Exam 2 Flashcards
What are the 3 types of cartilage?
Hyaline cartilage
Fibrocartilage
Elastic cartilage
Most of the skeletal system in all vertebrates begins as ________.
Cartilage
These are cells that form cartilage.
Chondroblasts
These are cells that maintain cartilage.
Chondrocytes
The extracellular matrix of cartilage is made up of (TYPE I/TYPE II) collagen and amorphous ground substance.
Type II (Type I in fibrocartilage)
These are pockets within the matrix where the chondroblasts and chondrocytes are found.
Lacunae
Cartilage is (VASCULAR/AVASCULAR).
Avascular
What is the outer fibrous layer surrounding cartilage? What lies within this layer?
Perichondrium; Fibroblasts
The inner chondrogenic layer gives rise to ________ which become ________.
Chondroblasts; Chondrocytes
The fibroblasts in the perichondrium become ________ in the inner chondrogenic layer.
Chondroblasts
An _______ group are groups of 2-8 chondrocytes occupying the same lacunae. Result of mitotic division. Cells will become separated as they begin to lay down matrix of their own.
Isogenous
What are the components of the cartilage matrix?
Collagen type II (type I in fibrocartilage)
Hyaluronan (hyaluronic acid)
Chondroitin sulfate; Keratin sulfate; Heparin sulfate
Glycosaminoglycans
The _______ matrix surrounds each chondrocyte. It has a high glycosaminoglycan content and low collagen content. (Newer matrix)
Territorial
The ________ matrix surrounds the territorial matrix. It has a low glycosaminoglycan content and high collagen content. (Older matrix)
Inter-territorial
What is the most common type of cartilage?
Hyaline cartilage
Hyaline cartilage (IS/IS NOT) surrounded by perichondrium.
Is
Hyaline cartilage has 2 growth patterns, either _______ (adding more to outside of existing matrix) or _______ (adding more within the existing matrix).
Appositional; Interstitial
Where is hyaline cartilage located?
External auditory meatus (ear canal) Larynx Tracheal cartilages Bronchial cartilages Fetal long bones Articular ends of bones
How is elastic cartilage recognized?
By the addition of elastic fibers to the matrix
Elastic cartilage (IS/IS NOT) surrounded by perichondrium.
Is
Where is elastic cartilage found?
Auricle (pinna) of the ear
Epiglottis
Hyaline cartilage chondrocytes are often found in (SINGLES/GROUPS).
Groups
Elastic cartilage chondrocytes are often found in (SINGLES/GROUPS).
Singles
Fibrocartilage chondrocytes are often found in (SINGLES/GROUPS).
Singles (sparse)
Fibrocartilage (IS/IS NOT) surrounded by perichondrium.
Is not
Where is fibrocartilage found?
Intervertebral discs
Pubic symphysis
Insertion of some tendons and ligaments
Bone tissue is based on a _______ system.
Canalicular
Bone is (VASCULAR/AVASCULAR).
Vascular
Increase in bone length occurs through (APPOSITIONAL/INTERSTITIAL) growth of a _______ cartilage model.
Appositional; Hyaline
Bone is formed by ________ which become ________ that maintain it.
Osteoblasts; Osteocytes
Matrix of bone consists of two major components: an organic component referred to as _______ and an inorganic component referred to as _________.
Osteoid; Hydroxyapatite
Osteoid gives bone its ________ and hydroxyapatite gives it its structural ________.
Flexibility; Strength
What are the 3 types of bone?
Spongy
Woven
Compact
This type of bone occurs during bone development and bone repair. It is produced rapidly, has a haphazard collagen foundation, and has less structural integrity.
Woven bone
This type of bone is also called trabecular or cancellous bone. It has a 3D lattice of branching, bony spicules intertwined to form trabecular surrounding the bone marrow spaces in the long bones and flat bones.
Spongy bone
This type of bone is also called lamellar bone.
Compact bone
Compact bone consists of an ______ or ______ system.
osteon; Haversian
In an osteon, osteocytes are found between the ________ located inside the ________.
