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Animal Physiology > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What three things is ATP used for?

A
  1. Each ratcheting action of each HMM head
  2. Repolarization of the sarcolemma and T tubules
  3. Energy for the calcium pump to pull that calcium back into the lateral sac
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2
Q

Only about 1/4 of energy produced is used by muscle for contraction. What is the rest used for?

A

Most is used to produce heat

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3
Q

What is the sequence of energy sources for working muscle?

A
  1. ATP
  2. Creatine phosphate
  3. Respriation (using glucose as fuel)
  4. Lactic Acid
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4
Q

What two things are indicators of how much work heart muscles are doing?

A
  1. Creatine Kinase

2. Creatinine

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5
Q

______ ____ is an enzyme inside heart muscle that converts _____ ______ to ATP, the most important storage form of ATP.

A
  • Creatine Kinase

- Creatine phosphate

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6
Q

The blood enzyme _____ ____ in the blood is an indicator of heart muscle damage/heart attack. After a heart attack, levels _____.

A
  • Creatine kinase

- Increase

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7
Q

_____ is stored glucose.

A

Glycogen

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8
Q

How does rigor mortis occur?

A

When muscle tissue dies, all calcium is released from the lateral sacs. This causes continuous muscles contraction until all ATP is used. When all ATP is used, the myosin heads cannot stop cross-bridging, causing rigor mortis.

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9
Q

What is Rhabdomyolysis? What damage does it cause? Why did football players get it?

A

The football players worked their muscles too hard, leading to rhabdomyolysis, which is excessive damage to skeletal muscle. Creatine kinase levels were really high and started to crystalize. In addition, high levels of myoglobin is released to the blood, which damages the kidneys.

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10
Q

In damaged muscles the _____ are not oriented with each other and the _____ do not line up. The _____ ____ is torn up.

A
  • Myofibrils
  • Sarcomeres
  • Sarcoplasmic reticulum
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11
Q

True or False: Damaged muscle stops working while myosin is being replaced.

A

False, it will keep working

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12
Q

How is muscle myosin repaired?

A

There are three genes for myosin that are expressed at different stages in development. Damaged muscle reverts back to embryonic or pre-adult myosin, and eventually goes back to adult.

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13
Q

What are the three types of myosin?

A

Embryonic, pre-adult, and adult

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14
Q

What are four characteristics of smooth muscle?

A
  1. Thin filaments are anchored to dense bodies on the cell membrane
  2. The loose network of sarcoplasmic reticulum uses extracellular calcium instead of stored calcium, so it contracts slower
  3. Actin and myosin filaments overlap, but there is no Z line
  4. No T-tubules
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15
Q

What are five characteristics of cardiac muscle?

A
  1. Lots of cytoplasm
  2. 1/4 to 1/3 is mitochondria due to the huge demand for ATP
  3. Intercalated discs allow neighboring cells to touch each other
  4. Myofibrils are less dense
  5. Well developed T tubule system, but sarcoplasmic reticulum is not as large or as extensive
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16
Q

What does a cardiolite machine do?

A

The patient is injected with radioactivity that binds and lights up mitochondria. The patient walks and runs on a treadmill, and this imaging device scans the heart mitochondria. It is a measure of blood flow to the heart and can infer ischemic areas.

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17
Q

______ is high blood pressure. As blood pressure increases, ____ ____ increases. Why?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Death Rate
  • Myocardium has to work much harder
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18
Q

Why does a high blood pressure harm myocardium?

A

It causes myocardium to work harder, so the muscle increases in size. The valves also increase in size, so the don’t close completely, resulting in blood clots.

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19
Q

What is the order of development for skeleton, adipose, muscle, and CNS?

A
  1. CNS
  2. Skeleton
  3. Muscle
  4. Adipose
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20
Q

The extracellular matrix sticking out of cells in bone is the ___ or ____ part of bone. What does this part do for bone?

A
  • organic
  • osteoid
  • Gives bone flexibility or torque without breaking
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21
Q

_____ and ____ precipitate on the extracellular matrix of bone cells and make up the mineral part of bone.

A
  • Calcium

- Phosphorous

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22
Q

The ____ part of bone makes up about 1/3 of weight, and the ___ part of bone makes up about 2/3 of the weight.

A
  • osteoid

- mineral

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23
Q

What is the order of vertebrae from head to tail?

A
  1. cervical
  2. thoracic
  3. lumbar
  4. sacral
  5. coccygeal/axillary
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24
Q

What is the order of front leg bones and back leg bones?

A

Front: scapula, humerus, radius/ulna, carpal bones
Back: pelvis, femur, petilla, tibia/fibula

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25
Q

Hors and pigs have the _____ bone, but it is only a remnant in cows.

A

Fibula

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26
Q

What happens to the distal bones as animals stand more upright on their toes?

A

They become longer

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27
Q

What are the ten major differences between mammals and avian?

A
  1. Prominent orbit
  2. Beak (different jaw structure)
  3. Uribogeal Gland and a lot of cervical vertebrae to reach it
  4. Notarium
  5. Pectorial girdle
  6. Keeled sternum
  7. Criss-cross ribs
  8. Fused tail vertebrae for stability
  9. Open pelvis for oviposition
  10. Fused phalanx bones
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28
Q

What does the pectorial girdle in avian species contain?

A
  1. furcula/wish bone
  2. coracoid
  3. scapula
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29
Q

What is the notarium in avian species? What is its purpose?

A
  • the fusion of two or more of the thoracic vertebrae

- It braces the chest against forces generated by the wings

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30
Q

The ____ in birds is a fused collarbone.

A

Furcula

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31
Q

The ______ ____ , or preen gland, is above the tail head in birds and secretes oil.

A

uropygial gland

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32
Q

What does the keeled sternum do for birds? What does it help the grey-headed albatross do?

A
  • It aids in muscle attachment to the sternum

- It helps them fly long distances

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33
Q

Mammals use the hormone ____ to relax the pelivs. How can birds relax their pelvis?

A
  • Relaxant

- Birds can swing their pelvis open on the ventral side to allow an egg to pass through (oviposition)

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34
Q

What feature do marine birds have that gives them buoyancy?

A

They have holes in their bones

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35
Q

What are the five functions of bone?

A
  1. Support
  2. Protection
  3. Movement
  4. Mineral Reservoir
  5. Hemopoiesis in bone marrow
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36
Q

_____ is the making of blood cells.

A

Hemopoiesis

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37
Q

What is the pathway of calcium absorbed from food?

A

Food–> blood –> bone

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38
Q

How do females put calcium in milk?

