Exam 2 Flashcards
What are the 3 types of cartilage?
Hyaline cartilage
Fibrocartilage
Elastic cartilage
Most of the skeletal system in all vertebrates begins as ________.
Cartilage
These are cells that form cartilage.
Chondroblasts
These are cells that maintain cartilage.
Chondrocytes
The extracellular matrix of cartilage is made up of (TYPE I/TYPE II) collagen and amorphous ground substance.
Type II (Type I in fibrocartilage)
These are pockets within the matrix where the chondroblasts and chondrocytes are found.
Lacunae
Cartilage is (VASCULAR/AVASCULAR).
Avascular
What is the outer fibrous layer surrounding cartilage? What lies within this layer?
Perichondrium; Fibroblasts
The inner chondrogenic layer gives rise to ________ which become ________.
Chondroblasts; Chondrocytes
The fibroblasts in the perichondrium become ________ in the inner chondrogenic layer.
Chondroblasts
An _______ group are groups of 2-8 chondrocytes occupying the same lacunae. Result of mitotic division. Cells will become separated as they begin to lay down matrix of their own.
Isogenous
What are the components of the cartilage matrix?
Collagen type II (type I in fibrocartilage)
Hyaluronan (hyaluronic acid)
Chondroitin sulfate; Keratin sulfate; Heparin sulfate
Glycosaminoglycans
The _______ matrix surrounds each chondrocyte. It has a high glycosaminoglycan content and low collagen content. (Newer matrix)
Territorial
The ________ matrix surrounds the territorial matrix. It has a low glycosaminoglycan content and high collagen content. (Older matrix)
Inter-territorial
What is the most common type of cartilage?
Hyaline cartilage
Hyaline cartilage (IS/IS NOT) surrounded by perichondrium.
Is
Hyaline cartilage has 2 growth patterns, either _______ (adding more to outside of existing matrix) or _______ (adding more within the existing matrix).
Appositional; Interstitial
Where is hyaline cartilage located?
External auditory meatus (ear canal) Larynx Tracheal cartilages Bronchial cartilages Fetal long bones Articular ends of bones
How is elastic cartilage recognized?
By the addition of elastic fibers to the matrix
Elastic cartilage (IS/IS NOT) surrounded by perichondrium.
Is
Where is elastic cartilage found?
Auricle (pinna) of the ear
Epiglottis
Hyaline cartilage chondrocytes are often found in (SINGLES/GROUPS).
Groups
Elastic cartilage chondrocytes are often found in (SINGLES/GROUPS).
Singles
Fibrocartilage chondrocytes are often found in (SINGLES/GROUPS).
Singles (sparse)
Fibrocartilage (IS/IS NOT) surrounded by perichondrium.
Is not
Where is fibrocartilage found?
Intervertebral discs
Pubic symphysis
Insertion of some tendons and ligaments
Bone tissue is based on a _______ system.
Canalicular
Bone is (VASCULAR/AVASCULAR).
Vascular
Increase in bone length occurs through (APPOSITIONAL/INTERSTITIAL) growth of a _______ cartilage model.
Appositional; Hyaline
Bone is formed by ________ which become ________ that maintain it.
Osteoblasts; Osteocytes
Matrix of bone consists of two major components: an organic component referred to as _______ and an inorganic component referred to as _________.
Osteoid; Hydroxyapatite
Osteoid gives bone its ________ and hydroxyapatite gives it its structural ________.
Flexibility; Strength
What are the 3 types of bone?
Spongy
Woven
Compact
This type of bone occurs during bone development and bone repair. It is produced rapidly, has a haphazard collagen foundation, and has less structural integrity.
Woven bone
This type of bone is also called trabecular or cancellous bone. It has a 3D lattice of branching, bony spicules intertwined to form trabecular surrounding the bone marrow spaces in the long bones and flat bones.
Spongy bone
This type of bone is also called lamellar bone.
Compact bone
Compact bone consists of an ______ or ______ system.
osteon; Haversian
In an osteon, osteocytes are found between the ________ located inside the ________.
Lamellae; Lacunae
Osteocytes in an osteon are connected to each and the Haversian canal via _________.
Canaliculi
__________ canals run perpendicular to Haversian canals and connect the Haversian canals to each other and to the surface of the bone.
Volkmann’s
(OSTEOBLASTS/OSTEOCLASTS) secrete bone matrix and secrete collagen and catalyze mineralization.
Osteoblasts
(OSTEOBLASTS/OSTEOCLASTS) maintain bone matrix and help control calcium and phosphate levels in the matrix.
Osteocytes
These cells remodel bone through bone resorption.
Osteoclast
These are stem cells which in an adult are described as bone lining cells. They are found in the inner portion of the periosteum, in the endosteum, and lining vascular canals of compact bone.
Osteoprogenitor cells
Osteoprogenitor cells give rise to _________ and bone lining cells.
Osteoblasts
Osteoblasts are characterized by what 2 things?
Alkaline phosphatase (not found in osteocytes) Vitamin D3 (regulates expression of osteocalcin)
What are the 6 major protein products from osteoblasts?
Type I collagen Osteocalcin Osteonectin Osteopontin Osteoprotegerin RANKL
This protein product from osteoblasts has a high binding affinity for hydroxyapatite and its expression is regulated by Vitamin D3.
Osteocalcin
This type of bone cell is derived from monocyte lineage. It’s technically a type of macrophage.
Osteoclasts
The ____ cycle occurs at adult remodeling sees and during development.
ARF (activation-resorption-reversal-formation)
This hormone is the primary regulator of bone turnover.
Parathyroid hormone
At (LOW/HIGH) PTH levels, bone formation by osteoblasts is stimulated.
Low
At (LOW/HIGH) PTH levels, osteoblasts are stimulated to release osteoclast-differentiation factors (bone will be reabsorbed).
High
Elevated PTH levels result in eroded bone and fibrosis of the resulting spaces (______ _____).
Osteitis fibrosa
PTH binds to receptors on the osteoblast. The osteoblast is then stimulated to synthesize _____ and ______.
M-CSF (Monocyte colony stimulating factor)
RANKL
After the osteoblast synthesizes M-CSF and RANKL, it releases the M-CSF which binds to the M-CSF receptor on the monocyte. The monocyte is now a ________ and expresses _____.
Macrophage; RANK
RANK binds to ______ (this couples together the osteoblast and the macrophage). The macrophage then becomes a multinucleate immature osteoclast.
RANKL (on the osteoblast)
One of the proteins that osteoblasts secrete is __________, which binds to RANKL with greater affinity than RANK. This inhibits maturation of osteoclasts. PTH blocks the synthesis of this protein to allow osteoclast formation.
Osteoprotegerin
_______ acts to reduce bone resorption.
Calcitonin
Two major products secreted by osteoclasts are involved in bone reabsorption, these are…
Cathepsin K
H+ Cl- ions
This osteoclast product used in bone reabsorption is a lysosomal protease involved in bone remodeling and resorption that can catabolize elastin, collagen, and gelatin (organic matrix - osteoid).
Cathepsin K
This osteoclast product used in bone reabsorption dissolves the inorganic matrix (hydroxyapatite).
H+ Cl- ions
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of fibrocartilage?
A. Type II collagen B. Not surrounded by a perichondrium C. Found in intervertebral discs D. Increased collagen in the matrix E. Neither A nor B are characteristic of fibrocartilage.
A. Type II collagen
Which of the following is not part of a Haversian system?
A. Periosteum B. Lacunae C. Lamellae D. Volkmann canals E. Canaliculi
A. Periosteum
Parathyroid hormone stimulates osteoblasts to secrete/express which of the following?
A. Osteoprotegerin B. M-CSF C. RANKL D. All of the above E. Only B and C
E. Only B and C
In intramembranous bone formation, an aggregation of _________ cells controlled by signals form into osteoblasts.
Mesenchymal
In intramembranous bone formation, once the mesenchymal cells have become osteoblasts, the osteoblasts then secrete _______ which will trap some of the osteoblasts and grow to form a ________. The trapped osteoblasts become ________.
