Exam 3 Flashcards
This is the pinna of the ear and the auditory canal. It consists of integument overlying elastic cartilage. The integument is thin, keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. Hair follicles can be observed in the dermis.
Auricle
In this structure, the outer third of the ear canal is composed of ______ cartilage. The inner two thirds is composed of _____.
External auditory meatus; Elastic; Bone
This is also known as the eardrum, and separates the external auditory canal from the middle ear.
Tympanic membrane
The core of the tympanic membrane is formed from vascularized, innervated _______ tissue.
Connective
The external surface of the tympanic membrane is covered by (THICK/THIN) skin, and the internal surface is covered by simple (SQUAMOUS/CUBOIDAL) epithelium.
Cuboidal
The lining of the ear canal is composed of stratified squamous epithelium with _________ and _______ glands.
Sebaceous; Ceruminous
The middle ear (tympanic cavity) contains the auditory ossicles, made up of 3 bones called…
Malleus (hammer)
Incus (anvil)
Stapes
This bone in the middle ear attaches to the tympanic membrane. It is so-named because it articulates with the “anvil”.
Malleus (hammer)
This bone in the middle ear is an intermediate bone between the stapes and the malleus. It is where the “hammer strikes”.
Incus (anvil)
This bone in the middle ear is the third in the series. It is so-named because it is shaped like a stirrup due to the opening for the stapedial artery. It inserts into the oval window.
Stapes
The 2 openings in the middle ear (tympanic cavity) include the _____ window and _____ window.
Oval; Round
This opening in the middle ear has the stapes attached to its membrane that covers it. It also opens into the scala vestibuli.
Oval window
This opening in the middle ear is a membrane-covered region at the end of the scala tympani.
Round window
There are 2 muscles in the middle ear, which are…
Tensor tympani
Stapedius
This muscle in the middle ear inserts on the malleus and contracts reflexively in response to loud sounds in order to dampen the vibrations of the auditory ossicles.
Tensor tympani
This muscle in the middle ear inserts on the stapes and contracts reflexively in response to loud sounds in order to dampen the vibrations of the auditory ossicles.
Stapedius
The inner ear consists of 4 regions, which are…
Bony labyrinth
Membranous labyrinth
Vestibular organ
Auditory organ
This region of the inner ear is a complex system of canals and chambers embedded in the petrous portion of the temporal bone. It is filled with high-sodium content perilymph and consists of the semicircular canals, cochlea, scala vestibuli, and scala tympani.
Bony labyrinth
What 4 things does the bony labyrinth of the inner ear consist of?
Semicircular canals
Cochlea
Scala vestibuli
Scala tympani
This region of the inner ear is a complex system of membranous structures embedded within the chambers of the bony labyrinth. It is filled with high-potassium content endolymph.
Membranous labyrinth
This region of the inner ear are patches of sensory structures that respond to changes in position. It consists of the maculae of the saccule and utricle, and the cristae ampullaris of the semicircular canals.
Vestibular organs
There are 2 small sacs within the inner ear called the ________ and _______ that have a sensory structure called maculae attached to it.
Saccule; Utricle
The epithelium of the maculae of the saccule and utricle is made up of columnar supporting cells and vestibular hair cells – numerous stereo cilia and a single _______. The hair cells are in contact with afferent nerve endings.
Kinocilium
In the maculae, this is a gelatinous layer containing calcium carbonate crystals called otoliths that overlies the epithelium. Stereocilia of the vestibular hair cells are embedded in this gelatinous layer. Movements of the head displaces this and causes a sensory impulse.
Otolithic membrane
The cristae ampullaris of semicircular ducts are made of columnar supporting cells and hair cells similar to those of the _______.
Maculae
In the cristae ampullaris, this is a gelatinous layer (similar to the otolithic membrane in maculae but without the otoliths). Movement of the head creates shear force between the semicircular canals and the contained fluid. Movement of the fluid displaces this gel layer and causes the stereocilia to bend.
Cupula
This region of the inner ear consists of the cochlear duct (scala media) and the organ of corti.
Auditory organ
The cochlear duct (scala media) divides the bony cochlea into scala ________ and scala ________.