A

They draw calcium from bone

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39
Q

What are the three places calcium in the bone can go? Where can it come from?

A
  • Go to gut, mammary, or fetus

- Come from gut (absorbed from food)

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40
Q

Are young or old animals more efficient at making calcium and phosphorous?

A

Young

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41
Q

True or False: Older animals can have 100% turnover of calcium and phosphorous in a year.

A

False, young animals can

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42
Q

_____ serves as a reservoir of calcium and phosphorous.

A

Bone

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43
Q

Where are calcium and phosphorous stored?

A

bones and teeth

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44
Q

What are two methods to describe bones?

A
  1. Morphology/shape

2. Compact or Cancellous

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45
Q

The cortical part of bone has _____ bone, and the medullary portion has ____ bone.

A
  • Compact

- Spongy (cancellous)

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46
Q

True or False: The medullary and cortical portions of bone have low blood supply

A

False

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47
Q

The _____ is bands or columns of connective tissue forming cancellous bone.

A

Trabecula

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48
Q

What happens to the trabecula as you age?

A

It begins to decrease, leaving a medullary cavity with bone marrow making blood cells.

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49
Q

What is intraosseous infusion?

A

Injecting a needle dirctly into bone marrow to provide a route for administering fluid, blood, or medication.

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50
Q

Within compact bone is the ____ system, also called the _____ system.

A
  • Haversion

- Osteon

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51
Q

Haversion canals are also called what?

A

Central canals

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52
Q

What makes up an osteon?

A

The haversion canals puls concentric rings

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53
Q

Osteons are found in ______ bone.

A

Compact

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54
Q

At the center of an osteon is a ______ ____ containing _____ ______. Surrounding this is _____ which form rings.

A
  • Haversion canal
  • Blood vessels
  • Lamina
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55
Q

In the lamina are small spaces called ______ meaning lake.

A

Lacunae

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56
Q

Cells in the lacunae are ________. These cells are in communication with the haversion canals through ______, which are capillaries to feed cells in the lacunae.

A
  • Osteocytes

- Canaliculi

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57
Q

_______ link the lacunae to each other and the haversion canal.

A

Canaliculi

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58
Q

The ______ is the connective tissue on the outside of compact bone. _______ is connective tissue on the inside of bone.

A
  • Periosteum

- Endosteum

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59
Q

Through very small ______, capillaries and interstitial fluid extend to each lacunae.

A

Canaliculi

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60
Q

What are the three kinds of bone cells?

A
  1. Osteroblasts
  2. Osteocytes
  3. Osteoclasts
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61
Q

True or False: Periosteum is not found on the ends of bones where they articulate.

A

True

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62
Q

______ sit under the endosteum and release enzymes to demineralize bone. They trim away the inner edge of ______ bone.

A
  • Osteoclasts

- Compact

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63
Q

How do long bones grow?

A
  1. Length wise

2. Diameter

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64
Q

______ make new bone.

A

-Osteoblasts

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65
Q

_______ sit just under the periosteum and endosteum. What do those under the endosteum do?

A
  • Osteoblasts

- They stay dormant until a fracture

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66
Q

As bone grows, it captures _____ and they become _____ in the lacunae.

A
  • osteoblasts

- osterocytes

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67
Q

______ are multinuclear cells that are chewers formed from fused _____.

A
  • Osteoclasts

- Macrophages

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68
Q

Most tissues in the body contain ____ _____ of macrophages, called ____ macrophages, that protect the tissue from infection. In the bones, these are _____.

A
  • Resident populations
  • Fixed macrophages
  • Osteoclasts
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69
Q

In each lacunae, there is an _____.

A

Osteocyte

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70
Q

Surrounding each osteocyte is _____ _____. Branching off of this is the protein _______, with _____ and ____ extending from those branches.

A
  • Extracellular fluid
  • Gycosaminoglycan
  • Phosphorous and calcium
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71
Q

The elaborate extracellular matrix of bone is _________.

A

Glycosaminoglycan

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72
Q

Give an example of a long bone and its function.

A
  • Femur, phalynx

- Locomotion

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73
Q

Give an example of short bones and their function.

A
  • Carpals or tarsals

- Cushion complex joints

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74
Q

Give an example of flat bones and their function.

A
  • Parietal, ribs, scapula, pelvis

- Protection and hematopoiesis

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75
Q

Give an example of sesamoid bones and their function.

A
  • Patella

- Alter the direction of tendons/ligaments

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76
Q

Give an example of pneumatic bones and their function

A
  • Frontal

- Keeps the skull lightweight/ resonance of sound

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77
Q

Give an example of irregular bones and their function

A
  • Vertebrae

- Attachment and protection of spinal chord

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78
Q

The _____ of bone is the round end, the _____ is the flat end of the midsection or shaft, and the midsection or shaft is the ______.

A
  • Epiphysis
  • Metaphysis
  • Diaphysis
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79
Q

The hard part of bone between the metaphysis and the epiphysis is the ____ _____.

A

Growth Plate

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80
Q

In development, long bones form ______ that hardens to form bone to form the _____ _____, or growth plate. Cells present here are _______, which produce and maintain the cartilaginous matrix.

A
  • cartilage
  • Epiphyseal plate
  • Chonrdocytes
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81
Q

What does the cartilaginous matrix of bone consist of?

A

Collagen and proteoglycans

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82
Q

______ hardens to form bone.

A

Cartilage

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83
Q

______ bones are a two-dimensional sheet-like bone.

A

Flat

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84
Q

______ bones are cuboidal shaped and may have several medullary cavities.

A

Short

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85
Q

_____ is the cancellous part of flat bones. It has pores where ______ bone marrow is found that is actively involved in ______.

A
  • Diploe
  • Red
  • Hemopoiesis
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86
Q

Sinuses in nasal cavities extend into _____ bones. What is unique about these bones?

A
  • Pneumatic

- They have air spaces

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87
Q

What does PTH stand for and what does it do to bone>

A
  • Parathyroid hormone

- Demineralizes bone using osteocytes and osteoclasts to increase calcium in the blood, so it breaks down bone

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88
Q

What does calcitonin do to bone

A

It uses osteoblasts and osteocytes to decrease calcium in blood and increase bone formation

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89
Q

What disease is a result of excess growth hormone?

A

Gigantism, or acromegaly

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90
Q

_____ stimulates osteoclasts, and ____ stimulates osteoblasts.

A
  • PTH

- Calcitonin

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91
Q

What are the four major hormones that stimulate osteoblasts causing bone formation?

A
  1. Growth Hormone
  2. Calcitonin
  3. Androgens
  4. Insulin
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92
Q

What are the four major hormones that stimulate osteoclasts causing bone absorption?