Osteoid; Blastema; Osteocytes
The osteocytes within the blastema will form a functional ________. Once this happens, _________ will occur via calcium ions (calcification). This is now primary bone tissue.
Syncytium; Mineralization
Osteoblasts form an epithelial-like covering over the surface of primary bone tissue and can secrete more ______ on the surface. This includes collagen I and non-collagen proteins.
Osteoid
The primary ossification center (intramembranous bone formation) becomes a trabecula. Numerous trabeculae fuse together to form _______ bone.
Spongy
During intramembranous bone formation, initial bone formed is ______ bone, which will become spongy bone. In this type of bone the collagen fibers are arranged randomly.
Woven
During intramembranous bone formation, when the collagen fibers become aligned then the bone becomes _______ (compact).
Lamellar
Membrane bone usually consists of 2 layers of ______ bone enclosing a layer of ______ bone (diploe).
Compact; Spongy
In endochondral bone formation, cartilage is _______ by bone.
Replaced
In endochondral bone formation, the primary ossification center occurs in the future _______ of the cartilage model (long bones).
Diaphysis
In endochondral bone formation, chondrocytes become ________ and secrete _____ which allows for blood vessels to break through the perichondrium and bring in osteoprogenitor cells.
Hypertrophic; VEG-F (Vascular endothelial growth factor)
In endochodral bone formation, hypertrophic cartilage cells undergo _______, leaving behind thin strands of _______ matrix. Osteoblasts (from osteoprogenitor cells) use these strands as substrates for deposition of ______.
Apoptosis; Calcified; Osteoid
In endochondral bone formation, once the osteoid is deposited by the osteoblasts, it is _______ to form bone.
Calcified
Endochondral bone formation occurs within a ________ cartilage model.
Hyaline
In endochondral bone formation, cells derived from initial perichondrium begin to secrete _______ appositionally. The perichondrium is now called the ________.
Osteoid; Periosteum
In endochondral bone formation, secondary ossification centers occur in the ________.
Epiphyses
In long bones, epiphyses and diaphyses are separated initially by _________ plates (growth plates).
Epiphyseal
Epiphyseal plates have 4 zones, which are…
Reserve zone
Proliferative zone
Hypertrophic zone
Vascular invasion zone
In long bones, osteoclasts break down bone in the center of the diaphysis, forming a ________ cavity (cavity used for connective tissue).
Medullary
At the distal end of the epiphyseal plate _______ is continually added. At the proximal end of the epiphyseal plate, cartilage is replaced by ______.
Cartilage; Bone
A ______ is where two bones come together.
Joint
The 3 types of joints are…
Cartilaginous
Fibrous
Synovial
Cartilaginous joints are also known as _________.
Amphiarthroses
In cartilaginous joints, bones are joined by ________ or _______ cartilage.
Fibrocartilage; Hyaline cartilage
The 2 types of cartilaginous joints (amphiarthroses) are _______ and ______.
Symphysis; Synchondrosis
A symphysis cartilaginous joint is joined by ________. Examples include intervertebral discs and the pubic symphysis.
Fibrocartilage
A synchondrosis cartilaginous joint is joined by _______ _______. Examples include epiphyseal plates and the first sternocostal joint.
Hyaline cartilage
Fibrous joints are also known as ________.
Synarthroses
Fibrous joints are joined by ________ and/or _______ fibrous connective tissue.
Collagenous; Elastic
The 3 types of fibrous joints are…
Suture
Gomphosis
Syndesmosis
This type of fibrous joint are the joints that are between the bones of the calvaria (skull).
Suture
This type of fibrous joint is a “peg-in-a-socket” joint such as the teeth in the alveoli.
Gomphosis
This type of fibrous joint is formed when bones are joined by an interosseous fibrous membrane such as the fibrous membrane between the tibia and fibula.
Syndesmosis
Synovial joints are also known as ________.
Diarthroses
This type of joint is a movable joint that is exemplified by a connective capsule surrounding a fluid-filled joint space. They are often reinforced by thickening of the outer part of the capsule referred to as ligaments.
Synovial joint
Synovial joints that allow movement in one plane only are _______.
Monaxial (hinge and pivot joints)
Synovial joints that allow movement in two planes only are _______.
Biaxial (condyloid and saddle joints)
Synovial joints that allow movement in three planes are ______.
Triaxial (ball-and-socket joints)
A synovial joint contains a cavity filled with ______ fluid.
Synovial
A synovial joint contains a capsule with an outer fibrous layer that is ________ and an inner layer (synovial membrane) that is _______.
Innervated; Vascularized
The ends of the bones are surrounded by _______ cartilage in a synovial joint.
Articular
Articular cartilage is made of ______ cartilage and lacks a ________. Its edges are attached to the joint capsule.
Hyaline; Perichondrium
Synovial fluid contains ______ (hyaluronic acid-protein complex) that is produced by synovial cells.
Mucin
The 2 types of synovial cells are..
Type A (macrophage-like) Type B (fibroblast-like)
Blood is what percentage of the body’s total weight?
8%
What is the pH range for blood?
7.35-7.45 (go outside this and you die)
_______ is blood minus the formed elements.
Plasma
_______ is plasma without the blood-clotting proteins.
Serum
In heparinized (anticoagulant) and centrifuged blood, there are three layers which are…
Supernatant (plasma)
Buffy coat (leukocytes)
Precipitate (sedimented red blood cells)
Plasma contains ______, but serum lacks it.
Fibrinogen (functions in blood clotting)
How many liters of blood are present in the body?
About 5 liters
What is the normal percentage for hematocrit in the blood?
42% (women)
47% (men)
What are the 3 blood proteins?
Fibrinogen
Albumin
Globulin (Immunoglobulins)
This blood protein is made in the liver and functions in blood clotting. Its a target for thrombin.
Fibrinogen
This blood protein is made in the liver and exerts major osmotic pressure on blood vessel walls.
Albumins
What are the 3 types of blood cells?
Erythrocytes
Leukocytes
Megakaryocytes
Leukocytes can be divided into 2 groups which are…
Granulocytes
Agranulocytes
Granulocytes can be divided into 3 groups which are…
Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils
Agranulocytes can be divided into 2 groups which are…
Monocytes (can become macrophages)
Lymphocytes
Megakaryocytes become what?
Platelets
The number of erythrocytes can increase under the influence of ________ which is produced by the kidney.
Erythropoietin
Erythrocytes do not contain granules or _______. Its major contents are lipids, ATP, carbonic anhydrase, and hemoglobin.
Organelles
Erythrocyte proteins are about 50% integral, and the peripheral proteins include _______ and ______. These are important for keeping its shape (biconcave).
Spectrin
Actin
Spectrin is a tetramer of two polypeptide chains, _____ and _____.
Alpha
Beta
This protein links the spectrin-actin network and the plasma membrane in erythrocytes by binding to spectrum and a transmembrane protein (band 3).
Ankyrin
This protein is a link that binds spectrin-actin junctions and the transmembrane protein glycophorin in erythrocytes.
Protein 4.1
Neutrophils (Leukocyte-granulocyte) are also referred to as ___________ leukocytes (PMNs).
Polymorphonuclear
Neutrophils have 3-5 _______ lobes with connecting strands.
Nuclear
Neutrophils contain small, numerous specific granules that contain _______ and other proteases. It also has large, less numerous azurophilic granules that contain _______ and __________.
Lysozyme; Elastase; Myeloperoxidase
Neutrophils remain in circulation for 10-12 (HOURS/DAYS) then can live for 1-2 (HOURS/DAYS) after leaving circulation.
Hours; Days
This type of leukocyte can secrete a class of enzymes capable of destroying certain bacteria by formation of free radicals (superoxide) as well as the release of lysozyme and lactoferrin, which destroy bacterial walls.
Neutrophils
This type of leukocyte has a lobulated nucleus (bilobed; horse-shoe shaped) with large, membrane-bound granules. It’s also named for its love of basic dyes.
Basophils
The basophil’s large, membrane-bound granules contain vasoactive substances, which are…
Serotonin
Heparin (anticoagulant)
Kallikrein (attracts eosinophils)
The large, membrane-bound granules of the basophil can produce leukotrienes, which do what 2 things?