Lamellae; Lacunae
Osteocytes in an osteon are connected to each and the Haversian canal via _________.
Canaliculi
__________ canals run perpendicular to Haversian canals and connect the Haversian canals to each other and to the surface of the bone.
Volkmann’s
(OSTEOBLASTS/OSTEOCLASTS) secrete bone matrix and secrete collagen and catalyze mineralization.
Osteoblasts
(OSTEOBLASTS/OSTEOCLASTS) maintain bone matrix and help control calcium and phosphate levels in the matrix.
Osteocytes
These cells remodel bone through bone resorption.
Osteoclast
These are stem cells which in an adult are described as bone lining cells. They are found in the inner portion of the periosteum, in the endosteum, and lining vascular canals of compact bone.
Osteoprogenitor cells
Osteoprogenitor cells give rise to _________ and bone lining cells.
Osteoblasts
Osteoblasts are characterized by what 2 things?
Alkaline phosphatase (not found in osteocytes) Vitamin D3 (regulates expression of osteocalcin)
What are the 6 major protein products from osteoblasts?
Type I collagen Osteocalcin Osteonectin Osteopontin Osteoprotegerin RANKL
This protein product from osteoblasts has a high binding affinity for hydroxyapatite and its expression is regulated by Vitamin D3.
Osteocalcin
This type of bone cell is derived from monocyte lineage. It’s technically a type of macrophage.
Osteoclasts
The ____ cycle occurs at adult remodeling sees and during development.
ARF (activation-resorption-reversal-formation)
This hormone is the primary regulator of bone turnover.
Parathyroid hormone
At (LOW/HIGH) PTH levels, bone formation by osteoblasts is stimulated.
Low
At (LOW/HIGH) PTH levels, osteoblasts are stimulated to release osteoclast-differentiation factors (bone will be reabsorbed).
High
Elevated PTH levels result in eroded bone and fibrosis of the resulting spaces (______ _____).
Osteitis fibrosa
PTH binds to receptors on the osteoblast. The osteoblast is then stimulated to synthesize _____ and ______.
M-CSF (Monocyte colony stimulating factor)
RANKL
After the osteoblast synthesizes M-CSF and RANKL, it releases the M-CSF which binds to the M-CSF receptor on the monocyte. The monocyte is now a ________ and expresses _____.
Macrophage; RANK
RANK binds to ______ (this couples together the osteoblast and the macrophage). The macrophage then becomes a multinucleate immature osteoclast.
RANKL (on the osteoblast)
One of the proteins that osteoblasts secrete is __________, which binds to RANKL with greater affinity than RANK. This inhibits maturation of osteoclasts. PTH blocks the synthesis of this protein to allow osteoclast formation.
Osteoprotegerin
_______ acts to reduce bone resorption.
Calcitonin
Two major products secreted by osteoclasts are involved in bone reabsorption, these are…
Cathepsin K
H+ Cl- ions
This osteoclast product used in bone reabsorption is a lysosomal protease involved in bone remodeling and resorption that can catabolize elastin, collagen, and gelatin (organic matrix - osteoid).
Cathepsin K
This osteoclast product used in bone reabsorption dissolves the inorganic matrix (hydroxyapatite).
H+ Cl- ions
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of fibrocartilage?
A. Type II collagen B. Not surrounded by a perichondrium C. Found in intervertebral discs D. Increased collagen in the matrix E. Neither A nor B are characteristic of fibrocartilage.
A. Type II collagen
Which of the following is not part of a Haversian system?
A. Periosteum B. Lacunae C. Lamellae D. Volkmann canals E. Canaliculi
A. Periosteum
Parathyroid hormone stimulates osteoblasts to secrete/express which of the following?
A. Osteoprotegerin B. M-CSF C. RANKL D. All of the above E. Only B and C
E. Only B and C
In intramembranous bone formation, an aggregation of _________ cells controlled by signals form into osteoblasts.