A
  1. PTH
  2. Cortisol
  3. T3/T4
  4. Prostaglandins
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93
Q

_____ acts to maintain the appropriate ratio between bone-forming osteoblasts and bone-reabsorbing osteoclasts in part through the induction of ______ apoptosis.

A
  • Estrogen

- Osteoclast

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94
Q

When estrogen decreases, what happens to osteoclasts?

A

They increase and break down bone

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95
Q

Raloxifene and Taoxifen are ______ ____ - _____ ____, or SERMS. What do they act on?

A
  • Selective estrogen-Receptor Modulators

- Estrogen receptors

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96
Q

What are the effects of agonistic and antagonistic SERMs?

A
  • Agonist: promote the action of estrogen. During menopause, this helps alleviate the decrease in estrogen production
  • Antagonist: Bind estrogen receptors and inhibit the action of estrogen. This is useful in urterine and breast cancer patients.
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97
Q

What is the problem with agonistic or antagoistic SERMs?

A

All cells respond to estrogen so you can’t target certain cells

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98
Q

During menopause, there is a decrease in _____, causing a loss of _____.

A
  • Estrogen

- Bone

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99
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

A decrease in bone mass that can lead to osteoporotic fractures

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100
Q

The average US citizen gets _____ the calcium needed.

A

Half

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101
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

A decrease in bone mass, called Rickets in children, and is often related to vitamin D deficiency

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102
Q

What are the three types of ossification or mineralization and describe them.

A
  1. Endochondral (intercartilagenous ossification such as the epiphyseal plates replacing cartilage and hardening bone)
  2. Intramembranous (Active osteoblasts under the periosteum; this is how flat bones grow)
  3. Heteroplasic (Formation of bone-like material outside the skeleton)
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103
Q

Give three examples of heteroplasic ossification.

A

Gall/Kidney stones, os penis, os cordis

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104
Q

A bone like material in the heart of old cows is called ____ _____ and is an example of _____ ossification.

A
  • Os cordis

- Heteroplasic

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105
Q

What are uroliths?

A

Bladder stones or calculi that block the flow of urine through the urethra

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106
Q

A bone fracture under the skin is a ____ fracture, and one that breaks through the skin is a _____ fracture.

A
  • Simple

- Open

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107
Q

A ____ ____ fracture is one that is a fracture on one side of the bone and the bone is broken on the other side.

A

Green stick

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108
Q

A _____ fracture is one that is all the way across the bone.

A

Complete

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109
Q

A _____ fracture occurs in a break at the growth plate.

A

Epiphyseal

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110
Q

A ____ fracture occurs when the bone is broken into many pieces.

A

Comminuted

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111
Q

When a bone fracture occurs, what happens at the site?

A

Bleeding, clot, callus (calcified clot), Osteocytes trim down the callus

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112
Q

What two things need to happen for repair of a fracture?

A
  1. Apposition

2. Immobilization

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113
Q

Why did 21 horses die over a weekend before a championship match?

A

They developed selinosis, or selidium toxicity

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114
Q

____ is a branch of pharmacology that studies drug action.

A

Pharmacokinetics

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115
Q

______ is the effect of a drug on the body and ____ is the effect of the body on a drug.

A
  • Pharmacodynamics

- Pharmacokinetics

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116
Q

What is pharmacokinetics?

A

The quantitative description of drug disposition, which is the movement of a drug into, through, and out of the body

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117
Q

A ____ is a chemical not naturally found in the body that can change something in the body.

A

Drug

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118
Q

A plant extract was used to fight congestive heart failure, but once the active ingredient _____, was identified and became controlled, it became illegal to use it.

A

-Digitalis

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119
Q

When choosing a drug, you must consider your ____ _____. For example, for a cow experiencing calving difficulty, you need a drug that takes effect quickly

A

Therapeutic objective.

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120
Q

When you give a drug, what four steps does it go through that you must consider?

A
  1. Absorption (entering the blood)
  2. Distribution ( Delivery throughout the body)
  3. Metabolism (Biotransformation)
  4. Elimination (Excretion)
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121
Q

What are the two routes of administration of a drug?

A
  1. Enteral

2. Parenteral

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122
Q

_____ administration of a drug utilizes the GI tract, such as oral, sublingual, or rectal. ________ administration does not utilize the GI tract, such as intravenous, intramuscular, or vaginal.

A
  • Enteral

- Parenteral

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123
Q

____ is a ____ route of drug administration that is injection just under the skin.

A
  • Intradermal (ID)

- Prenteral

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124
Q

____ is a ____ route of drug administration that is into subcutaneous tissue.

A
  • Subcutaneous (SC)

- Parenteral

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125
Q

____ is a ____ route of drug administration that is into the muscle.

A
  • Intramuscular (IM)

- Parenteral

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126
Q

____ is a ____ route of drug administration that is into a vein.

A
  • Intravenous (IV)

- Parenteral

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127
Q

____ is a ____ route of drug administration that is into the peritoneum.

A
  • Intraperitoneal (IP)

- Parenteral

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128
Q

____ is a ____ route of drug administration that is into the cerebrospinal fluid

A
  • Intrathecal

- Parenteral

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129
Q

____ is a ____ route of drug administration that is into epidural space.

A
  • Epidural

- Parenteral

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130
Q

Describe the two types of intravenous injections.

A
  • IV Bolus: Rapid injection, large does all at once

- IV drip: Slow and steady infusion

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131
Q

What is an intrathecal catheter used for and where is it placed?

A
  • Used for chronic pain

- Placed in the CSF in the intrathecal space of the spinal chord

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132
Q

What is a pyrofast injector?

A

A jet injector of a drug developed to apply pressure evenly for an even blast of chemicals. However, the FDA has no data to support the safety or effectiveness of flue vaccines using these injectors.

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133
Q

For intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous, and oral dosage forms, what are the relative rates of drug absorption?

A

IV > IM > SC > Oral

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134
Q

For intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous, and oral dosage forms, what are the relative rates of drug duration?

A

Oral > SC > IM > IV

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135
Q

The _____ _____ ______ is the concentration limit of a drug that, above this concentration, the drug becomes toxic.

A

Maximum tolerated concentration

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136
Q

THe ______ ______ _____ is a minimum amount of a drug that must be given for it to be effective.

A

Minimum Effective Concentration

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137
Q

What is the Tmax in a drug concentration curve?

A

The time it takes for a drug to reach maximum peak concentration

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138
Q

What is the Cmax of a drug?