Increase vascular permeability
Slow contraction of smooth muscles
This type of leukocyte has a bilobed nucleus, specific granules, and responds in allergic diseases and parasitic infections. It will phagocytize antibody-antigen complexes and parasites.
Eosinophils
Eosinophils have 3 specific granules which are…
Major basic protein (MBP)
Peroxidase
Cationic protein
Major basic protein (eosinophil granule) disrupts _______ membranes and causes basophils to release _______.
Parasite; Histamine
Cationic protein (eosinophil granule) neutralizes _______ and is anti-parasitic.
Heparin
This leukocyte is large, round, sometimes has a slightly indented nucleus which fills most of the cell. Has no granules.
Lymphocytes
The larger a lymphocyte is the (NEWER/OLDER) it is.
Older
___ lymphocytes are a precursor of plasma cells and ___ lymphocytes are precursors of T lymphocytes.
B lymphocytes; T lymphocytes
This is the largest leukocyte. It is eccentrically located, and has a kidney-shaped nucleus. It is agranular but appears to have granules due to small lysosomes in cytoplasm. It’s the precursor of macrophages and osteoclasts.
Monocytes
These are fragments of cells that are derived from megakaryocytes. They enhance aggregation by release of factors, and they promote clot formation, retraction, and dissolution.
Platelets
Adhesion of platelets involves _______.
Integrins
Platelets release ________ which increases platelet aggregation.
Thromboxane
Endothelial cells release ________ which decreases platelet aggregation.
Prostacyclin
This is the term for the elimination of bleeding.
Hemostasis
The most effective mechanisms for hemostasis occur in (SMALL/LARGE) vessels such as capillaries, arterioles, and venues.
Small
The accumulation of blood in tissues is called a ________.
Hematoma
Put the following hemostatic sequence of events (in small vessels) in order from first to last:
A. Slowing of blood B. Blood clotting (coagulation) C. Constriction of vessels D. Constriction of smooth muscles around vessels E. Formation of platelet plug
- D
- C
- A
- E
- B
Platelets adhere to the underlying ________ of the exposed injury in endothelial lining.
Collagen
____ and other factors cause the platelets to aggregate, forming a plug.
ADP
In addition to ADP and other factors, the conversion of _________ acid in the platelet plasma membrane to __________ will further stimulate platelet aggregation.
Arachidonic acid; Thromboxane A2
____ ________ factor is a plasma protein, released from ______-______ bodies in endothelial cells, that facilitates the adherence of platelets to the walls of the damaged blood vessel.
Von Willebrand; Weibel-Palade
________ is always found in the blood of normal individuals. It is an inactive form of an enzyme that is activated by Factor ____. In its activated state, called _______, it catalyzes the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
Prothrombin; Factor XII; Thrombin
_____ is a mesh-work in which platelets, blood cells, and plasma become entrapped to form the actual clot.
Fibrin
________ is always present in the blood of normal individuals. It is formed by the liver. It can convert into fibrin.
Fibrinogen
The fibrin meshwork forms in the presence of Factor ____, which is also activated by ________.
XIII; Thrombin
The term “factor” is another name for ______.
Proteins
When fibrinogen is being converted to fibrin, it is split into a number of __________ by thrombin. These are then linked by Factor XIII.
Polypeptides
The term used for the dissolution of fibrin clots is…
Fibrinolysis
Fibrinolysis occurs through activation of the _________ _______ system.
Plasminogen activator
Plasminogen activator proteins convert inactive ________ to its enzymatic (active) form, ______. This dissolves the clot.
Plasminogen; Plasmin
One of the plasminogen activators is ______ plasminogen activator, or ____ for short. This is produced by endothelial cells and circulates in the blood.
Tissue; t-PA
t-PA is a (STRONG/WEAK) enzyme in the absence of fibrin, so fibrin actually (INITIATES/STOPS) its own destruction.
Weak; Initiates
_______ and ____ dissolve the clot.
Plasmin; t-PA
The (EXTRINSIC/INTRINSIC) pathway is initiated by injury to the endothelium of the blood vessel exposing collagen fibers. Everything necessary for it to occur is already within the blood, including calcium, required as a cofactor for many of the sequential steps in the clotting cascades.
Intrinsic
The (EXTRINSIC/INTRINSIC) pathway involves the formation of tissue factor (thromboplastin or Factor III).
Extrinsic
__________ is a membrane-bound lipoprotein expressed at sites of cell injury; it is derived from the plasma or organelle membranes of damaged cells in the disrupted tissue and enters into circulating blood. It’s involved in the extrinsic pathway
Thromboplastin
Activated Factor XII (Hageman Factor) activates Factor ___.
Factor XI
Activated Factor XI activates Factor ___.
Factor IX
Activated Factor IX combines with activated Factor ____ and calcium to activate Factor ____.
Factor VIII; Factor X
_______ is also involved in the activation of Factor XI and Factor VIII.
Thrombin
Factor XII converts prothrombin to thrombin AND _________ to ________ (involved in formation of bradykinin).
Prekallikrein; Kallikrein
Kallikrein is involved in the formation of ________ (increases vascular permeability) in the ______ cascade and in the conversion of plasminogen to ______ in the fibrinolytic system.
Bradykinin; Kinin; Plasmin
Kallikrein can also act as a positive feedback loop and activate more _______ factor (Factor XII).
Hageman
In the extrinsic pathway, thromboplastin leads to the activation of Factor ____.
Factor VII
In the extrinsic pathway, tissue factor plus Factor VII and calcium will activate Factor ____.
Factor X
Both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathway end with the activation of Factor ___.
Factor X
In the common pathway, activated Factor X combines with activated Factor ___ and calcium to activate _________.
Factor V; Prothrombin
Factor V is activated by _________.
Thrombin
Prothrombin (inactive) and thrombin (active) is known as Factor ___.
Factor II
Thrombin (Factor II) with calcium converts _________ (Factor I) to ______.
Fibrinogen; Fibrin
Thrombin with calcium also activates Factor ____, which is necessary in the cross-linking of fibrin polymers to stabilize the fibrin gel.
Factor XIII
Most of the clotting factors are synthesized in the ______. Dysfunctions in this organ may affect the clotting mechanism.
Liver
Vitamin ___ (stored in the liver) is necessary in the synthesis of Factors ___, ___, and ___.
K; VII; IX; X
This is an antibody-induced hemolytic disease in the newborn that is caused by blood group incompatibility between mother and fetus. This incompatibility occurs when the fetus inherits RBC antigenic determinants that are foreign to the mother.
Erythroblastosis fetalis
___ antigen is the major cause of Rh incompatibility within a mother and fetus.
D
The initial exposure to the Rh antigen during the first pregnancy does not cause erythroblastosis fettles because ____ is produced and these are too large to cross the placenta. Subsequent exposure to D antigen during second or third pregnancy leads to a strong ___ response, and it can cross the placenta.
IgM; IgG
Rh negative mothers are given anti-D globulin soon after deliver of an Rh (NEGATIVE/POSITIVE) baby. Anti-D antibodies was the antigenic sites on the fetal RBCs that may have leaked into the maternal circulation during childbirth.
Positive
Hemolysis in erythroblastosis fetalis results in hemolytic ______ which causes hypoxic injury to the heart and liver leading to generalized edema (hydrous fetalis), _______ which causes damage to the CNS, and hyperbilirubinemia.
Anemia; Jaundice
In leukocyte extravasation, ____ is released by endothelial cells and increases vascular permeability.
NO (Nitric Oxide)
Two phases are involved in the cellular adhesion molecules of leukocyte extravasation. These phases are…
Selectin phase
Integrin phase
In leukocyte extravasation, the selectin phase has ______ ______-__ antigens (oligosaccharide ligands) for P-selectin binding found on the leukocyte membrane.
Sialyl Lewis-x
__-selectin appears on the cell surface when endothelial cells are activated by inflammatory signaling.
P
Oligosaccharide ligands on leukocytes bind to ________ ________ _______ (CRD) on the P-selectins in leukocyte extravasation. P-selectins are from _______-______ bodies.