Mesenchymal
In intramembranous bone formation, once the mesenchymal cells have become osteoblasts, the osteoblasts then secrete _______ which will trap some of the osteoblasts and grow to form a ________. The trapped osteoblasts become ________.
Osteoid; Blastema; Osteocytes
The osteocytes within the blastema will form a functional ________. Once this happens, _________ will occur via calcium ions (calcification). This is now primary bone tissue.
Syncytium; Mineralization
Osteoblasts form an epithelial-like covering over the surface of primary bone tissue and can secrete more ______ on the surface. This includes collagen I and non-collagen proteins.
Osteoid
The primary ossification center (intramembranous bone formation) becomes a trabecula. Numerous trabeculae fuse together to form _______ bone.
Spongy
During intramembranous bone formation, initial bone formed is ______ bone, which will become spongy bone. In this type of bone the collagen fibers are arranged randomly.
Woven
During intramembranous bone formation, when the collagen fibers become aligned then the bone becomes _______ (compact).
Lamellar
Membrane bone usually consists of 2 layers of ______ bone enclosing a layer of ______ bone (diploe).
Compact; Spongy
In endochondral bone formation, cartilage is _______ by bone.
Replaced
In endochondral bone formation, the primary ossification center occurs in the future _______ of the cartilage model (long bones).
Diaphysis
In endochondral bone formation, chondrocytes become ________ and secrete _____ which allows for blood vessels to break through the perichondrium and bring in osteoprogenitor cells.
Hypertrophic; VEG-F (Vascular endothelial growth factor)
In endochodral bone formation, hypertrophic cartilage cells undergo _______, leaving behind thin strands of _______ matrix. Osteoblasts (from osteoprogenitor cells) use these strands as substrates for deposition of ______.
Apoptosis; Calcified; Osteoid
In endochondral bone formation, once the osteoid is deposited by the osteoblasts, it is _______ to form bone.
Calcified
Endochondral bone formation occurs within a ________ cartilage model.
Hyaline
In endochondral bone formation, cells derived from initial perichondrium begin to secrete _______ appositionally. The perichondrium is now called the ________.
Osteoid; Periosteum
In endochondral bone formation, secondary ossification centers occur in the ________.
Epiphyses
In long bones, epiphyses and diaphyses are separated initially by _________ plates (growth plates).
Epiphyseal
Epiphyseal plates have 4 zones, which are…
Reserve zone
Proliferative zone
Hypertrophic zone
Vascular invasion zone
In long bones, osteoclasts break down bone in the center of the diaphysis, forming a ________ cavity (cavity used for connective tissue).
Medullary
At the distal end of the epiphyseal plate _______ is continually added. At the proximal end of the epiphyseal plate, cartilage is replaced by ______.
Cartilage; Bone
A ______ is where two bones come together.
Joint
The 3 types of joints are…
Cartilaginous
Fibrous
Synovial
Cartilaginous joints are also known as _________.
Amphiarthroses
In cartilaginous joints, bones are joined by ________ or _______ cartilage.
Fibrocartilage; Hyaline cartilage
The 2 types of cartilaginous joints (amphiarthroses) are _______ and ______.
Symphysis; Synchondrosis
A symphysis cartilaginous joint is joined by ________. Examples include intervertebral discs and the pubic symphysis.
Fibrocartilage
A synchondrosis cartilaginous joint is joined by _______ _______. Examples include epiphyseal plates and the first sternocostal joint.
Hyaline cartilage
Fibrous joints are also known as ________.
Synarthroses
Fibrous joints are joined by ________ and/or _______ fibrous connective tissue.
Collagenous; Elastic
The 3 types of fibrous joints are…
Suture
Gomphosis
Syndesmosis
This type of fibrous joint are the joints that are between the bones of the calvaria (skull).
Suture
This type of fibrous joint is a “peg-in-a-socket” joint such as the teeth in the alveoli.
Gomphosis
This type of fibrous joint is formed when bones are joined by an interosseous fibrous membrane such as the fibrous membrane between the tibia and fibula.
Syndesmosis
Synovial joints are also known as ________.