A

The peak concentration that it reaches in the blood

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139
Q

The _____ _____ ____ is how long the drug is above the minimum effective concentration.

A

Duration of action

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140
Q

What is the AUC on a drug concentration curve?

A

The area under the curve

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141
Q

What is the problem with people giving a dog Ivermectim to treat heart worm extra-label?

A

If the dog has any collie breeding, it will kill the dog

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142
Q

The ____ of a drug tells you how to use it and what it is legally approved for

A

Label

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143
Q

____ ____ drug use is using a drug not according to the label. What is the biggest worry of this?

A
  • Extra label

- developing resistance to the drug

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144
Q

Ideally for a drug, you want a _____ range before and after the drug reaches and falls below the MEC. With extra label drug use, which becomes longer? What is the problem with this?

A
  • Short

- The drug stays in the body longer after it falls below the MEC, allowing resistance to happen

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145
Q

As a drug moves through the lumen of capillaries, it has to go through the ____ _____ and _____ ___.

A
  • Endothelial cells

- Basal lamina

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146
Q

____ capillaries have a complete basal lamina and continuous endothelial lining.

A

-Continuous

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147
Q

_____ capillaries have a complete basal lamina and fenestrated endothelial lining.

A

-Fenestrated

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148
Q

_____ capillaries have an incomplete basal lamina and fenestrated endothelial lining.

A

-Discontinuous

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149
Q

What is the order of ease through which a drug passes through the three kinds of capillaries from easiest to hardest?

A

Discontinuous, fenestrated, continuous

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150
Q

_____ capillary barriers are the most common and are found in the skin, lungs, muscle, CNS, and especially in the tight junctions of the blood brain barrier.

A

Continuous

151
Q

Why does the blood brain barrier make it hard for drugs to be distributed to the brain?

A

There are tight junctions between the endothelial cells, and there is an extra cover on the capillaries in the brain made of pericytes and astrocytes

152
Q

_____ and _____ make up the blood brain barrier.

A
  • Pericytes

- Astrocytes

153
Q

What does it mean if the protein S100B is found in the blood?

A

The blood brain barrier has been breached and the patient may have a concussion

154
Q

A ____ capillary is found in secretory glands such as a corpus luteum and in the glomerulus in the kidney.

A

-Fenestrated

155
Q

Why are discontinuous capillaries found in red bone marrow?

A

They allow red blood cells that are produced there to get into the blood

156
Q

What is unique about discontinuous capillaries?

A

When the gaps in the basal lamina and endothelial cells line up, there is no barrier

157
Q

Hydrophilic/Lypophobic drugs are _____ solube. How are they injected into and excreted from the body?

A
  • Water
  • Injected in a water carrier
  • Since excretions are water based, they leave easily
158
Q

Hydrophobic/Lipophilic drugs are _____ soluble. How are they injected into and excreted from the body?

A
  • Fat
  • Injected in an oil carrier
  • It takes longer for them to leave the body because they must pas through the liver to become water soluble via conjugation
159
Q

Drugs can be altered in structure, or biotransformed, in the _____. What does it do to the inactive and active forms of estradiol?

A
  • Liver
  • The liver alters the active form to an inactive form
  • The liver cleaves the benzoate of the inactive form to make it the active form and makes its effects last longer in the body
160
Q

What is a good indicator of hydration? What effect does vitamin B6 have on this?

A
  • Urine color

- B6, or riboflavin, is very water soluble and makes urine a bright yellow color

161
Q

For things to be eliminated, they must be _____ ____.

A

Water soluble

162
Q

A drug’s ____ _____ is the time it takes for its concentration to be cut in half.

A

Half life

163
Q

In general, a drug is eliminated from the body after ____ half-lives.

A

10

164
Q

What does the FDA do to make sure a drug is out of the system?

A

They inspect the injection site for residues

165
Q

How doe we know how much of a drug to give an animal?

A

Through animal and people trials to establish dose-response curves

166
Q

A dose-response curve is always on a ____ scale. In the _____ portion a small change in dose leads to a large change in response. Before this portion is the ____, and after is the ____ _____.

A
  • Log
  • Linear
  • Threshold
  • Efficacy Plateu
167
Q

A dose-response curve is a _____ way of measuring an animals response to a drug.

A

Quantitative

168
Q

A frequency dose response curve is a _____ curve which uses a _____ distribution.

A
  • Qualitative

- Binomial

169
Q

True or False: A frequency dose response curve summarizes parts of the whole population.

A

False, it summarizes the whole population with did they respond or not

170
Q

How ____ a drug is means how much of it you need to elicit an effect.

A

Potent

171
Q

True or False: The physiology of the animal, such as pregnancy, will shift the dose-response curve.

A

True

172
Q

What is an ED50 value on an effective dose curve?

A

The dosage that will cure half the population

173
Q

As the “ED” value goes from ED1 to ED50, what happens to the dosage?

A

It increases

174
Q

You must administer drug A at 50mL, and drug B at 60 mL. However, at these dosages, they give an equal response, and the ED50s are the same. These two drugs are ___, meaning what?

A
  • Equipotent

- The dosage of two drugs that will give an equal response

175
Q

What is TD50?

A

A dosage that is toxic enough to kill half the population

176
Q

What is LD50?

A

The dosage that will kill have the population

177
Q

The safeness of a drug can be determined by what?

A

The distances between the ED and TD curves. Farther apart is better.

178
Q

What is the therapeutic index?

A

The TD50 divided by the ED50. The bigger the number, the safer the drug.

179
Q

What are the three functions of the kidneys?

A
  1. Excretory
  2. Regulatory
  3. Endocrine
180
Q

Kidneys make up ___% of body weight and have the _____ ____ on top.

A
  • 1

- adrenal glands

181
Q

The _____ ______ is The medial, indented area of the kidney that forms the entry and/or exit point for blood vessels, nerves, and lymph vessels.

A

Renal Hilus

182
Q

True or False: There is a low blood supply to the kidneys.

A

False, there is a high blood supply and high pressure

183
Q

The _____ of the kidney is the tough outer covering. The _____ is the tubular part of the nephron. The _____ is the loop of the nephron. The ____ is the innermost part that fills with urine.

A
  • Capsule
  • Cortex
  • Medulla
  • Pelvis
184
Q

The kidney is made of many _____.

A

Lobes

185
Q

The ____ is the structural unit of the kidney. How many are there in the kidney? What is their function?

A
  • Nephron
  • Over a million
  • Remove waste from the blood
186
Q

_____ means the same as urination.

A

Micturition

187
Q

The tubular part of a nephron sits in the ____ of the kidney, but the loop part sits in the _____.