Vestibuli; Tympani
The cochlear duct is associated with 5 components, which are…
Scala vestibuli Scala tympani Vestibular membrane Basilar membrane Stria vascularis
The vestibular membrane forms the (ROOF/FLOOR) of the cochlear duct, and the basilar membrane forms the (ROOF/FLOOR).
Roof; Floor
This component of the cochlear duct forms the lateral aspect and participates in the formation of the endolymph (high potassium content).
Stria vascularis
The organ of corti lies on the (VESTIBULAR/BASILAR) membrane.
Basilar
In this type of immunity, it lacks immune specificity and memory. The response is inflammation and neutrophils are the first responders. We are born with this.
Innate immunity
In this type of immunity acquisition, there is temporary immunity due to donated antibodies (i.e., transplacental passing of maternal antibodies to fetus).
Passive immunity
This type of immunity develops in response to antigens. It is more powerful than innate immunity and takes longer to develop. It displays specificity and memory (develops over time).
Acquired immunity
This type of immunity acquisition is long-lasting/permanent immunity due to self exposure to antigen resulting in memory T cells and B cells specific for antigen. Goes hand-in-hand with acquired immunity.
Active immunity
This type of immunity is antibody-mediated and deals with plasma cells. It’s a type of adaptive or acquired immunity.
Humoral immunity
This type of immunity deals with T cells, B cells, and antigen-presenting cells. It’s a type of adaptive or acquired immunity.
Cell-mediated immunity
Lymphocytes are developed and mature in the primary lymphoid organs, _______ and _____ _____. Precursor cells mature into immunocompetent cells. Each cell is programmed to recognize a specific antigen.
Thymus; Bone marrow
Lymphocytes take up residence in secondary lymphoid organs once they have matured. These organs are ______ ______, ______, and ______.
Lymph nodes; Spleens; Tonsils
Lymphoid ______ or ______ are not enclosed within a capsule and occur singly or in aggregates. They are the sites of B cell localization and proliferation and are transient. They can either be primary or secondary.
Follicles; Nodules
(PRIMARY/SECONDARY) follicles (nodules) are spherical, tightly packed accumulations of virgin B cells and dendritic reticular cells that have not been exposed to antigens.
Primary
(PRIMARY/SECONDARY) follicles (nodules) are derived from primary follicles that have been exposed to non-self antigens and are not present at birth.
Secondary
The structure of a secondary lymph follicle consists of a _______ and ______ ______.
Corona (cortex)
Germinal center
This structure of the secondary lymph follicle is a darker peripheral region. It is composed of densely packed B lymphocytes.
Corona (cortex)
This structure of the secondary lymph follicle is the central, lighter stained region. It is composed of B lymphocytes, memory B cells, plasma cells, dendritic reticular cells which function as antigen-presenting cells.
Germinal center
The secondary lymph follicle vascular supply is from an _______ and _______ for the cortex, and a separate pair of each for the germinal center. Lymph capillaries are NOT present.
Arteriole; Venule
This type of lymphoid tissue is made up of scattered clusters of plasma cells, macrophages, and lymphocytes located in the connective tissue storm and various other sites.
Diffuse lymphoid tissue
In diffuse lymphoid tissue, subcutaneous-associated tissue is found in the _______ layer of the dermis.
Papillary
In diffuse lymphoid tissue, lamina propria-associated tissue includes 3 types which are…
MALT (mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue)
BALT (bronchial-associated lymphoid tissue)
GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissue)
This type of lymphoid tissue is beneath and in contact with the epithelium. It includes various tonsils and Peyer’s patches in the ileum.
Aggregated lymphoid tissue
In lymphopoiesis, all immune system cells originate in the ______ ______. Immature T cells travel to the thymus and B cells travel to specific regions in lymphoid tissue.
Bone marrow
The maturation of (B/T) cells involves the appearance of certain cell surface receptors, which are –
IgM and IgD
MHC class II proteins
Complement receptors
Ig Fc receptors
B cells
There are 5 classes of antibodies, which are…
IgA IgD IgG IgE IgM
The antibody structure consists of _____ and _____ chains, highly variable regions (fab fragment - recognizes antigen), and less variable regions (Fc fragment - binds antibody to cells).
