisition program

186
Q

(3.3.3) JROC and the Joint Staff ensures new capabilities are conceived and developed in the ____ War‐fighting context.

A

Joint

187
Q

(3.3.3) The warfighter’s role in identifying capability gaps is met through Combatant Commander participation in ___.

A

Functional Capabilities Board (FCB)

188
Q

(3.3.3) ______ document requirements for IT and NSS interoperability and guides system evaluations and certification.

A

Net Ready Key Performance Parameter (NR KPP)

189
Q

(3.3.3) What is the importance of Interoperability?

A

– Future operations will be joint

– Too costly for stovepipe systems

190
Q

(3.3.2) What are the 5 phases of the classic DAS structure (horse blanket)?

A
  1. MSA
  2. TMRR
  3. EMD
  4. P&D
  5. O&S
191
Q

(3.3.2) What are the 4 decision points of the classic DAS structure (horse blanket)?

A
  1. MDD
  2. CDD-V
  3. Development RFP Release Decision
  4. Full Rate Production
192
Q

(3.3.2) Define Acquisition Strategy?

A

Strategy that guides program execution from initiation through re-procurement of systems/subsystems/components/spares/services beyond the initial production contract and during post-production support.
It maximizes affordability from initiation through post-production.
Acq Strategy is prepared by PM and approved by MDA. It tailors acquisition framework for the specific program and provides a master schedule and basis for other program plans and strategies.

193
Q

(3.3.2) Define the evolutionary approach.

A

Preferred strategy for rapid acquisition of mature tech.
For time-phased implementation to meet user requirements or needs:
-defines the increment and subsequent increments
-defines how incremental approach will satisfy full-capability needs

194
Q

(3.3.2) Define the single-step approach.

A

Full system capability is developed and demonstrated prior to M/S C.

195
Q

(3.3.2) Define APB.

A
  • established at program initiation
  • agreement between PM and MDA and chain of command that will be used for tracking/reporting
  • includes affordability caps for unit production and sustainment costs
  • includes sufficient parameters to describe cost est, sched, perf, supportability and other relevant factors
196
Q

(3.3.2) Define KPP.

A
  • attributes of a system that are critical or essential to the development of an effective military capability
  • attributes that make a significant contribution to the governing joint ops concept
197
Q

(3.3.2) What are the 4 mandatory KPPs?

A
  1. Net Ready
  2. Force Protection
  3. Survivability
  4. Sustainment
198
Q

(3.3.2) Define User Needs and Technology Opportunities and Resources.

A
  • User needs = military capability needs
  • Assessed by CJCS w/ JROC and incorporated into framework via JCIDS CBA leading to an ICD
  • Technology opportunities are identified by PM to meet these needs: all sources foreign and domestic, SBIR, S&T, ATDs, JCTDs, etc
199
Q

(3.3.2) What is the information required at decision reviews?

A
  • tailored by MDA and consistent with DoDI 5000.02
  • program progress and risk
  • affordability
  • program trade-offs
  • acq strategy updates
  • development of exit criteria for next phase/effort
200
Q

(3.3.2) Describe MDD.

A
  • approval to enter acquisition process
  • MDA determines phase of entry, initial review milestone, designates lead DoD component, issues ADM
  • Requires: ICD, evidence of strong technical foundation, AoA study guidance/plan, CTA
  • Establishes that a new product is needed and analyzing alternatives will begin
201
Q

(3.3.2) Describe MSA.

A
  • Assesses potential materiel solutions
  • Guided by ICD, AoA
  • Activities include establishing PM/PMO, conducting AoA, drafting CDD
  • Develop initial: A, cq Strategy, TEMP, SEP, LCSPCyber Security Strategy, translate capability gaps into system-specific requirements
  • Complete when MDA approves materiel solution and Acq Strategy
  • Outputs: AoA, materiel solution, TDS, preliminary system specification, SEP, TEMP, affordability analysis
202
Q

(3.3.2) When do the 3 milestones occur in the framework?

A

M/S A before TMRR
M/S B before EMD
M/S C before P&D

203
Q

(3.3.2) Describe M/S A.

A

-PMpresents: AcquisitionStrategy, Businessapproach, Riskassessment(andmitigationactivities),andAppropriate“shouldcost”targets
-Component: Presentsaffordabilityanalysisandaffordabilitygoals(IncludedinADM), costestimateforthepreferredsolution, DemonstratesthattheprogramwillbefullyfundedintheFYDP
MDA approves: system fulfills ICD, solution validated by AoA, system is necessary, cost estimate is consistent with JROC priority level, DIA validates STAR/VOLT report

204
Q

(3.3.2) Describe TMRR.

A
  • Reduces technology, engineering, integration, and LC cost risks; demonstrates critical technologies on prototypes; completes preliminary design
  • Guided by: ICD, AS, Draft CDD, and SEP
  • Activites: competitive prototyping, PDR, CDD-V, plan for sustainment, Dev RFP Release, TRA
  • Outputs: prototypes, AS, APB, system performance spec, systems allocated baseline, TEMP, system risk assessment, initial product support strategy, affordability analysis
205
Q

(3.3.2) What in the CDD guide efforts leading to PDR and inform the RFP Release Decision Point?

A

KPPs and KSAs

206
Q

(3.3.2) Describe PDR and M/S B.

A

PDR: prior to M/S B and before contract award for EMD (unless approved by MDA); results assessed by MDA
M/S B: authorizes entry into and contract award for EMD; formal initiation of program; requires demonstration that all sources of risk have been adequately mitigated, MDA approves: AS, APB, LRIP quantities, type of contract, ADM

207
Q

(3.3.2) Describe EMD.

A

Purpose:Develop,build,andtestaproductto verifythatalloperationalandderived requirementshavebeenmetandtosupport productionordeploymentdecisions Guidedby:AS,CDD,TEMPandSEP
Activities: Designstabilized and meetsrequirements(demonstrated throughDTandearlyOT);Manufacturing processesdemonstratedandundercontrol; Industrialproductioncapabilitiesarereasonably available;SystemmeetsorexceedsallEMD PhaseexitcriteriaandMSCentrancecriteria
Outputs: IntegratedSystemDesign, SystemofSystemsPrototypes, CDR, IPB, ProductSupportPlan –SystemCapability&ManufacturingProcess Demonstration, EDMS, LCSP, UpdatedAS/TEMP/SEP

208
Q

(3.3.2) Describe M/S C.

A
  • authorizes entry into P&D
  • Updated AS, OA, no significant manufacturing risks, validated CPD, demonstrated interoperability, demonstrated operational supportability, full funding in FYDP
  • MDA considers any new validated threat environments
  • MDA approves: updated AS/APB, entry into LRIP, ADM
209
Q

(3.3.2) Describe P&D.

A

Purpose: produce and deliver requirements compliant products
Guided by: AS, TEMP, SEP, CPD, LCSP
Activities: LRIP, OT in realistic threat environment, FRP Decision Review, FRP and Deployment; IOC
Outputs: LRIP, FRP/Deployment

210
Q

(3.3.2) Describe O&S.

A

Purpose: Execute support strategy, satisfy materiel readiness and support perf requirements, sustain system over life cycle (including disposal)
Guided by: LCSP, PESHE (disposal)
Activities: LC Sustainment, FOC, Disposal
Complete when no assets remain in service

211
Q

(3.3.2) Describe 2-Pass, 6-Gate Review Process.

A

1-3 (1st pass): Begins prior to MDD, helps approve ICD, AoA guidance, CDD, CONOPS
4-6 (2nd pass): Continues and ends after M/S B (init EMD phase)
6 is repeated regularly after

ED Basic School (5 decks)

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