Carbohydrate recognition domains; Weibel-Palade
Binding of the ligands to the P-selectins causes leukocytes to _____ along the endothelium.
Roll
In leukocyte extravasation, the integrin phase has integrin receptors that are activated on the leukocyte membrane. These receptors bind to _____ and _____ (Ig superfamily) on endothelial cells.
ICAM-1; ICAM-2
Integrins Beta1 and Beta2 are activated on the leukocyte membrane and these bind to _____ and ____ on endothelial cell membranes.
VCAM; ICAM
Integrins interacting with endothelial ligands promote the ___________ migration of leukocytes.
Transendothelial
The 3 types of muscle tissue are…
Skeletal
Smooth
Cardiac
Skeletal muscle is _________ and each fiber is innervated via a ______ axon.
Multinucleated; Single
Skeletal muscle contains troponin ___.
C
This type of myofiber has the following characteristics:
- Intense staining for oxidative enzymes
- Rich in NADH transferase, myoglobin
- Possess many mitochondria
- Primarily utilize oxidative phosphorylation
- Produce slow and continuous contractions
- Referred to as dark or red fibers
Type I
This type of myofiber has the following characteristics:
- Intermediate staining for oxidative enzymes
- Utilize both aerobic and anaerobic respiration for ATP production
- Contract more rapidly than Type I fibers
- Resistance to fatigue
Type IIA
This type of myofiber has the following characteristics:
- Light staining for oxidative enzymes
- Utilize primarily anaerobic respiration for ATP production
- Rich in ATPase
- Contract rapidly
- Fatigue quickly
- Referred to as white or light fibers
Type IIB
Smooth muscles has single ________ cells. Does not respond “all-or-none”.
Mononucleated
Skeletal muscle is (STRIATED/SMOOTH) and (INVOLUNTARY/VOLUNTARY).
Striated; Voluntary
Smooth muscle is (STRIATED/SMOOTH) and (INVOLUNTARY/VOLUNTARY).
Smooth; Involuntary
Cardiac muscle is (STRIATED/SMOOTH) and (INVOLUNTARY/VOLUNTARY).
Striated; Involuntary
Cardiac cells have single ________ cells.
Mononucleated
Cardiac cells have a characteristic of ________ discs.
Intercalated
A sarcomere is made up of filaments: _____ (thin filaments) and _____ (thick filaments).
Actin; Myosin
A _______ is a linear array of sarcomeres.
Myofibril
A _______ is a bundle of myofibrils. This is a muscle cell.
Myofiber
A _______ is a bundle of myofibers.
Fascicle
A _______ is a bundle of fascicles.
Muscle
A muscle is covered by a connective tissue sheet called the ________.
Epimysium
A fascicle is surrounded by a connective tissue sheet called the ________.
Perimysium
The perimysium consists of _______ and _____ collagen fibers.
Fibroblasts; Type I
A myofiber is a muscle cell and is surrounded by a cell membrane, which is called the _________.
Sarcolemma
The ________ covers the muscle fiber, including the sarcolemma.
Endomysium
The endomysium consists of a ______ ______ and ______ collagen fibers.
Basal lamina; Reticular
Sarcomeres are separated from each other by transverse discs called ___ discs.
Z
The A band consists of _____ and _____.
Actin; Myosin
The width/length of the A band is equal to the length of the ______ filaments.
Myosin
I bands are composed of _____.
Actin
The H band is composed of ______.
Myosin
During a contraction, forces develop between the actin filaments and myosin filaments such that the ______ filaments slide between the ______ filaments from opposite ends toward the middle of the A band (M line).
Actin; Myosin
The width of the A band (DOES/DOES NOT) change during a contraction.
Does not
The width of the I band (DOES/DOES NOT) change during a contraction.
Does (becomes shorter)
The width of the H band (DOES/DOES NOT) change during a contraction.
Does (becomes shorter and can disappear)
The ________ shortens during a contraction as evidenced by the distance between two successive Z discs becoming shorter.
Sarcomere
The shortening of all the sarcomeres within the muscle fiber results in the shortening of the muscle fiber during a ________.
Contraction
______ is a dimeric protein with long tails and two heads at one end.
Myosin
Each myosin head has 3 binding regions which are…
Actin binding region
ATP binding region
Light-chain binding region
There are ___ pairs of light chains binded to myosin heads. The ________ light chains are thought to contribute to stability of myosin head and the _________ light chains are required to maintain the stability of myosin II and has sites for phosphate binding.
2; Essential; Regulatory
Actin is made up of polymers of ___ actin into a long filament of ___ actin.
G; F
Each actin filament consists of two polymers wound in an _____-_____ configuration.
Alpha-helix
The (PLUS/MINUS) end of actin inserts on the Z disc.
Plus
The 2 actin-associated molecules are _______ and _______.
Troponin; Tropomyosin
Each tropomyosin sits in the groove between two actin strands of an actin filament. Each tropomyosin spans ___ actin monomers.
7
Troponin is within a complex of 3 molecules, which are…
Troponin I
Troponin C
Troponin T
This troponin molecule inhibits binding between actin and myosin.
Troponin I
This troponin molecule binds calcium ions.
Troponin C
This troponin molecule binds to tropomyosin.
Troponin T
The ________ _______ is equivalent to the endoplasmic reticulum of cells in general.
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
These are extensions of the sarcolemma that extend down into the sarcoplasm. They’re located at the A-I band junctions (in skeletal muscle) or the end of the sarcomere (in cardiac muscle).
T-tubules
These are enlargements of the sarcoplasmic reticulum and located next to the T-tubules.
Cisternae
The cisternae sequester what ion?
Calcium
T-tubules provide electromechanical coupling for myofiber contraction by transferring the action potential of the sarcolemma into _______ release from the cisternae.
Calcium
This molecule extends from the Z disc along the length of one thin actin filament. Because of its association with actin filaments, it acts like a stabilizer of actin filament length.
Nebulin
This molecule extends from the Z disk to the M line. A segment of this is closely associated with myosin and maintains the central position of the thick filaments in the sarcomere. It regulates the elasticity of the sarcomere and limits its displacement range when stretched.
Titin
These are filaments that that surround the Z disc and extend into each sarcomere. They link myofibrils laterally and to the sarcolemma.
Desmin
This is what binds desmin filaments together.
Plectin
This protein is a heat-shock protein that protects desmin from mechanical stress.
alpha B-crystallin
This is what attaches actin filaments to the Z disc.
alpha-Actinin
This is one of the proteins that links the alpha-actinin/desmin complex to the cytoplasmic side of the sarcolemma. It anchors actin to the sarcolemma and reinforces the sarcolemma during a muscle contraction.
Dystrophin
This is what links dystrophin (intracellular) to laminin-2 (extracellular).
Dystroglycan complex
In the disease muscular dystrophy, the molecule ________ is either absent or abnormal in patients with Duchenne’s or Becker’s muscular dystrophy, respectively.
Dystrophin
Dystrophin, a calponin, links actin filaments to _________ proteins of muscle cell plasma membranes (sarcolemma). The transmembrane proteins link to the extracellular matrix, which helps maintain cell stability during muscle contraction.
Transmembrane
_________ _________, an X-linked inherited disease, results in progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle.
Muscular dystrophy
These cells attach to myotubes before the basal lamina is laid down. They are generally quiescent (quiet) and function as stem cells.
Satellite cells
Satellite cells can become _______ in times of stress. The _____ receptor is the binding site for _____.
Mitotic; C-Met; HGF (Hepatic Growth Factor)
Satellite cells can give rise to myogenic precursor cells. They replace damaged muscle by proliferating, fusing, and differentiating into _______ muscle fibers.
Skeletal
The neuromuscular spindle consists of _______ fibers and _______ fibers.
Extrafusal fibers (fibers outside muscle spindle) Intrafusal fibers (fibers inside muscle spindle)
______ motor neurons supply the extrafusal fibers and ______ motor fibers supply the intrafusal fibers of the neuromuscular spindle.