Heavy; Light
This antibody is found in saliva, milk, GU and respiratory tracts.
IgA
This antibody is found on the surface of B cells traveling to lymphoid organs.
IgD
This antibody is the major Ig in blood. It’s responsible for most antibody activity.
IgG
This antibody is associated with allergic responses.
IgE
This antibody is the first antibody class expressed by developing B cells.
IgM
In this complex, the main function is to use its gene products for the presentation of antigenic peptides to T cells.
Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)
There are two classes of MHC gene products, which are…
MHC I
MHC II
This class of MHC gene products is expressed on the surface of all cells except trophoblast and red blood cells.
MHC I
This class of MHC gene products is expressed on the surface of B cells and antigen-presenting cells.
MHC II
_____ + T cells recognized peptide fragments of foreign proteins bound to MHC class I on the surface of cells. Both the _____ and the T cell antigen receptor are required for the binding of MHC class I protein fragments.
CD8; CD8
_____ + T cells recognize peptide fragments of foreign proteins bound to MHC class II proteins on the surface of APCs.
CD4
Pre-T cells develop in bone marrow and travel to the ______ to complete maturation.
Thymus
CD4+ T cells recognize antigens bound to (MHC I/MHC II) molecules. Helper cells assist CD8+ cell differentiation and B cell differentiation.
MHC II
CD8+ T cells contain cytolytic T cells. They bind to an antigen presenting cell and undergo mitosis. The cells release ______ and _____ ligands. It also recognizes antigens bound to MHC class I molecules and are mediators of cellular immunity.
Perforins; Fas
CD16+ T cells contain _______ ______ T cells. They are activated by tumor cell antigens and release cytokines.
Natural Killer (NK)
This is used to stimulate the proliferations of NK cells.
Interleukin-2
This is used to activate NK cells.
Interferon-y
This is used by CD16+ T cells to activate macrophages.
Macrophage activating factor (MAF)
CD16+ T cells use chemotactic factor and ______ necrosis factor (TNF-B) to kill tumor cells directly.
Tumor
In T cell-mediated immunity, macrophage phagocytizes foreign material. Foreign proteins are then broken down into fragments, some of which have antigenic properties (epitopes). Antigens are expressed on the surface of macrophage bound to MHC-II. The MHC-II/antigen complex is then presented to activated helper T cell and the activated T cell undergoes _______.
Mitosis
When an activated T cell undergoes mitosis, some daughter cells become _______ cells and some secrete _______.
Memory; Interleukins
In T cell-mediated immunity, T cells attract ____ cells.
B
B cells have access to free _______, and B cells undergo mitosis. Some daughter cells become ______ cells and secrete the appropriate antibodies, while some become memory cells.
Antigens; Plasma
The _________ system is an array of about 20 serum proteins which are synthesized in the liver and found in the blood. It consists of classic and alternate pathways.
Complement
This pathway of the complement system is a cascade activated by antibody binding to a pathogen.
Classic
This pathway of the complement system is a cascade directly activated by the pathogen.
Alternate
The complement system facilitates _________ responses.
Inflammatory
The complement cascade (either pathway) involves coating the ________ with complement initiating the cascade.
Pathogen
____ is the first complement factor in the cascades and is made up of three subcomponents – _____, _____, and ____.
C1; C1q; C1r; C1s
In the complement pathway, immunoglobulins bind to the surface of the pathogen. _____ binds to the Fc region of the Ig. This in turn activates _____, which activates _____, and initiates the complement cascade.
C1q; C1r; C1s
Once activated, C1s then goes on to activate _____, which splits into ____ and ____. The latter binds to the surface of the pathogen.
C4; C4a; C4b
Once activated, C1s also goes on to activate _____, which splits into _____ and _____. The latter binds to C4b to create a complex.
C2; C2a; C2b
C2b binds to C4b to create a C4b-2b complex, which is called ______ ______.
C3 convertase
Once we have C3 convertase, it leads to the cleavage of C3 into _____ and _____.