A
  • Cortex

- Medulla

188
Q

What is inside Bowman’s capsule?

A

The glomerulus, a capillary bed

189
Q

What is the order of flow of fluids through a nephron?

A

Bowman’s capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of henle, distal convoluted tubule, collecting duct

190
Q

The functional unit of the kidney is composed of a ____ and ____ ____,

A
  • nephron

- collecting duct

191
Q

What is the portal system of the kidney like?

A
  • The first capillary bed is in Bownman’s capsule

- The second capillary bed is called the peritubular capillary bed and is all over the tubular portion of the nephron

192
Q

True or False: To lower blood volume, you should excrete more urine.

A

True

193
Q

The ____ is a tight, tuft-like capillary in the kidney.

A

Glomerulus

194
Q

What is the function of Bowman’s capsule?

A

Filtration

195
Q

The glomerulus is lined with _____ and is facing ______. The visceral side of Bowman’s capsule is lined with ____ cells and is facing ______. In between these two layers is what?

A
  • Endothelium
  • Blood
  • Epithelial
  • Urine
  • A basal lamina
196
Q

As filtrate goes from Bowman’s capsule to the proximal convoluted tubule, ____ occurs first. Then ____ occurs as some things such as toxins go from the blood to the urine.

A
  • Reabsorption

- Secretion

197
Q

The endothelial lining of the glomerulus is ______. _____ arecells that wrap around the outside of the glomerulus using finger-like projections called ______ and make up the visceral side of Bowman’s capsule.

A
  • Fenestrated
  • podocytes
  • Pedicels
198
Q

What happens to the two basal lamina that the endothelial cells of the glomerulus and the epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule sit on?

A

They are so tight that it is fused into one basal lamina

199
Q

What makes up the filtration barrier from the glomerular capillary to Bowman’s capsule?

A
  1. fenestrated capillary
  2. Basement membrane
  3. Filtration Slits
200
Q

To be filtered out of the glomerulus to Bowman’s capsule, how many basement membranes does filtrate have to cross?

A

1

201
Q

In between the pedicels of podocytes are ___ ____.

A

Filtration slits

202
Q

True or False: Cells, platelets, and large plasma proteins can pass through the filtration barrier of Bowman’s capsule.

A

False, they are too big

203
Q

What can pass through the filtration barrier of Bowman’s capsule?

A

Small molecules such as salts, glucose, amino acids, vitamins, and nitrogenous wastes

204
Q

Are there any cells between blood and urine in Bowman’s Capsule?

A

No, just a basal lamina

205
Q

True or False: Plasma proteins stay in the blood and are not filtered out of Bowman’s capsule.

A

True

206
Q

What is kidney failure usually caused by?

A

The glomerulus and podocytes of Bowman’s capsule have a very delicate anatomy. Destruction of the epithelium by a sever allergic reaction or excessive antibiotics can cause the filtration slits and podocytes to be damaged, causing kidney failure

207
Q

The second capillary bed of the portal system in the kidney is the ____ capillary bed, which sits very close to the ____ ____ _____.

A
  • Peritubular

- Proximal Convoluted Tubule

208
Q

What is the lumenal membrane of the proximal convoluted tubule like?

A

It has different “pumps” for the reabsorption or secretion

209
Q

Lining the proximal convoluted tubule are ____ cells which are ____ because they do different things.

A
  • Epithelial

- Polarized

210
Q

What are the two functions of the proximal convoluted tubule?

A
  1. Active transport of toxins directly secreted into urine from the peritubular capillary bed to the proximal tubule
  2. Reabsorption of 60-80% of water and 100% of sugar, amino acids, chlorine, and bicarbonate
211
Q

What are two characteristics of renal blood flow?

A
  1. High blood flow

2. Two capillary beds

212
Q

There is ____ hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillary bed and _____ hydrostatic pressure in the peritubular capillary bed.

A
  • high

- low

213
Q

The descending part of the loop of henle is _____ for ____ movement. The ascending portion is _____, then ______ for active transport of ______.

A
  • Thin
  • Passive
  • Thin
  • Thick
  • Sodium
214
Q

The _____ ______ _____ is a continuation of the thick part of the ascending loop of henle.

A

Distal Convoluted Tubule

215
Q

What is the function of the DCT?

A

Removal of sodium ions from urine

216
Q

The DCT is where the hormone ____ works so that ____ and ____ ____ are reabsorbed.

A
  • Aldosterone
  • Water
  • Sodium ions
217
Q

Why is the medulla of the kidney salty?

A

That is where sodium comes out of the nephron

218
Q

The ascending loop of henle is ______ to water to allow ______ to be reabsorbed.

A
  • Impermeable

- Sodium

219
Q

In the descending loop of henle, ____ is reabsorbed. In the ascendign loop of henle, _____ is reabsorbed.

A
  • Water

- Sodium

220
Q

What happens in the collecting duct?

A

Water is reabsorbed, making urine more concentrated

221
Q

Where is the only place in a nephron that water is not reabsorbed?

A

The ascending loop of henle

222
Q

What is the overall purpose of the loop of henle?

A

The loop of henle is placed in the salty medulla, allowing water to be reabsorbed and leaving the urine

223
Q

How much of what was originally filtered from the blood in Bowman’s capsule leaves as urine?

A

1%

224
Q

True or False: Sodium is reabsorbed in the descending loop of henle.

A

False

225
Q

As you increase blood pressure, cardiovascular mortality ______.

A

Increases

226
Q

The ______ ______ is located near the glomerulus and regulates blood pressure and the filtration rate of the glomerulus.

A

-Juxtaglomerular apparatus

227
Q

When there is high blood pressure, urine volume ______ as more is _____ out of the glomerulus.

A
  • Increases

- filtered

228
Q

With low blood volume and low blood pressure, urine volume _____.

A

Decreases

229
Q

The juxtaglomerular apparatus is composed of what?

A
  1. Macula densa cels of the DCT

2. JG cells around afferent and efferent arteries

230
Q

What are macula densa cells a part of and what is their purpose?

A
  • Juxtaglomerular apparatus

- Monitor if the kidney isn’t filtering enough blood and if the osmolarity of blood is correct

231
Q

What four things to macula densa cells monitor?

A
  1. Low glomerular filtration rate
  2. Low blood pressure in afferent artery
  3. Low concentration of sodium in afferent artery
  4. Low osmolarity of fluid going through the distial convoluted tubule
232
Q

What sequence of events occur when deviations are detected in the blood by macula densa cells?