Alpha; Gamma
______ and ______ afferent fibers are associated with the neuromuscular spindle. These are sensory neurons that send signal to the spinal cord and tell CNS if the muscle fibers are tense or slack.
Primary; Secondary
Cardiac muscle cells are (DIRECTLY/INDIRECTLY) innervated.
Indirectly
In cardiac muscle, the T-tubule system is different than skeletal muscle. Each T-tuble interacts with ____ cisterna and forms a diad rather than a triad. Diads are located at the level of Z discs.
One
Cardiac muscle has intercalated discs, which are composed of what 3 things?
1) Macula adherens (desmosomes)
2) Fascia adherens
3) Gap junctions
What are part of the transverse component of intercalated discs?
Macula adherens (link intermediate filaments (desmin) of adjoining cardiac muscle cells) Fascia adherens (anchor actin filaments of sarcomeres)
What is part of the longitudinal component of intercalated discs?
Gap junctions
These are secreted by cardiac muscle cells in the atria. They regulate fluid electrolyte balance and relax vascular smooth muscle (reduces blood volume and pressure).
Atrial Natriuretic Peptides (ANP)
Atrial Natriuretic Peptides (ANP) is stored as _________ in secretory vesicles, and its release is stimulated by atrial stretch which cleaves it.
Prohormone
In smooth muscle, _____ and ______ are incorporated into a meshwork arrangement found throughout the cytoplasm except in the nuclear area.
Actin; Myosin
______ ______ anchor actin filaments to each other and to cell membrane (smooth muscle). They contain alpha-actinin and are interconnected by a specific type of desmin. They communicate the force of contraction to cytoskeleton and cell membrane and are found in the cytoplasm and in cell membrane.
Dense bodies
Smooth muscle (DOES/DOES NOT) have a t-tubule system or extensive sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Does not
Smooth muscle is dependent on extracellular ________ for contraction, which is transported from extracellular fluid to SR via pinocytotic vesicles.
Calcium
_______ are permanent depressions in smooth muscle cell membranes that are involved in fluid and electrolyte transport. They are preceded by membrane _____ _____ that are composed of cholesterol and sphingolipids.
Caveolae; Lipid rafts
Caveolin (smooth muscle) binds to the _______ in the lipid rafts and initiates the formation of caveolae. Vesicles that are formed detach and participate in vesicular trafficking.
Cholesterol
Innervation of smooth muscles may either facilitate or inhibit _______ of the muscles cells.
Contraction
In smooth muscle, adrenergic and muscarinic receptors are linked to ___ proteins, while nicotinic cholinergic receptors are _____ ______.
G-proteins; Cation channels
A “slipped” or herniated disc results when pressure on the vertebral column causes a displacement of the nucleus pulpous in the center of the disc which leads to a bulge caused by this displaced pressure. The weakened part of the disc that bulges out is the annulus ring that surrounds the nucleus pulpous. Which of the following types of tissues makes up this annular ring?
A. Hyaline cartilage
B. Fibrocartilage
C. Elastic cartilage
D. Woven bone
B. Fibrocartilage
Which of the following terms does NOT refer to mature bone?
A. Lamellar B. Spongy C. Compact D. Woven E. Cancellous
D. Woven
Flow of nutrients and oxygen to osteocytes depends on a system of passageways within the bone matrix itself. Which of the following are responsible for conducting these nutrients directly to osteocytes embedded within the bone?
A. Haversian canal
B. Volkmann canals
C. Canaliculi
D. Capillaries
C. Canaliculi
In endochondral bone formation, deposition of bone matrix occurs on which of the following substrates?
A. Fibrous connective tissue
B. Chondroitin sulfate in hyaline cartilage matrix
C. Calcified hyaline cartilage matrix
D. Woven bone
C. Calcified hyaline cartilage matrix
During the development and growth of long bones, hyaline cartilage is replaced by bone. Which of the following activities would be directly responsible for the increase in the length of the bone?
A. Destruction of chondrocytes by the invasion of the ossification front.
B. Enlargement of chondrocytes in the hypertrophic zone.
C. Proliferation of chondrocytes away from the ossification front.
D. Generation of osteoblasts in the invasion zone.
C. Proliferation of chondrocytes away from the ossification front.
Which of the following is normally secreted by osteoblasts and binds to RANKL to prevent maturation of osteoclasts?
A. Calcitonin
B. Osteoprotegerin
C. Denosumab
D. AyB3 integrin
B. Osteoprotegerin
Reabsorption of bone matrix by osteoclasts involves removal of both the organic and inorganic component of the matrix. Which of the following is secreted by osteoclasts to degrade the organic matrix of bone?
A. Hydrogen and chloride ions
B. Osteopontin
C. Cathepsin K
D. Osteoprotegerin
C. Cathepsin K
Which of the following characteristics BEST characterizes the synovial membrane lining of a typical synovial joint cavity?
A. This membrane is highly vascularized and poorly innervated.
B. This membrane is highly vascularized and richly innervated.
C. This membrane is poorly vascularized and richly innervated.
D. This membrane is poorly vascularized and poorly innervated.
A. This membrane is highly vascularized and poorly innervated.
Which of the following cells types have a bilobed nucleus and specific granules containing major basic protein that disrupts parasite membranes?
A. Basophils B. Eosinophils C. Neutrophils D. Monocytes E. Lymphocytes
B. Eosinophils
Of the circulating blood cell types, which of the following is an active amoeboid phagocyte, characterized by numerous small specific granules and larger less numerous azurophilic granules?
A. Eosinophil
B. Neutrophil
C. Basophil
D. Monocyte
B. Neutrophil
In nerve tissue, irritability is specialized to receive _______.
Stimuli
In nerve tissue, conductibility is specialized to transmit _______.
Impulses
What are the 2 cellular components of nerve tissue?
1) Neurons
2) Neuroglial cells
This type of nerve tissue cell conducts impulses and is the fundamental structural and functional unit of the nervous system.
Neurons
This type of nerve tissue cell is nonconductive and supports and protects neurons.
Neuroglial cells
What are the 3 parts of a neuron?
Cell body (soma)
Dendrites
Axon
The neuron cell body is associated with (LIGAND/VOLTED) gated channels and (LOCAL/ACTION) potentials.
Ligand; Local
Neuron cell bodies contain the nucleus and ______ bodies that consist of RER and free ribosomes, as well as other organelles.
Nissl
In the neuron cell body, there are abundant microtubules, called __________, and intermediate filaments, called __________.
Neurotubules; Neurofilaments
________ granules within the cell body are formed from lysosomes and accumulate with age of the neuron.
Lipofucsin
Dendrites are associated with (LIGAND/VOLTAGE) gated channels and (ACTION/LOCAL) potentials.
Ligand; Local
Dendrites conduct impulses (TOWARDS/AWAY FROM) the cell body.
Towards
Dendrites contain all the same cytoplasmic contents as the neuron cell body except the ______ body.
Golgi
Dendrites may be studded with dendritic _______, which increase the surface area to increase contact sites with other neurons.
Spines
This is the site of origin of the axon and is devoid of Nissl substance (bodies).
Axon hillock
The axon hillock is associated with (ACTION/LOCAL) potential generation.
Action
The part of the neuron with the lowest resting potential is what?
Axon hillock
The axon is associated with (LIGAND/VOLTAGE) gated cation channels and (LOCAL/ACTION).
Voltage; Action
Axons terminate in branching _________.
Telodendrites
What part of the neuron cell contains mitochondria and microtubules but lacks everything else?
Axon
Sensory (AFFERENT/EFFERENT) neurons transmit sensory impulses from sensory receptors to the CNS.
Afferent
Motor (AFFERENT/EFFERENT) neurons transmit impulses from CNS to muscle or gland.
Efferent
(SOMATIC/AUTONOMIC) motor neurons innervate skeletal muscles.
Somatic
(SOMATIC/AUTONOMIC) motor neurons innervate glands, cardiac and smooth muscle. Divided into parasympathetic and sympathetic neurons.
Autonomic
These are what transmit impulses within the CNS and between sensory and motor neurons.