C3a; C3b
C3b is considered the most important ______. This is what “butters” your pathogens to make them more palatable for macrophages.
Opsonin
Multiple C3b will bind to C3 convertase, creating a C4b-2b-3b complex. This complex is also know as _____ _____.
C5 convertase
C5 convertase will cleave C5 into _____ and _____.
C5a; C5b
This complement factor is responsible for recruiting leukocytes to the infection site.
C3a
When ____, ____, ____, and ____ are added to the complement complex, they form pores in the membrane of the pathogen (membrane attack complex).
C6; C7; C8; C9
The “final opsonization” consists of ____, ____, ____, and ____.
C5b-4b-3b-2b
The complement cascade results in – 1) the activation of the _______ ______ ______ on the pathogen leading to perforations and lysis, 2) production of opsonins (coatings that make antigens more palatable to phagocytes), and 3) the release of chemotactic agents (chemokine) which attract phagocytes (chemotaxis) to the areas of infection or inflammation.
Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)
This consists of the cells that typically pack areas of the lymphoid organ. Mostly lymphocytes.
Parenchyma
This consists mostly of reticular fibers and cells, including undifferentiated cells and fixed and free macrophages.
Stroma
This is considered the entry and exit point for vessels in the lymph node.
Hilus
(EFFERENT/AFFERENT) lymphatic vessels as well as arteries and veins enter/leave through the hilus. (EFFERENT/AFFERENT) lymphatic vessels enter the convex side of the node.
Efferent; Afferent
This component of the lymph node is composed of dense collagen fibers, some elastic fibers and smooth muscle fibers.
Capsule
The lymph node outer ______ contains lymph follicles (nodules).
Cortex
The lymph follicles contain B cells, follicular dendritic cells, and migrating dendritic cells. These are all _______ presenting cells.
Antigen
There are 2 types of lymph follicles, _______ and ______.
Primary; Secondary
This type of lymph follicle contains a mantle and germinal center (in process of handling antigen).
Secondary
This type of lymph follicle lacks a mantle and germinal center.
Primary
The (INNER/OUTER) cortex contains Th cells, macrophages, and HEVs (high endothelial venules).
Inner (deep)
These are the port of entry for circulating differentiated lymphocytes to seed lymph node. It adds lymphocytes from other spaces.
HEVs (high endothelial venules)
The ________ is an irregular arrangement of loose medullary sinuses and dense medullary cords.
Medulla
The medullary _______ are lined with macrophages, and the medullary _______ consist of blood vessels, lymphoblasts and plasma cells.
Sinuses; Cords
The medulla is the site of ________ reentry into the lymph stream.
Lymphocyte
This component of the thymus contains blood vessels, efferent lymphatics but NOT afferent lymphatics, and extends trabeculae (septa) into the parenchyma.
Capsule
Since the thymus does not contain afferent lymphatics, ______ does not circulate through it.
Lymph
This component of the thymus is made of delicate CT and divides the thymus into incomplete lobules. It stops at the medulla.
Trabeculae (septa)
Each ______ of the thymus is composed of an outer, darker staining cortex and an inner, lighter staining medulla.
Lobule
The cortex of the thymus is stained densely with basic dyes such as…
H and E
The cortex of the thymus is composed of epithelial reticular cells, which secrete _______, and T cells in various stages of differentiation.
Thymosin
________ migrate from cortical areas to medullary areas in the thymus.
Thymocytes
In the thymus, blood vessels are surrounded by continuous epithelial barrier. This allows the thymus to maintain _________ while segregated from antigens.
Lymphopoeisis
The _______ of the thymus is specialized to allow entry channel into the blood stream of mature lymphocytes. Capillary beds are not sheathed by epithelial cells. It also contains Hassall’s corpuscles.
Medulla
_______ _______ are in the medulla of the thymus and are whorls of highly keratinized medullary epithelial cells, which produce cytokine thymic stromal lymphopoietin. This stimulates thymic dendritic cells needed for the maturation of single positive T cells.