A

Macula densa cells stimulate JG cells, JG cells release Renin in to the blood, Renin cleaves the blood protein Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin 1, Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) in the lungs cleaves angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2

233
Q

What does three things does angiotensin II do?

A
  1. Vasoconstrictor causing an increase in blood pressure
  2. Causes release of aldosterone causing sodium and water retention and potassium secretion
  3. Release of ADH causing water reabsorbtion from the collecting duct
234
Q

Renin is released by ____ cells. The substrate for renin is _____.

A
  • JG

- Angiotensinogen

235
Q

Angiotensinogen is a ____ protein that comes from the _____.

A
  • blood

- Liver

236
Q

_____ is a steroid from the adrenal cortex that causes reabsorption of sodium and water.

A

Aldosterone

237
Q

The ____ _____ is the outermost part of the cortex of the adrenal gland that releases ____ to the blood.

A
  • Zona Glomerulosa

- Aldosterone

238
Q

What system is the process of angiotensin activation?

A

Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System (RAAS)

239
Q

The major target of aldosterone is the _____ _____.

A

Distal tubule

240
Q

What are the three primary physiological effects of aldosterone?

A
  1. Reabsorption of water
  2. Reabsorption of sodium
  3. Increased secretion of potassium
241
Q

Why are people with myocardial infarction given an ACE inhibitor?

A

This blocks ACE, so that angiotensin II and aldosterone are not made, which lowers blood pressure

242
Q

Angtiotensin II causes vasoconstriction in the ____ artery to increase glomerular filtration rate.

A

Afferent

243
Q

What is a diuretic?

A

A drug that will increase urine production

244
Q

What does ADH stand for and what does it do?

A
  • Antidiuretic hormone
  • Made in the hypothalamus and released by the pituitary. It affects the collecting duct of nephrons to allow water to be reabsorbed. This decreases urine volume and makes it very concentrated.
245
Q

No ADH produces ____ urine.

A

Dilute

246
Q

What happens when ADH is present and when it isn’t present?

A
  • Present: collecting duct is permeable to water and a small volume of urine is produced
  • Not present: collecting duct is impermeable to water and a large volume of urine is produced
247
Q

ADH opens _____ in the collecting duct wall to let water out.

A

Aquapores

248
Q

Alcohol inhibits the release of ADH, causing _____.

A

Dehydration

249
Q

When there is less water in the body, is a lot or a little ADH released?

A

A lot so that the urine is concentrated and no more water is lost

250
Q

What is central diabetes insipidus a result of?

A

Low ADH

251
Q

What is nephronic diabetes insipidus a result of?

A

ADH not working

252
Q

A symptom of diabetes insipidus is ____ volume of urine.

A

High

253
Q

What would happen to a population of 100 people if they took an LD30 diuretic drug?

A
  • 30 people would die

- The other 70 would have high urine volume

254
Q

Less aldosterone leads to more ____ loss. More aldosterone leads to less _____ retention.

A
  • sodium

- potassium

255
Q

More ADH leads to ____ urine volume. Less ADH leads to _____ urine volume.

A
  • less

- More

256
Q

What are the five main functions of the endocrine system?

A
  1. Maintain Internal Homeostasis
  2. Support Cell Growth
  3. Coordinate Development
  4. Coordinate Reproduction
  5. Facilitate responses to external stimuli
257
Q

A _____ is a chemical made in one part of the body that becomes blood borne and travels to a target cell in another part of the body.

A

Hormone

258
Q

______ _____ are made when invading epithelia become a deep, tube-less gland or get pinched off to form an island

A

Endocrine glands

259
Q

A ____ cell is one with a receptor for a certain hormone.

A

Target

260
Q

What are normally attached to hormones in the blood? Give an example for kangaroos.

A
  • Proteins

- Kangaroos have proteins tightly bound to sex hormones

261
Q

What are the four classes of hormones and give a description.

A
  1. Amines (one amino acid)
  2. Polypeptides (chain of amino acids)
  3. Steroids (from cholesterol)
  4. Eicosanoids (From arachadonic acid)
262
Q

What are the three sex steroids?

A
  1. Progesterone
  2. Testosterone
  3. Estradiol
263
Q

What are the four adrenal steroids?

A
  1. Cortisol
  2. Cortisone
  3. Corticosterone
  4. Aldosterone
264
Q

Prostaglandins and related compounds are collectively known as _____.

A

Eicosanoids

265
Q

What is a prostaglandin that controls ovary activity?

A

PGF2alpha

266
Q

Between the hypthalamus and the pituitary is the _____.

A

Stalk

267
Q

The _____ serves as the main regulator or processing center for all internal and external stimuli. The primary function is to maintain _______.

A
  • Hypothalamus

- Homeostasis

268
Q

True or False: Different areas of the hypothalamus specialize in different functions.

A

True

269
Q

What are seven functions of the hypothalamus?

A
  1. Temperature Control
  2. Water Balance
  3. Cardiovascular Activity
  4. Feeding Behavior
  5. Control of anterior pituitary
  6. Milk letdown
  7. Rage
270
Q

The pituitary sits in the ____ ____ bone.

A

Sella Turcica

271
Q

What does the anterior pituitary form from?

A

Rathke’s pouch of epithelial cells growing up from the roof of the mouth

272
Q

What does the posterior pituitary form from?

A

Neural tissue extending down from the base of the brain

273
Q

What are neurons like in the hypothalamus and pituitary?

A

The somas are in the hypothalamus and make hormones. During an action potential, the hormones travel down the long axon to a capillary in the posterior pit of the pituitary

274
Q

ADH is made in the _____ and released in the _____ _____.

A
  • Hypothalamus

- Posterior Pituitary

275
Q

The posterior pituitary is also called the ______.

A

Neurohypophysis

276
Q

What two hormones are released from the posterior pit?

A

ADH and oxytocin

277
Q

The anterior pituitary is also called the _____.

A

Adenohypophysis

278
Q

The anterior pituitary is a _____ gland. The Posterior pituitary is _____.

A
  • Ductless

- Neural

279
Q

There are _____ post pituitary hormones and ____ anterior pit hormones.

A
  • 2

- 6

280
Q

The anterior pituitary forms from an outgrowth of the mouth called _____ ______. There is a _____ _____ between the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary.

A
  • Rathke’s pouch

- Portal system

281
Q

How does the anterior pituitary-hypothalamus portal system work?

A

Factors are released in the first capillary bed and travel to the second capillary bed. This triggers the anterior pituitary to release hormones to the body

282
Q

In the stalk, between the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary, is the ____ ____.

A

Portal vein

283
Q

What is the difference in neurons between the posterior and anterior pituitary?