Diarthroses
This type of joint is a movable joint that is exemplified by a connective capsule surrounding a fluid-filled joint space. They are often reinforced by thickening of the outer part of the capsule referred to as ligaments.
Synovial joint
Synovial joints that allow movement in one plane only are _______.
Monaxial (hinge and pivot joints)
Synovial joints that allow movement in two planes only are _______.
Biaxial (condyloid and saddle joints)
Synovial joints that allow movement in three planes are ______.
Triaxial (ball-and-socket joints)
A synovial joint contains a cavity filled with ______ fluid.
Synovial
A synovial joint contains a capsule with an outer fibrous layer that is ________ and an inner layer (synovial membrane) that is _______.
Innervated; Vascularized
The ends of the bones are surrounded by _______ cartilage in a synovial joint.
Articular
Articular cartilage is made of ______ cartilage and lacks a ________. Its edges are attached to the joint capsule.
Hyaline; Perichondrium
Synovial fluid contains ______ (hyaluronic acid-protein complex) that is produced by synovial cells.
Mucin
The 2 types of synovial cells are..
Type A (macrophage-like) Type B (fibroblast-like)
Blood is what percentage of the body’s total weight?
8%
What is the pH range for blood?
7.35-7.45 (go outside this and you die)
_______ is blood minus the formed elements.
Plasma
_______ is plasma without the blood-clotting proteins.
Serum
In heparinized (anticoagulant) and centrifuged blood, there are three layers which are…
Supernatant (plasma)
Buffy coat (leukocytes)
Precipitate (sedimented red blood cells)
Plasma contains ______, but serum lacks it.
Fibrinogen (functions in blood clotting)
How many liters of blood are present in the body?
About 5 liters
What is the normal percentage for hematocrit in the blood?
42% (women)
47% (men)
What are the 3 blood proteins?
Fibrinogen
Albumin
Globulin (Immunoglobulins)
This blood protein is made in the liver and functions in blood clotting. Its a target for thrombin.
Fibrinogen
This blood protein is made in the liver and exerts major osmotic pressure on blood vessel walls.
Albumins
What are the 3 types of blood cells?
Erythrocytes
Leukocytes
Megakaryocytes
Leukocytes can be divided into 2 groups which are…
Granulocytes
Agranulocytes
Granulocytes can be divided into 3 groups which are…
Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils
Agranulocytes can be divided into 2 groups which are…
Monocytes (can become macrophages)
Lymphocytes
Megakaryocytes become what?
Platelets
The number of erythrocytes can increase under the influence of ________ which is produced by the kidney.
Erythropoietin
Erythrocytes do not contain granules or _______. Its major contents are lipids, ATP, carbonic anhydrase, and hemoglobin.
Organelles
Erythrocyte proteins are about 50% integral, and the peripheral proteins include _______ and ______. These are important for keeping its shape (biconcave).
Spectrin
Actin
Spectrin is a tetramer of two polypeptide chains, _____ and _____.
Alpha
Beta
This protein links the spectrin-actin network and the plasma membrane in erythrocytes by binding to spectrum and a transmembrane protein (band 3).
Ankyrin
This protein is a link that binds spectrin-actin junctions and the transmembrane protein glycophorin in erythrocytes.
Protein 4.1
Neutrophils (Leukocyte-granulocyte) are also referred to as ___________ leukocytes (PMNs).
Polymorphonuclear
Neutrophils have 3-5 _______ lobes with connecting strands.
Nuclear
Neutrophils contain small, numerous specific granules that contain _______ and other proteases. It also has large, less numerous azurophilic granules that contain _______ and __________.
Lysozyme; Elastase; Myeloperoxidase
Neutrophils remain in circulation for 10-12 (HOURS/DAYS) then can live for 1-2 (HOURS/DAYS) after leaving circulation.
Hours; Days
This type of leukocyte can secrete a class of enzymes capable of destroying certain bacteria by formation of free radicals (superoxide) as well as the release of lysozyme and lactoferrin, which destroy bacterial walls.