Hassall’s corpuscles
Double (POSITIVE/NEGATIVE) T cells lack cell surface molecules typical of mature T cells. They enter the cortex from blood vessels and proliferate in the subcapsular area.
Negative
Double (POSITIVE/NEGATIVE) T cells move to the outer cortex. They are confronted with epithelial cells with cell surface MHC classes I and II for clonal selection. They express both CD4 (helper T cells) and CD8 (cytolytic T cells) receptors and TCR receptors.
Positive
Single _______ T cells move to the inner cortex. These express TCR receptors and either CD4 (helper T cells) or CD8 (cytolytic T cells) co-receptors.
Positive
In the thymus, clonal deletion is completed in the ______.
Medulla
The _____-_____ barrier is located in the thymic cortex and prevents antigens in the blood from reaching developing T cells in the cortex. It is leaky during fetal life to allow for development of immunologic tolerance to self-antigen.
Blood-thymic
The _______ is composed of red and white pulp.
Spleen
This is the only lymphatic organ specialized to filter blood. It stores and removes worn-out RBCs and recycles iron. It also converts hemoglobin bilirubin and is responsible for blood formation in the fetus.
Spleen
The spleen’s immunological functions include screens for foreign material in the ______. It produces lymphocytes and plasma cells. Removal least overwhelming bacterial infections in infants, children, and young adults.
Blood
(RED/WHITE) pulp of the spleen consists of elongated, branched strands that are always associated with arteries. The B cell area contains secondary follicles in which the central arteriole is off center. T cells are found in the areas surrounding the central artery near its center.
White (appears purple in photomicrographs)
In white pulp of the spleen, T cells are found in the areas surrounding the central artery near the center of the pulp. This forms the _______ _______ _______.
Periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS)
This forms the sinusoidal interface between red pulp and white pulp in the spleen. It has an abundance of antigen-presenting cells. Lymphocytes first encounter antigens here. Activated T-helper cells activate B cells here.
Marginal Zone
The (RED/WHITE) pulp surrounds the other pulp and makes up about 80% of the spleen. It functions to filter the blood and contains large numbers of RBCs and other blood elements.
Red
_______ cords form the red pulp parenchyma. This contains various blood cells, plasma cells, and antigen presenting cells. Terminal capillaries open directly into substance of cords (open circulation). Macrophages destroy worn-out or defective red blood cells.
Billroth
______ ______ are endothelial-lined with a discontinuous basement membrane. Contain storage sites for healthy red blood cells.
Venous sinusoids
The ______ artery enters through the hilus to supply the spleen. Trabecular arteries branch off of this.
Splenic
The veins of the spleen drain into pulp veins which unite with trabecular veins, which forms the ______ vein and exits at the hilus.
Splenic
After capillaries form, supplying white pulp, central arteries lose their white pulp investment and enter red pulp to form a _________. This is composed of pulp arteriole, sheathed arteriole, and terminal capillary. This drains into the venous sinuses, which leads to veins.
Penicillus
The four general components of the integument from superficial to deep include…
1) Epidermis
2) Basement membrane
3) Dermis
4) Subcutaneous tissue (superficial fascia)
The (PRIMARY/SECONDARY) dermal ridge is related to finger prints. It’s found everywhere except the forehead, external ear, perineum, and scrotum. Subdivided into two secondary dermal ridges by interpapillary peg.
Primary
The (PRIMARY/SECONDARY) dermal ridges occur in double rows and are branched. They have thin collagenous, reticular, and elastic fibers.
Secondary
This is the downward growth of the epidermis along the crest.
Interpapillary peg
These are upward projections from each secondary dermal ridge.
Dermal papillae
(THIN/THICK) skin occurs only on palms and soles and is hairless. (THIN/THICK) skin occurs over the rest of the body. It is thicker on extensor surfaces than flexor surfaces.
Thick; Thin
The epidermis is made up of what kind of epithelial tissue?
Stratified squamous
List the 5 layers of the epidermis from superficial to deep.
1) Stratum corneum
2) Stratum lucidum
3) Stratum granulosum
4) Stratum spinosum
5) Stratum basale (germinativum)
Which epidermal layer is absent in thin skin?