Interneurons
The most common morphological type of neurons are _________ neurons. They have a single axon and multiple dendrites.
Multipolar
This type of neuron has two processes, one at each end of the spindle-shaped neuron. They are found in association of special senses such as olfactory and visual.
Bipolar
This type of neuron has a single process from the cell body that bifurcates into a central and peripheral process. These are found in ganglia alongside the spinal cord (dorsal root ganglia).
Pseudounipolar
This classification of neuron has long axons which leave the grey matter of which they are a part.
Golgi I
This classification of neuron has short axons which ramify through the grey matter.
Golgi II
A bundle of axons (fibers) in the PNS is called…
Nerve
A bundle of axons (fibers) in the CNS is called…
Tract
An aggregation of cell bodies and dendrites in the PNS is called…
Ganglion
An aggregation of cell bodies and dendrites in the CNS is called…
Nucleus
This is a thick fibrous coat that covers the entire nerve. It is made up of Type I collagen and fibroblasts and supplied by blood and lymphatic vessels.
Epineurium
This is a dense connective tissue that covers bundles of axons (fascicles) within a nerve.
Perineurium
In the perineurium, there are epithelial-like fibroblasts on the inner surface that are joined by tight junctions (_______ _______). It’s also the sight for the blood nerve barrier (also linked by tight junctions).
Zonula occludens
This is the thin layer of reticular tissue made of Type III collagen that surrounds individual nerve fibers and Schwann cells.
Endoneurium
Axons contain slow-leak ________ channels, voltage-gated _______ channels, and voltage-gated ________ channels.
Potassium; Sodium; Calcium
The (PRESYNAPTIC/POSTSYNAPTIC) membrane contains synaptic vesicles, vesicular docking proteins and synapsin filaments, dense bodies, mitochondria, and voltage-gated calcium channels.
Presynaptic
The (PRESYNAPTIC/POSTSYNAPTIC) membrane contains receptors and ligand-gated ion channels (if it’s a neuron).
Postsynaptic
Within a neuron, when things are moved from the cell body toward the distal end of the axon, its called ________.
Anterograde
Within a neuron, when things are moved from the axon toward the cell body, its called ________.
Retrograde
Anterograde utilizes the motor protein ______ and retrograde utilizes the motor protein ______.
Kinesin; Dynein
In anterograde, when kinesin travels slow it can be in 2 components, which are ____ or ____.
SCa (Slow component a)
SCb (Slow component b)
When kinesin travels slowly with system ____, it will transport preassembled microtubules and neurofilaments.
SCa
When kinesis travels slowly with system ____, it will transport enzymes, actin, and clathrin.
SCb
When kinesin travels at _______ speed it will transport mitochondria and other membrane-bound organelles.
Intermediate
When kinesis travels at ______ speed, it will transport synaptic vesicles and neurotransmitters.
Fast
______ travels at one speed at all times (in between intermediate and fast compared to kinesin) and carries endocytosed materials and recycled proteins.
Dynein
_____ cells are non-neuronal cells typically derived from embryonic neural crest tissue (except microglia). They serve in various support functions in the PNS and especially in the CNS. They are capable of cell division under appropriate conditions.
Glial (“glue cells”)
What are the 5 types of glial cells?
Astrocytes Oligodendrocytes Schwann cells Microglial cells Ependymal cells
This type of glial cell is derived from the neural crest (neuroepithelium) and are only found in the CNS. They have numerous processes with expanded feet (pediceles) that terminate on capillaries or the pia mater.
Astrocytes
________ astrocytes are found predominantly in white matter and have long processes with few branches.
Fibrous
_______ astrocytes are found predominantly in gray matter and have shorter processes with many short branches.
Protoplasmic
This type of glial cell regulates composition of intercellular environment or entry of substances into it (blood-brain barrier). Provides structural support.
Astrocytes
This type of glial cell is derived from the neural crest (neuroepithelium) found only in the CNS. Its closely associated with neuron cell bodies in gray matter and function as satellite cells. They surround axons of unmyelinated fibers in gray matter and myelinated axons in the CNS (each one myelinated several axons).
Oligodendrocytes
This type of glial cell is derived from the neural crest and myelinated axons in the PNS (each one myelinated a section of a single axon).
Schwann cells
This type of glial cell is derived from macrophage precursors (bone marrow). It’s phagocytic in the CNS and recruits leukocytes across the blood-brain barrier to fight infection. It modulates initiation and progression of immune responses along with the astrocytes.
Microglial cells
This type of glial cell is ciliated cuboidal and derived from neuroepithelium and line ventricular system of CNS. They function in transport and in the choroid plexus, they may be principal cell type that secretes cerebrospinal fluid.
Ependymal cells
This type of cell is derived from neural crest and form moons (crescents) around cell bodies in ganglia and function as insulators.
Satellite cells
In a _______ cell, the cell’s plasma membrane wraps around an axon and the cytoplasm is “squeezed” out, leaving behind concentric layers of membranes.
Schwann
The internal and external ________ are the outermost and innermost points of fusion between the outer leaflets (extracellular leaflets) of Schwann cell around axon.
Mesaxon
The _______ line is the electron-dense line created by extracellular space between adjacent outer leaflets. Major protein zero associated with these. (Schwann cell wrapping around axon)
Intraperiod
The ______ line is the electron-dense line created by cytoplasmic space remnant between adjacent inner leaflets. Myelin basic protein is abundant protein associated with this. (Schwann cell wrapping around axon)
Major dense line
_______-______ clefts (incisures) are residual areas of cytoplasm within the major dense lines.
Schmidt-Lanterman
In the PNS, schwann cells cover the _____ ___ ______, but in the CNS, the surface is contacted by astrocyte processes (because oligodendrocyte does not cover it).
Nodes of Ranvier
In a presynaptic membrane, there are voltage-gated calcium channels, vesicle docking proteins, synapsins, and _____, which bind synaptic vesicles to the presynaptic membrane.
SNAPs
SNAPs are found in what 2 membranes?
Presynaptic membrane
Synaptic vesicle membrane
These are filaments in the presynaptic membrane.
Synapsins
Neurotransmitter receptors are in what membrane?
Postsynaptic
This type of synapse is when the axon terminal synapses with the neuron cell body.
Axosomatic
This type of synapse is when the axon terminal synapses with another axon terminal.
Axoaxonic
This type of synapse is when the axon terminal synapses with a dendrite.
Axodendritic
This type of synapse is when the axon terminal synapses with a dendritic spine.
Axospinous
This type of synapse is when there is a more positive end-plate potential and the post-synaptic cell is more likely to fire (closer to threshold).
Excitatory
This type of synapse is when there is a more negative end-plate potential and the post-synaptic cell is harder to fire (farther from threshold).
Inhibitory
What is the order of the meninges and spaces from superficial to deep?
(Skull) Epidural space Dura mater Subdural space Leptomeninx
T/F. There is an epidural space around the brain.
False. It’s absent around the brain.
What 3 layers are part of the Leptomeninx?
Arachnoid membrane
Arachnoid villi
Pia mater
This is a tough thick sheet of dense fibrous connective tissue, and in the cranial cavity it lines the inside of the cranial vault bone and serves as the periosteum. Around the spinal cord, it forms a connective tissue tube that is separated from the bone of the vertebral foramina by a space referred to as the epidural space.
Dura mater
Within the dura mater there are large, endothelial-lined venous _______ that receive blood from the cerebral drainage as well as cerebrospinal fluid via the arachnoid villi.
Sinuses
This is a thin, delicate sheet of connective tissue that lies directly on the surfaces of the brain and spinal cord. It tightly attached and cannot be removed without damaging nervous tissue.
Pia mater
The ______ is a meninx composed of delicate connective tissue. The outer layer faces the subdural space and is made up of a single layer of barrier cells. It is attached to the underlying pia mater by delicate strands of connective tissue (trabeculae).
Arachnoid
The spaces between the arachnoid and the pia mater are collectively referred to as the ________ space.
Subarachnoid
What fills the subarachnoid space?