A
  • Posterior pituitary has long axons extending to a capillary bed in the pituitary
  • Anterior pituitary has neurons that stop at the first capillary bed of the portal system in the hypothalamus
284
Q

For the anterior pituitary, neurons make _____ ____ that are released into the blood in the ________. These hormones cause a different hormone to be released in the _____ ______.

A
  • Releasing Hormones
  • Hypothalamus
  • Anterior pituitary
285
Q

Hormones released in the anterior pituitary are controlled by ______ ______. Why is this done?

A
  • Releasing hormones

- Hormones released to the body are more concentrated this way

286
Q

How does the GHRH and GH system work?

A

Growth Hormone Releasing Hormone is released by neurons to the first capillary bed in the hypothalamus. Somatotrophs pull GHRH out of the blood stream at the second capillary bed in the anterior pituitary. Growth Hormone is released by the somatotrophs and is secreted out of the anterior pituitary.

287
Q

Another name for Growth Hormone is ______.

A

Somatotropin

288
Q

What does Growth Hormone do?

A

It acts directly on fat cells, causing them to break don and release carbs to cause a decrease in fat. It acts indirectly on the liver, causing it to release Insulin-Like Growth Factor-1 (IGF1), which makes bone and skeletal muscle grow

289
Q

______ are endocrine cells that have receptors for GHRH and make GH.

A

Somatotrophs

290
Q

What does bST stand for? What does each section mean?

A
  • Bovine somatotropin
  • ST = somatotropin
  • Small letter in from = source
291
Q

What is another name for IGF-1?

A

Somatomedin

292
Q

IGF-1 is the primary mediator of the effects of ______ ______.

A

Growth Hormone

293
Q

In the anterior pituitary, there are _____ types of endocrine cells secreting ____ hormones.

A
  • 5

- 6

294
Q

What endocrine cell type makes up 40% of all the endocrine cells in the anterior pituitary? How is this different in fetuses?

A
  • Somatotrophs

- 60% of cells in anterior pit are somatotrophs because they need to grow a lot

295
Q

The _____ _____ is two lobes around the trachea, connected by the ______.

A
  • Trachea

- Isthmus

296
Q

On the back of the thyroid, there are four ______ _____.

A

Parathyroid glands

297
Q

_____ is concentrated in the thyroid.

A

Iodine

298
Q

The thyroid used _____ and ______ and releases ____ and ____.

A
  • Tyrosine
  • Iodine
  • T3
  • T4 (thyroxine)
299
Q

Releasing T3 and T4 does what to they hypothalamus?

A

Causes negative feedback

300
Q

The thyroid is made of small sacs or vesicles called ______, which are filled with _______. The generic name for this fluid is ______.

A
  • Follicles
  • Thyroglobin
  • Colloid
301
Q

What does the thyroid make and secrete?

A

T3 and T4 (thyroxine)

302
Q

The other name for T4 is _______.

A

Thyroxine

303
Q

______ make thyroglobulin and secrete it into the follicular fluid. They also make up the _____ of thyroid follicles.

A

Thyrocytes

-Wall

304
Q

______ ______ _____ causes T3 and T4 to be secreted by thyrocytes.

A

-Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

305
Q

What is thyroglobulin and what does it do?

A

It is a huge protein that stores MIT and DIT. When the epithelial lining of a follicle is stimulated by TSH, thyroglobulin is internalized ans metabolized to T3 and T4.

306
Q

What is TRH and what does it do?

A
  • Thyrotropin Releasing Hormone
  • Made in the hypothalamus and released in the second capillary bed in the anterior pit. Thyrotrophs have receptors for this and are stimulated to make TSH.
307
Q

Thyrotrophs bind ______ and produce ______.

A
  • TRH

- TSH

308
Q

TSH is a dimeric polypeptide, like ____ and ______. What part is conserved and what part is unique in these?

A
  • FSH
  • LH
  • Alpha subunit is conserved
  • Beta subunit is unique
309
Q

T3 and T4 have a _____ ____ effect on neurons in the hypothalamus.

A

Negetive Feedback

310
Q

T3 and T4 are ____ hormones. What are their five functions?

A
  • Metabolic
    1. Increase BMR
    2. Increase cellular heat production
    3. Increase glucose uptake and utilization
    4. Increase proteins synthesis
    5. Increase cholesterol synthesis
311
Q

What doe thyroxine and T3 control?

A

Energy for maintenance

312
Q

Why does T3 and T4 have a long half-life?

A

They are bound to thyroxine binding protein (TBP) in the blood to allow it to continue circulating in the blood

313
Q

What would happen if you gave an animl exogenous TRH?

A

TSH would rise, T3 and T4 would rise, then TRH would fall due to negative feedback

314
Q

What are symptoms of hyperthyroidism?

A

active, nervous, irritable, exophthalmia (bulging eyes)

315
Q

What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?

A
  • Graves disease, an autoimmune disease
  • THe body makes antibodies against TSH receptors on thyrocytes that bind and continuosly stimulate the thyroid gland. T3 and T4 levels are too high.
316
Q

________ is low thyroid activity. What are symptoms? How do you treat it?

A
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Sleep a lot, sluggish muscles, overeat, myxedema (swelling of skin)
  • Treat with exogenous T3 and T4
317
Q

Both hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism have what symptom?

A

An enlarged thyroid

318
Q

________ is swelling of the thyroid gland and neck.

A

Goiter

319
Q

90% of people with hypothyrodism have the disease due to ________ disease. What is this?

A
  • Hashimoto’s
  • Mutation in TPO gene so that thyroperoxidase is not made in high enough quantities. This Causes people to be unable to put iodine on thyroglobulin, leading to low T3 and T4
320
Q

______ deficiency can cause hypothyroidism and ______.

A
  • Iodine

- Goiter

321
Q

What is the ratio of prevalence of goiter in women versus men?

A

13:1

322
Q

What kinds of foods can cause goiter?

A

Goitrogens, which are drugs or feed that interfere with thyroxin production

323
Q

The ______ gland is a tuft of ____ cells in the thyroid gland. It makes ______ _____ and is released when _____ levels are low.

A
  • Parathyroid
  • Chief
  • Parathyroid Hormone
  • Calcium
324
Q

True or False: The parathyroid gland utilizes the hypothalamo-pituitary axis.

A

False, it monitors blood going by

325
Q

Calcitonin is made from _____ cells, also called _____ cells.

A
  • C

- Parafollicular

326
Q

Parathyroid cells make _____ ,and C cells make ____.

A
  • Parathyroid Hormone

- Calcitonin

327
Q

______ opposes PTH as it is released when caclium levels in the blood are too ____.

A
  • Calcitonin

- High

328
Q

What three things does PTH do?