Stratum lucidum
The stratum basale (germinativum) is the deepest epidermal layer and consists of columnar to high cuboidal keratinocytes. Keratins 5 and 14 (low-molecular weight keratins). They are a single layer of cells held together by _________ and __________ hold the layer to the basal lamina.
Desmosomes; Hemidesmosomes
The stratum basale (germinativum) is an area of high _______ activity. It produces stem cells differentiating keratinocytes.
Mitotic
The stratum spinosum contains polyhedral-shaped cells, which are called _______ cells. This layer contains Keratins 1 and 10, lamellar bodies, and tonofibrils.
Prickle
This layer of the epidermis is multilayered and contains Keratins 2e and 9. It has flattened nucleated keratinocytes, keratohyalin aggregates, lamellar bodies, and tonofilaments.
Stratum granulosum
This layer of the epidermis is considered the “ghost” layer. It contains flat keratinocytes lacking nuclei and organelles. It is only found in thick skin and contains eleiden.
Stratum lucidum
This layer of the epidermis is multilayered, thicker in thick skin, and has enucleated, flattened, dead keratinocytes. The cytoplasm is replaced by keratin.
Stratum corneum
The ________ cell envelope has a multi-lamellar lipid layer covalently linked to involucrine on the extracellular side. Intracellularly it contains involucrine, small proline-rich proteins, loricrin, and fillagrin and keratin complexes.
Cornified
This layer is loose connective tissue that underlies the dermis. It’s not considered part of the integument. May contain fat cells that can form a thick layer called panniculus adiposus.
Hypodermis
The dermis is composed two layers called the…
Papillary layer
Reticular layer
This layer of the dermis is composed of loose CT and is closest to the epidermis. It is separated from the epidermis by the basal lamina and is a network of fine elastic fibers and abundant capillaries.
Papillary layer
This layer of the dermis is composed of dense irregular CT. It includes fibrocytes, macrophages, and adipocytes.
Reticular layer
________ cells (dendritic cells) are from monocytes. They are antigen-presenting cells and are located primarily in the stratum spinosum. They migrate from the epidermis to lymph nodes. They also interact with Birbeck granules, which contain the proteins langerin and CD1a involved in the uptake and delivery of antigens.
Langerhans
______ cells are mechanoreceptors that also act as diffuse neuroendocrine cells. Usually in stratum germinativum. Contain catecholamine-like granules.
Merkel
_______ are derived from melanoblasts. Do not form desmosome attachments in the epidermis. Inject melanin granules into keratinocytes.
Melanocytes
The epidermis starts as a single layer of ectodermal cells. It divides during the sixth week to form the _______, which sloughs off for form vernix caseosa, and the inner cuboidal germinal layer. This layer continues to proliferate to form adult layers of the epidermis and derivatives such as fingernails, toenails, and hair buds.
Periderm
The dermis is derived from the _______.
Mesoderm
________ glands are a type of holocrine gland with branched acinar glands with short ducts. They found everywhere except palms and soles. Continuously produce sebum, which is released into the hair follicle. Growth is stimulated at puberty by sex hormones.
Sebaceous
These type of glands can be both merocrine and apocrine glands. The merocrine has cholinergic endings and the apocrine secretions are thicker and more viscous and have adrenergic innervation. Special types of apocrine are ceruminous glands and Glands of Moll.
Sudoriferous (sweat)
Hair follicles develop from the epidermis as elastic, keratinized threads. It has 3 parts, which are…
Root sheaths (internal and external)
Hair shaft
Hair bulb
Sebaceous glands and ______ ______ muscles are associated with hair follicles.
Arrestor pili
This part of the hair follicle is an expanded lower part. It has a matrix and vascularized dermal papilla.
Hair bulb
This part of the hair follicle is a down growth of the epidermis.
External root sheath
This part of the hair follicle is generated by the bulb matrix. It has 3 layers, including Henle’s layer (outermost), Huxley’s layer, and the cuticle. The cuticle interlocks with the cuticle of the hair shaft.
Internal root sheath
This part of the hair follicle has 3 layers, the medulla (innermost), cortex, and cuticle.
Hair shaft