Neutrophils
This type of leukocyte has a lobulated nucleus (bilobed; horse-shoe shaped) with large, membrane-bound granules. It’s also named for its love of basic dyes.
Basophils
The basophil’s large, membrane-bound granules contain vasoactive substances, which are…
Serotonin
Heparin (anticoagulant)
Kallikrein (attracts eosinophils)
The large, membrane-bound granules of the basophil can produce leukotrienes, which do what 2 things?
Increase vascular permeability
Slow contraction of smooth muscles
This type of leukocyte has a bilobed nucleus, specific granules, and responds in allergic diseases and parasitic infections. It will phagocytize antibody-antigen complexes and parasites.
Eosinophils
Eosinophils have 3 specific granules which are…
Major basic protein (MBP)
Peroxidase
Cationic protein
Major basic protein (eosinophil granule) disrupts _______ membranes and causes basophils to release _______.
Parasite; Histamine
Cationic protein (eosinophil granule) neutralizes _______ and is anti-parasitic.
Heparin
This leukocyte is large, round, sometimes has a slightly indented nucleus which fills most of the cell. Has no granules.
Lymphocytes
The larger a lymphocyte is the (NEWER/OLDER) it is.
Older
___ lymphocytes are a precursor of plasma cells and ___ lymphocytes are precursors of T lymphocytes.
B lymphocytes; T lymphocytes
This is the largest leukocyte. It is eccentrically located, and has a kidney-shaped nucleus. It is agranular but appears to have granules due to small lysosomes in cytoplasm. It’s the precursor of macrophages and osteoclasts.
Monocytes
These are fragments of cells that are derived from megakaryocytes. They enhance aggregation by release of factors, and they promote clot formation, retraction, and dissolution.
Platelets
Adhesion of platelets involves _______.
Integrins
Platelets release ________ which increases platelet aggregation.
Thromboxane
Endothelial cells release ________ which decreases platelet aggregation.
Prostacyclin
This is the term for the elimination of bleeding.
Hemostasis
The most effective mechanisms for hemostasis occur in (SMALL/LARGE) vessels such as capillaries, arterioles, and venues.
Small
The accumulation of blood in tissues is called a ________.
Hematoma
Put the following hemostatic sequence of events (in small vessels) in order from first to last:
A. Slowing of blood B. Blood clotting (coagulation) C. Constriction of vessels D. Constriction of smooth muscles around vessels E. Formation of platelet plug
- D
- C
- A
- E
- B
Platelets adhere to the underlying ________ of the exposed injury in endothelial lining.
Collagen
____ and other factors cause the platelets to aggregate, forming a plug.
ADP
In addition to ADP and other factors, the conversion of _________ acid in the platelet plasma membrane to __________ will further stimulate platelet aggregation.
Arachidonic acid; Thromboxane A2
____ ________ factor is a plasma protein, released from ______-______ bodies in endothelial cells, that facilitates the adherence of platelets to the walls of the damaged blood vessel.
Von Willebrand; Weibel-Palade
________ is always found in the blood of normal individuals. It is an inactive form of an enzyme that is activated by Factor ____. In its activated state, called _______, it catalyzes the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
Prothrombin; Factor XII; Thrombin
_____ is a mesh-work in which platelets, blood cells, and plasma become entrapped to form the actual clot.
Fibrin
________ is always present in the blood of normal individuals. It is formed by the liver. It can convert into fibrin.
Fibrinogen
The fibrin meshwork forms in the presence of Factor ____, which is also activated by ________.
XIII; Thrombin
The term “factor” is another name for ______.
Proteins
When fibrinogen is being converted to fibrin, it is split into a number of __________ by thrombin. These are then linked by Factor XIII.
Polypeptides
The term used for the dissolution of fibrin clots is…
Fibrinolysis
Fibrinolysis occurs through activation of the _________ _______ system.
Plasminogen activator
Plasminogen activator proteins convert inactive ________ to its enzymatic (active) form, ______. This dissolves the clot.