A
  1. Calcium reabsorption in the kidney
  2. Calcium demineralization from bone
  3. Helps kidney activate vitamin D to reabsorb calcium from the intestine
329
Q

What three things does calcitonin do?

A
  1. Calcium secretion in kidney
  2. Calcium uptake in bone
  3. Deactivates vitamin D so less calcium is absorbed in the intestine
330
Q

What is dihydroxycholecalciferol?

A

The active form of vitamin D, stimulated by PTH

331
Q

Cortisol is a ________.

A

Gluticorticoid

332
Q

Where to glucocorticoids, such as cortisol, come from>

A

The zona fasiculata of the adrenal cortex

333
Q

In the adrenal cortex, the zona glomerulosa secretes _______, the zona fasiculata secretes ______, and the zona reticularis secretes ______.

A
  • Aldosterone
  • Cortisol
  • Androgens
334
Q

What is CRH and ACTH and what do they do?

A

Corticotrophic Releasing Hormone is made in the hypothalamus and travels to the anterior pituitary pit where it stimulates the release of Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone by corticotrophs. This hormone travels to the adrenal cortex and stimulates the release of cortisol.

335
Q

Where are receptors for CRH found?

A

Corticotrophs in anterior pit

336
Q

How does cortisol affect CRH production?

A

Negative feedback, it inhibits it

337
Q

Cortisole is a _____ hormone. What are the six functions?

A
  • stress
    1. Anti-inflammatory
    2. Released under stress
    3. Inhibits fertility
    4. Stimulates maturation of fetal lungs
    5. Metaboic effect = increase glucose levels
    6. Induces parturition
338
Q

How can you measure cortisol without stressing the animal?

A

Measure cortisol in feces

339
Q

What is Addison’s disease? what are a few symptoms?

A
  • Hypoadrenocorticism
  • Low glucococorticoids (cortisol)
  • Weakness, lethargy, weight loss
340
Q

What is Cushing’s disease in dogs? What are a few symptoms?

A
  • Hyperadrenocorticism
  • Excess cortisol/glucocorticoids
  • Increae drinking urination, fluid in stomach, hair loss
341
Q

What is Cushing’s disease in horses? what are a few symptoms?

A
  • Hyperadrenocorticism
  • Excess cortisol/glucocorticoids
  • Sway back, curly hair, laminitis
342
Q

Why does Cushing’s disease cause laminitis in horses?

A

High sugar levels cause chemical damage to the lamina

343
Q

If you remove the parathyroid hormone, what symptom will occur to tell you that you have removed all of it?

A

Calcium levels will be low, leading to muscle tremors

344
Q

The _____ is a secretory organ that monitors the blood and scretes things to the small intestine.

A

Pancreas

345
Q

What is unique about the pancreas in dogs?

A

They have a well-developed left and right lobe of their pancreas

346
Q

_____ cells in the pancreas make secretions. These are _____ cells.

A
  • Acinar

- Exocrine

347
Q

_______ ______ _____ cells in the pancreas make hormones that will circulate in the blood. They are _____ cells. _____ cells secrete glucagon and _______ cells secrete insulin.

A
  • Islets of Langerhans
  • Ductless
  • Alpha
  • Beta
348
Q

True or False: They hypothalamus and pituitary control the pancreatic islets.

A

False

349
Q

How much of the pancreatic secretions are from the Islets? What are the rest from?

A
  • 1-2%

- Acinar exocrine cells

350
Q

_____ is released when sugar levels are low. _____ is released when sugar levels are high.

A
  • Glucagon

- Insulin

351
Q

What what the nickname for glucagon when it was being discoverd?

A

the “sugar drive hormone”

352
Q

When sugar levels rise after you eat, what will happen to insulin levels?

A

Insulin will rise

353
Q

Does the brain and muscles have receptors for insulin?

A

No, capillaries in the brain ensure sugar gets to the neurons and working muscle pulls sugar from the blood

354
Q

How does sugar get into cells that aren’t brain or muscle cells?

A

They must have receptors for insulin. When insulin binds, sugar can enter the cells.

355
Q

The precursor to insulin is _____.

A

Proinsulin

356
Q

In normal glucose handling in the kidney, how much glucose is reabsorbed? What about it diabetes mellitus?

A
  • 100% normally

- Some glucose escapes in urine

357
Q

Sugar in the urine in the collecting duct is a _____. Why is this?

A
  • diuretic

- Not all glucose is reabsorbed in diabetes mellitus, so water enters the collecting duct to dilute the urine more

358
Q

What is urine like in diabetes Mellitus? What are the types?

A
  • Honey urine

- Type 1, 2, and gestational

359
Q

What is type 1 diabetes and what causes it?

A
  • Homozygous recessive gene
  • Lack beta cells and do not make insulin
  • High sugar
360
Q

What things play a factor in the risk of getting diabetes?

A

Genetic components, age, race, sedentary lifestyle, dropping levels of calling a person diabetic, and the lack of symptoms early on

361
Q

Which type of diabetes is associated with obesity?

A

Type II diabetes mellitus

362
Q

At the time of diagnosis of diabetes, what is pancreatic function like?

A

50% of normal function

363
Q

What are the current measures for diagnosing diabetes?

A
  • 100-125 = prediabetic

- 126 or higher = diabetes

364
Q

What is the issue with too much sugar in the blood?

A

-Glucose is stick and sticks to blood proteins and cell extracellular matrices. This thickens blood and reduces function.

365
Q

Too much glucose in teh blood can cause _____ _____.

A

Glycosylated Hemoglobin

366
Q

True or False: No link has been found between diabetes and the chance of heart disease or stroke?

A

False

367
Q

Diabetes is the ____ leading cause of death in the US, most due to ____ ____ or ____.

A
  • 6th
  • Heart attack
  • Stroke
368
Q

What three things can diabetes cause?

A
  1. New blindess in adults
  2. Renal failure
  3. lower limb amputations
369
Q

What can help surgar levels?

A

Changing dietary patterns and exercising

370
Q

WHat is A1C/HA1C?

A

A three month average of sugar levels

371
Q

How does diabetes possibly lead to lower limb amputation?

A

-The thicker blood leads to less flexible endothelia and blockage of capillaries causing poor vasuclar health. This causes pain and nerve damage.

372
Q

What does glucagon act on?

A
  • THe liver to stimulate glucose production and release

- Fat to cause breakdown

373
Q

Insulin-Like Growth Factor-1 acts like _____.

A

Insulin

Animal Physiology (3 decks)

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