Cerebrospinal fluid
_______ _____, made up of arachnoid barrier cells, extend from the outer surface of the arachnoid into the overlying venous sinuses of the dura mater and allow cerebrospinal fluid to flow from the subarachnoid space into the dural sinuses.
Arachnoid villi
This is a highly unfolded simple cuboidal epithelium that extends into the ventricles from the roof plate.
Choroid plexus
Cuboidal cells of the choroid plexus are linked by _____ ______ which form part of the cerebrospinal fluid barrier.
Tight junctions
Na+, K+, ATPase pumps in the apical membranes of the choroid plexus cells pump fluid into the ventricular lumen causing a flow of water, solutes, and proteins from the capillaries through the choroid flex epithelium into the brain ventricles, this is ______________ _______.
Cerebrospinal fluid
The ________ is a layer of simple cuboidal epithelium that lines the ventricular brain walls.
Ependyma
The ependymal cells are linked by ______ _______ and have apical microvilli, cilia, and abundant microvilli.
Zonula adherens
The basal domains of the ependymal cells are in contact with _________ processes, forming the glia limitans, which is part of the blood-brain barrier.
Astrocyte
_________ in the 3rd brain ventricle are tightly linked to the adjacent ependymal cells and send process through the glia limitans to form end-foot processes on underlying blood vessels.
Tanycytes
The astrocytes send processes to the surrounding non-fenestrated __________ which is part of the blood-brain barrier.
Capillaries
This type of ganglia have a capsule of connective tissue (epineurium) and has clustered pseudounipolar neurons lying within the capsule.
Sensory (Dorsal Root) ganglia
This type of ganglia have a capsule of epineurium and has clustered multipolar neurons, which receives input from myelinated preganglionic neurons.
Autonomic ganglia
In sensory (dorsal root) ganglia, the postganglionic axons (ARE/ARE NOT) myelinated.
Are
In autonomic ganglia, the postganglionic axons (ARE/ARE NOT) myelinated.
Are not
The _______ cells in sensory (dorsal root) ganglia are similar to Schwann cells and are derived from the neural crest. They form a single layer around the cell body of each neuron and the surfaces facing away from the neuron are in contact with a basal lamina.
Satellite
The _______ cells in autonomic ganglia are similar to those in dorsal root ganglia, but they are less numerous.
Satellite
These type of cells may proliferate extremely well, are self-renewing, may differentiate into several (at least 2) different cell-types, and may reconstitute tissues after injury.
Stem cells
This category of stem cells can give rise to all cells of an organism, including embryonic and extra embryonic tissues (cells which support embryonic development). A zygote is within this category. ALL
Totipotent
This category of stem cells give rise to all cells of the embryo and subsequently adult tissues (embryonic stem cells). Most, but not ALL
Pluripotent
This category of stem cells can give rise to different cell types of a given lineage (adult stem cells). Some, but not ALL
Multipotent
(EMBRYONIC/ADULT) stem cells are derived from inner-cell mass of blastocyst. They can differentiate to all cell lineages. Have technical and ethical limitations, and may be induced from adult tissues.
Embryonic
(EMBRYONIC/ADULT) stem cells are harvested from mature organs/tissues (bone marrow). They are multipotent and have a more restricted ability to produce different cell types and to self-renew.
Adult
What weeks of gestation have islands of hematopoiesis (blood islands) that are found in the yolk sac wall, give rise to nucleated erythrocytes, and has no leukocytes formed during this phase?
2-8 weeks gestation
What weeks of gestation has hematopoiesis first occur in the liver and then the spleen that will normally cease around the time of birth?
8-28 weeks gestation
What weeks of gestation has hematopoiesis occur in red bone marrow?
6 months gestation to birth and beyond
At birth, all bone marrow is ____.
Red
Red marrow is the source for all ______ cells.
Blood
Prior to puberty, red marrow is present in the skull, ribs, sternum, vertebrae, clavicles, pelvis, and long bones. After puberty, red marrow is present in all of these except…
Long bones
In certain disease states, blood cell formation may occur in the _____ and _____.
Liver; Spleen
In time, most marrow is converted to ______ marrow, and _____ marrow is usually restricted to the sternum and iliac crests.
Yellow; Red
This contains fibroblasts, reticular cells, adipose cells, and endothelial cells. It synthesizes and secretes hematopoietic growth factors here.
Stroma
This consists of various lineages of hematopoietic cells in different stages of differentiation.
Parenchyma
These are endothelial-lined spaces that connect arterial and venous vessels. Provides access for mature blood cells to move into the circulation.
Sinusoids
These are bands of parenchyma and storm lying between the sinusoids.
Hematopoietic cords
In hematopoietic cells, there are ____ percent in granulocytopoiesis, ____ percent in erythrocytopoiesis, and ____ percent in thrombocytopoiesis, monocytopoiesis, and lymphocytopoiesis.
60; 30; 10
In hematopoietic cells, the Myeloid/Erythroid ratio can be defined as:
Total Volume of cells in ___________
Granulocytopoiesis; Erythrocytopoiesis
The normal Myeloid/Erythroid ratio is __:__ , while the ratio in Chronic myelogenous leukemia is __:__ , and the ratio in Polycythemia is __:__.
3: 1
8: 1
1: 5
In transendothelial migration, mature blood cells migrate from the __________ ______ through the _______ endothelial walls into the ________.
Hematopoietic cords; Sinusoidal; Sinusoids
In transendothelial migration, ___________ (site of platelet production) are too large to translocate and must remain in the stroma.
Megakaryocytes
Hematopoietic stem cells are pluripotential, they can commit to either ______ or ______ stem cell lines.
Myeloid; Lymphoid
Hematopoietic stem cells produce two kinds of multipotential precursor cells. Myeloid stem cells give rise to all blood cell lines except _________, and the lymphoid stem cells give rise to ________.
Lymphocytes; Lymphocytes
Hematopoietic stem cells cannot be identified by morphology but can be recognized by cell surface ______.
Markers
Myeloid stem cells give rise to five kinds of colony-forming units (CFU), which are…
Erythroid CFU Megakaryocyte CFU Basophil CFU Eosinophil CFU Granulocyte-Macrophage CFU
What activates the formation of the Basophil CFU, Eosinophil CFU, and Granulocyte-Macrophage CFU?
Granulocyte/Monocyte colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
Once a Granulocyte-Macrophage colony-forming unit is activated, what must be used to form a monoblast (monocyte precursor)?
Monocyte colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF)
Granulocyte-Macrophage CFU can give rise to what 2 types of white blood cells?
Neutrophils; Monocytes
Once a Granulocyte-Macrophage CFU is activated, what must be used to form a neutrophil?
Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
Once GM-CSF has activated the Eosinophil CFU, what must be used next to form a myeloblast (eosinophil precursor)?
Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
Once GM-CSF has activated the Basophil CFU, what must be used next to form a myeloblast (basophil precursor)?
SFC (Stem Cell Factor; or C-Kit Ligand)
Megakaryocyte CFU must use ___________ to activate formation of a megakaryocytoblast (megakaryocyte precursor).
Thrombopoietin
Erythroid CFU must use __________ (from the kidney) to activate the formation of proerythroblasts (erythrocyte precursor).
Erythropoietin
Lymphoid stem cells can give rise to 2 kinds of cells, which are a _____ progenitor (matures in thymus) or a ______ progenitor (matures in bone marrow).
T-cell; B-cell
What are the steps that a Granulocyte-Macrophage CFU (after activating a macrophage precursor) has to go in to reach a macrophage?
Monoblast – Promonocyte – Monocyte – Macrophage
In the following steps of macrophage formation, which cells can divide? Which cells are normally found in circulation?
Monoblast – Promonocyte – Monocyte – Macrophage
Monoblast (can divide)
Monocyte (in circulation)
What are the steps that a Granulocyte-Macrophage CFU (after activating a neutrophil precursor) has to go in to reach a neutrophil?
Myeloblast Promyelocyte Myelocyte Metamyelocyte Band Cell Neutrophil
In the following steps of neutrophil formation, which cells can divide? Which cells are normally found in circulation?