Plasminogen; Plasmin
One of the plasminogen activators is ______ plasminogen activator, or ____ for short. This is produced by endothelial cells and circulates in the blood.
Tissue; t-PA
t-PA is a (STRONG/WEAK) enzyme in the absence of fibrin, so fibrin actually (INITIATES/STOPS) its own destruction.
Weak; Initiates
_______ and ____ dissolve the clot.
Plasmin; t-PA
The (EXTRINSIC/INTRINSIC) pathway is initiated by injury to the endothelium of the blood vessel exposing collagen fibers. Everything necessary for it to occur is already within the blood, including calcium, required as a cofactor for many of the sequential steps in the clotting cascades.
Intrinsic
The (EXTRINSIC/INTRINSIC) pathway involves the formation of tissue factor (thromboplastin or Factor III).
Extrinsic
__________ is a membrane-bound lipoprotein expressed at sites of cell injury; it is derived from the plasma or organelle membranes of damaged cells in the disrupted tissue and enters into circulating blood. It’s involved in the extrinsic pathway
Thromboplastin
Activated Factor XII (Hageman Factor) activates Factor ___.
Factor XI
Activated Factor XI activates Factor ___.
Factor IX
Activated Factor IX combines with activated Factor ____ and calcium to activate Factor ____.
Factor VIII; Factor X
_______ is also involved in the activation of Factor XI and Factor VIII.
Thrombin
Factor XII converts prothrombin to thrombin AND _________ to ________ (involved in formation of bradykinin).
Prekallikrein; Kallikrein
Kallikrein is involved in the formation of ________ (increases vascular permeability) in the ______ cascade and in the conversion of plasminogen to ______ in the fibrinolytic system.
Bradykinin; Kinin; Plasmin
Kallikrein can also act as a positive feedback loop and activate more _______ factor (Factor XII).
Hageman
In the extrinsic pathway, thromboplastin leads to the activation of Factor ____.
Factor VII
In the extrinsic pathway, tissue factor plus Factor VII and calcium will activate Factor ____.
Factor X
Both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathway end with the activation of Factor ___.
Factor X
In the common pathway, activated Factor X combines with activated Factor ___ and calcium to activate _________.
Factor V; Prothrombin
Factor V is activated by _________.
Thrombin
Prothrombin (inactive) and thrombin (active) is known as Factor ___.
Factor II
Thrombin (Factor II) with calcium converts _________ (Factor I) to ______.
Fibrinogen; Fibrin
Thrombin with calcium also activates Factor ____, which is necessary in the cross-linking of fibrin polymers to stabilize the fibrin gel.
Factor XIII
Most of the clotting factors are synthesized in the ______. Dysfunctions in this organ may affect the clotting mechanism.
Liver
Vitamin ___ (stored in the liver) is necessary in the synthesis of Factors ___, ___, and ___.
K; VII; IX; X
This is an antibody-induced hemolytic disease in the newborn that is caused by blood group incompatibility between mother and fetus. This incompatibility occurs when the fetus inherits RBC antigenic determinants that are foreign to the mother.
Erythroblastosis fetalis
___ antigen is the major cause of Rh incompatibility within a mother and fetus.
D
The initial exposure to the Rh antigen during the first pregnancy does not cause erythroblastosis fettles because ____ is produced and these are too large to cross the placenta. Subsequent exposure to D antigen during second or third pregnancy leads to a strong ___ response, and it can cross the placenta.
IgM; IgG
Rh negative mothers are given anti-D globulin soon after deliver of an Rh (NEGATIVE/POSITIVE) baby. Anti-D antibodies was the antigenic sites on the fetal RBCs that may have leaked into the maternal circulation during childbirth.
Positive
Hemolysis in erythroblastosis fetalis results in hemolytic ______ which causes hypoxic injury to the heart and liver leading to generalized edema (hydrous fetalis), _______ which causes damage to the CNS, and hyperbilirubinemia.
Anemia; Jaundice
In leukocyte extravasation, ____ is released by endothelial cells and increases vascular permeability.
NO (Nitric Oxide)