Myeloblast Promyelocyte Myelocyte Metamyelocyte Band Cell Neutrophil
Myeloblast; Promyelocyte; Myelocyte (can divide)
Band Cell; Neutrophil (in circulation)
What are the steps that both Eosinophil CFU and Basophil CFU (after activating their precursors) has to go in to reach a final eosinophil or basophil?
Myeloblast Promyelocyte Myelocyte Metamyelocyte Band Cell Eosinophil or Basophil (becomes mast cell)
Basophils will give rise to ______ cells.
Mast
In the following steps of eosinophil and basophil formation, which cells can divide? Which cells are normally found in circulation?
Myeloblast Promyelocyte Myelocyte Metamyelocyte Band Cell Eosinophil or Basophil (becomes mast cell)
Myeloblast; Promyelocyte; Myelocyte (can divide)
Band Cell; Eosinophil; Basophil/Mast cell (in circulation)
What are the steps that Megakaryocyte CFU (after activating the precursor) has to go in to reach its final form of platelets?
Megakaryoblast – Megakaryocyte – Platelets
In the following steps of platelet formation, which cells can divide? Which cells are normally found in circulation?
None can divide
Platelets (in circulation)
What are the steps that Erythroid CFU (after activating the precursor) has to go in to reach an erythrocyte?
Proerythroblast Basophilic erythroblast Polychromatophilic erythroblast Orthochromatic erythroblast Reticulocyte Erythrocyte
This step in the erythrocyte formation series is indicative of rapid RBC formation (blood diseases).
Reticulocytes
In the following steps of erythrocyte formation, which cells can divide? Which cells are normally found in circulation?
Proerythroblast Basophilic erythroblast Polychromatophilic erythroblast Orthochromatic erythroblast Reticulocyte Erythrocyte
Proerythroblast; Basophilic erythroblast; Polychromatophilic erythroblast (can divide)
Reticulocyte; Erythrocyte (in circulation)
Hematopoietic growth factor and cytokines are produced by endothelial cells in the _______, _______, and _______ cells.
Marrow; Fibroblasts; Stromal
The three major groups of hematopoietic growth factors are…
1) Colony-Stimulating Factors (CSF)
2) Erythropoietin and Thrombopoeitin
3) Cytokines (primarily interleukins)
This type of colony-stimulating factor (CSF) is produced by endothelial cells, T cells, fibroblasts, and monocytes. It stimulates granulocytopoiesis and monocytopoiesis. It ameliorates neutropenia associated with chemo or radiation therapy.
Granulocyte/Monocyte colony-stimulating factor
GM-CSF
This type of colony-stimulating factor (CSF) is produced by endothelial cells, fibroblasts, and macrophages. It directs Granulocyte-CFU to proliferate and differentiate into myeloblasts. It may be used following chemo or radiation therapy to treat neutropenia.
Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
This type of colony-stimulating factor (CSF) commits GM-CFU to monocytic pathway.
Monocyte colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF)
This hematopoietic growth factor directs Erythroid-CFU to proliferate and differentiate into pro erythroblasts. It’s produced in the kidney in response to decrease in oxygen saturation. Secondary polycythemia is any abnormal increase in total RBC mass resulting from hypoxia and stimulates the release of this growth factor.
Erythropoietin
This hematopoietic growth factor directs formation of megakaryoblasts. It’s produced in proximal convoluted tubules of the kidney and in parenchymal cells and sinusoidal endothelial cells of the liver. There is no therapeutic use for it.
Thrombopoeitin
This type of hematopoietic growth factor mediates positive and negative effects on cellular quiescence, apoptosis, proliferation, and differentiation. It engages specific receptors and activates a variety of signaling pathways (“Swiss army knife” of receptors).
Cytokines (primarily interleukins)
Interleukin-3, GM-CSF, Fit-3 ligand, and Kit ligand are all examples of _______.
Cytokines
These regulate blood cell trafficking and homing to sites of need. They may serve as positive and negative growth regulators. Bind to guanine protein-coupled transmembrane receptors. (Example: Sdf-1)
Chemokines
The ______ tunic of the eye contains the sclera and cornea.
Fibrous (outer layer)
The ______ tunic of the eye contains the choroid, ciliary body, and iris.
Vascular (middle layer)
The _____ tunic contains the retina.
Inner (inner layer)
The sclera of the fibrous layer, contains 3 separate layers which are the _______ layer, ______ ______, and ______ ______.
Episcleral; Sclera proper; Lamina cribrosa
The _______ layer of the sclera is the outer layer. It has loosely arranged collagen and elastic fibers, is highly vascular, and attaches the lining of the eyelid (conductive) to the sclera.
Episcleral
The ______ ______ layer of the sclera is made of interlacing collagen fibers. It’s the attachment site for tendons of extrinsic eye muscles and the collagen bundles are always parallel to outer surface of sclera.
Sclera proper
The _____ _____ is a perforated disc of sclera. It’s a pass through for optic nerve fibers.
Lamina cribrosa
Anteriorly the sclera is continuous with the _____.
Cornea
The junction between the sclera and cornea is the ______, which is highly vascularized.
Limbus
Posteriorly the sclera is continuous with the dural covering of the _____ nerve.
Optic
In this cornea layer, it’s made up stratified, nonkeratinized squamous epithelium and has high mitotic activity in the basal layer.
Corneal epithelium
In this cornea layer, it is an acellular layer that separates the epithelium from the storm. It has randomly arranged collagen fibers.
Bowman’s membrane
In this cornea layer, it’s made of thin layers of ordered arrays of collagen fibers.
Corneal stroma
In this cornea layer, it is an acellular of collagen bundles and it separates the stroma from the endothelium.
Descemet’s membrane
This cornea layer is a single layer of large squamous cells.
Corneal endothelium
This part of the vascular tunic (uvea) contains the ciliary muscles (flatten and thicken lens) and produces aqueous humor.
Ciliary body
This part of the vascular tunic (uvea) extends anterior to ora serrata of the retina. It’s highly vascularized with loose connective tissue. It also has Bruch’s (glassy) membrane.
Choroid
This part of the vascular tunic (uvea) is located anterior to the lens and separates the anterior and posterior chambers. It surrounds the pupil and has an angle.
Iris
The more ________ the darker the iris is.
Melanocytes
The inner tunic contains the retina which is divided into two subdivisions divided by the ora serrata. These divisions are…
Nonphotosensitive (anterior)
Photosensitive (posterior)
This part of the retina is a region on the posterior aspect of the eye where the optic nerve exits. It has no photosensitive retina and constitutes the blind spot.
Optic disc
This part of the retina is a region lateral to the optic disc. It contains yellow pigment and contains only cone-type photoreceptors. Area of most acute vision.
Fovea centralis
The photosensitive region of the retina that lies posterior to the ora serrata contains ____ and ____.
Rods; Cones
The eye has 3 chambers, which are…
Anterior chamber
Posterior chamber
Vitreal chamber
_______ is increased intraocular pressure due to compromised drainage of aqueous humor from anterior chamber.
Glaucoma
The _______ chamber is posterior to cornea and anterior to iris.
Anterior
The _______ chamber is posterior to iris and anterior to lens.
Posterior
The _______ chamber is posterior to the lens. It contains the vitreous body, a gelatinous mass made up of 99% water, hyaluronic acid, and vitrein.
Vitreal
The _____ _____ is made up of axons of ganglion cells.
Optic nerve
There are 2 types of photoreceptors in the eye which are…
Rods
Cones
This type of photoreceptor uses rhodopsin as photopigment.
Rods
This type of photoreceptor uses three different kinds of iodopsins as photopigment.
Cones
This photoreceptor is responsible for seeing black and white.
Rods
This photoreceptor is responsible for seeing color.
Cones
Each cone cell synapses with a single (BIPOLAR/MULTIPOLAR) cell.
Bipolar
Axons of up to 100 rods synapse with a single (BIPOLAR/MULTIPOLAR) cell.
Bipolar
Rods and cones contain _____. In rods, they detach from cell membrane and become free. In cones, they remain attached to the cell membrane.
Disks
